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Uworld > Deck 63: All > Flashcards

Deck 63: All Flashcards

1
Q

How many amnion and chorion for Dizygotic twins

A

2 amnion and 2 chorion

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2
Q

When does dichorionic/diamnioic occur in monozygotic twinning

A

0-4 days

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3
Q

when does monochorionic diamniotc occur in monozygotic twinning

A

4-8 days

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4
Q

when does monochorionic mono amniotic occur for monozygotic twinning

A

8-12 days

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5
Q

What the risk for monochorionic mono amniotic for twins

A

conjoined twins after 13 days

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6
Q

HBeAg persists for several months and hist Anti-HBeAg remain at low or undetectable levels what should be suspected

A

hepatitis B infection with high infectivity

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7
Q

process of enabling people to increase control over their health its determinants, and thereby improve their health

A

Health promotion

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8
Q

Secondary disease prevention

A

Screen early for and manage existing but asymptomatic disease

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9
Q

impact of Simvastatin on hepatic cholesterol production

A

decreases

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10
Q

impact of cholestyramine on hepatic cholesterol production

A

increases hepatic cholesterol and bile acid synthesis

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11
Q

Where are bile acids reabsorbed

A

terminal ileum

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12
Q

Simvastatin and Cholestyramine have a synergistic reduction in what

A

plasma LDL levels

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13
Q

Acute nausea following administration of systemic chemotherapy results in stimulation of what

A

chemoreceptor trigger zone ( CTZ)

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14
Q

location of chemoreceptor trigger zone

A

area pastrami of dorsal medulla near 4th ventricle

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15
Q

Buprenorphine MOA

A

partial opioid receptor agonist that binds with high affinity but has low intrinsic activity

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16
Q

What combination drug can be given to an heroin addict who wants off

A

Naloxine and Buprenorphine

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17
Q

exchange of genetic information between 2 virus strains that have nonsegmented, double-stranded DNA genomes

A

Recombination

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18
Q

Mixing of genome segments in segmented viruses that infect the same host cell

A

reassortment

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19
Q

Genomic features of Hep E.

A

single-stranded RNA virus, unenveloped

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20
Q

How is Hep E. spread

A

fecal-oral route

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21
Q

what is responsible for the increased incidence of cholelithiasis in women who are pregnant or using oral contraceptives

A
  • estrogen-induced cholesterol hypersecretion

- progesterone-induced gallbladder hypomotility

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22
Q

Patient has perifollicular hemorrhages, maylgias, subperiosteal hematoma and gingivitis has what

A

scurvy: deficient ascorbic acid

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23
Q

Ascorbic acid is a cofactor for what process

A

hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues

- synthesis of collagen

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24
Q

6-month boy brought to ER with poor feeding and irritability. Physical examination reveals diffuse skin erythema. Also, epidermis easily comes off with gentle pressure? what does he have

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

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25
Q

Who get staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

infants and children

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26
Q

what is does the bacteria produce in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

exotoxin exfoliatin

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27
Q

How is Xeroderma pigmentosum inherited

A

autosoma recessive

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28
Q

what is wrong in xeroderma pigmentosum? cause?

A
  • defective nucleotide excision repair often caused by UV– specific endonuclease
  • form thymine dimers
29
Q

boy with severe photosensitivity, poikiloderma, hyper pigmentation in sun-exposed areas and squamous cell carcinoma

A

xeroderma pigmentosum

30
Q

Ether and other organic solvents do what to what part of the virus structure

A

dissolve lipid bilayer that makes up outer viral envelope

31
Q

pulmonary capilllary wedge pressure reflects what

A

left atrial and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures

32
Q

In what heart abnormality do you see increased pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

A

mitral stenosis

33
Q

MOA of Fibrate

A
  • upregulates lipoprotein lipase, increase oxidation of fatty acids
  • inhibit cholesterol 7 alpha-hydroxylase
34
Q

What is the rate limiting step in bile acid synthesis

A

Cholesterol 7 alpha-hydroxylase

35
Q

impact of estrogen on cholesterol

A

upregulates hepatic HMG-CoA reductase activity

36
Q

Where is angiotensin I converted to Angiotensin II

A

pulmonary vasculature

37
Q

what hormone is responsible for stimulating the endometrium for suitable implantation

A

Progesterone

38
Q

Progesterose withdrawels cause what to uterus

A

apoptosis of endometrial cells, menstrual bleeding

39
Q

Quadricep muscles are connected to what

A

patella ( petellar ligament attaches to tibial tubercle)

40
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

overuse injury of secondary ossification center ( apophysis) of tibial tubercle.

41
Q

PTH reabsorbed what from bone

A

calcium and phosphate

42
Q

PTH reabsorbs what from kidney

A

calcium

43
Q

Macrocytosis and AST:ALT ratio greater than 2 indicates

A

chronic alcoholic consumption

44
Q

What is the pathogenesis of diverticulosis in elderly

A

pulsion or increased intraluminal pressure created during strained bowel movement

45
Q

pseudodiverticulum does not have what layer

A

muscularis layer

46
Q

Diverticulosis impacts what part of the colon

A

sigmoid

47
Q

During which stage of life are true diverticula usually formed

A

fetal development

48
Q

Genome of Rhinovirus

A

single stranded positive RNA

49
Q

For a purified RNA molecule to induce viral protein synthesