Test 95: Incorrect Flashcards

1
Q

How are osteocytes connected?

A

gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

equation for relative risk reduction

A

1- RR relative risk

- (absolute risk control - absolute risk treatment) / ( absolute risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what molecule stimulates vagus nerve

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

withdrawal from opioid is described

A
  • abdominal pain
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • diarrhea
  • piloerection
  • LACRIMATION
  • diaphoresis
  • YAWNING
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are eyes in cocaine intoxication

A

dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies are associated with

A

rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies are found in what

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What happens in lupus because of the formation of immune complex formation

A

decrease complement

C3, C4, CH50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

clinical use for Etanercept

A
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • psoriasis
  • akylosing spondylitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Calcipotriene, what is it? what is it used for

A
  • nuclear transcription factor
  • topical vitamin D analog for psoriasis
  • inhibit keratinocyte proliferation
  • keratinocyte differentiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Patient with neurologic symptoms ( tingling, difficulty concentrating) and recurrent episodes of nonspecific abdominal pain has

A

acute intermittent porphyria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is deficient in acute intermittent porphyria

A

prophobilinogen deaminase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

treatment for acute intermittent porphyria

A

glucose and heme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

in acute intermittent porphyria, infusion with heme or glucose down regulates what enzyme

A

aminolevulinate ( ALA) synthase

- rate limiting step of heme synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acute intermittent prophyria is due to accumulation of what

A
  • ALA

- porphobilinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Deficiency of ALA dehydrates and ferrochelatase

A

lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

chemotactic factors

A
C5a
IL-8 
LTB 4 
Kallikrein
platelet activating factor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DNA polymerase I has what special feature

A

5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity

- removes RNA primase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why are the left atria and ventricles less oxygenated than pulmonary capillaries

A

mixing of deoxygenated blood

  • bronchial arteries ( drain to either bronchial veins or pulmonary veins)
  • Thebesian ( small cardiac veins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

calcium-sensing receptors are what type of receptors

A

G-protien-couples receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

role of calcium-sensing receptors

A

regulate secretion of PTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

A

AD

- defective calcium-sensing receptors on PTH and kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Erythema infectiosum ( fifth disease present)

A
  • nonspecific prodrome followed by “slapped-cheek” facial rash and a lacy, reticular body body rash.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Parvovirus hits what cells? replicates where

A

erythoid precursor cells

- replicates in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Phase I of anesthetic block

A

flaccid paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Patient who has burns, mypathies, crush injuries, and denervating injuries and take succinylcholine are at risk for what

A

potassium release and life-threatening arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MOA of Dantrolene

A

ryanodine receptors, prevent calcium release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MOA fro Baclofen

A

Muscle relaxant that affects GABA B receptors at level of spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how does bacillus anthraces edema factor work

A

adenylate cyclase

  • increase cAMP
  • leading to neutrophil and macrophage dysfunction and tissue deem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Edema factor for Bacillus anthracis similar to what other bacteria

A

Bordetella pertussis

31
Q

What lipid lowering drug is good for primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular events, regardlgess of baseline lipid levels

A

Satins

32
Q

most effective lipid-lowering drug for primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular events, regardless of baseline lipid levels

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors ( statins)

33
Q

Patients with low high-desnity lipoprotein (HDL) levels are at increased risk for

A

cardiovascular disease

34
Q

how do medication that raise HDL level impact cardiovascular system

A

does not improve

35
Q

role of Omega-3 essential fatty acids

A
  • decrease serum triglycerides

- slight increase in HDL

36
Q

What maneuvers accentuate ventricular septal defect

A

increase after load

- handgrip

37
Q

Sudden, jerky, purposeless movements

A

Chorea

38
Q

Sudden, wild flailing of 1 arm +/- ipsilateral leg

A

Hemiballismus

39
Q

Slow, writhing movements; especially seen in fingers

A

athetosis

40
Q

what is damaged in hemiballismus? what is most common cause

A

contralateral subthalamic nucleus

- lacunar stroke

41
Q

Damage to internal capsule can cause

A

pure motor or combined sensorimotor deficits

42
Q

lentiform nucleus

A
  • globus pallidus

- putamen

43
Q

what disease has damaged lentiform nucleus? characterize the disease

A
  • Wilson disease

- liver, psychiatric, and neuro abnormalities

44
Q

What heart conditions does atrial contraction contribute significantly to left ventricular filling

A
  • chronic aortic stenosis

- concentric left ventricular hypertrophy

45
Q

If A-fib occurs during chronic aortic stenosis and concentric left ventricular hypertrophy, what hemodynamic changes occur in the heart

A
  • reduce LV preload

- reduce cardiac output

46
Q

Nuclear factor kappa B (RANK) and RANK ligand interaction is essential for formation and differentiation of what cells

A

osteoclasts

47
Q

role of osteoprotegerin

A

blocks binding of RANK-L to RANK

- reduce formation of osteoclasts

48
Q

2 important thins for osteoclast differentiation

A
  1. M-CSF

2. RANK-L

49
Q

how does low estrogen decrease osteoclasts

A
  • decrease osteoprotegerin
50
Q

how is mitochondrial myopathies inherited

A

maternal inheritance

51
Q

what is the medication choice to treat behavioral and psychotic manifestations of delirium

A

Antipsychotics ( Haloperidol)

52
Q

Doxepin is what type of drug

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

53
Q

what is the medication choice to treat behavioral and psychotic manifestations of delirium

A

Antipsychotics ( Haloperidol)

54
Q

what is Parinaud syndrome

A
  • compression of tectum causing vertical gaze palsy
55
Q

Pinealoma presents with what

A
  • obstructive hydrocephalus

- dorsal midbrain (parinaud syndrome)

56
Q

what is Parinaud syndrome

A
  • compression of tectum causing vertical gaze palsy
57
Q

How does obstructive hydrocephalus present

A
  • papilledema
  • headache
  • vomiting
58
Q

MOA for Foscarnet? toxicity

A

Analog of pyrophosphate

  • chelates calcium and promote nephrotoxic renal magnesium wasting
  • hypocalcemia, hypommagnesemia ( seizures)
59
Q

characterize red neuron

A
  • shrinkage of cell body,
  • eosinophilia of cytoplasm
  • pyknosis of nucleus
  • loss of Nissl substance
60
Q

Neuron that is responding to irreversible injury is called

A

red neuron

61
Q

MAO for Class IA antiarrhythmics

A

sodium channel-blocking agents that depress phase 0 depolarization
- moderate K channel blocking activity

62
Q

Name class IA antiarrhythmics

A

Quinidine
Procainamide
Disopyramide

63
Q

MAO for Class IA antiarrhythmics

A

sodium channel-blocking agents that depress phase 0 depolarization
- moderate K channel blocking activity

64
Q

Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) is what kind of receptor

A

tyrosine kinase receptor

65
Q

During catabolism of proteins in the liver, where is amino groups transferred from alanine

A

to alpha-keotgluterate to form glutamate

66
Q

in acute cellular rejection, who is against who

A

host against donor MHC

67
Q

During catabolism of proteins in the liver, where is amino groups transfered

A

to alpha-keotgluterate to form glutamate

68
Q

increase urinary concentrations of what prevent calculi formation

A
  • urinary citrate concentration

- high fluid intake

69
Q

increased urinary concentrations of what promote salt crystallization

A
  • calcium
  • oxalate
  • uric acid
70
Q

Small fibrotic focus in lower lobe of right lung and calcified lymph node in right lung hills is

A

primary exposure to M. tuberculosis

71
Q

India ink staining for cryptococcus neoformans shows what

A

round or oval budding yeast

72
Q

Small fibrotic focus in lower lobe of right lung and calcified lymph node in right lung hills is

A

primary exposure to M. tuberculosis

73
Q

Ghon complex

A
  • lower lobe lung lesion

- ipsilateral hilar adenopathy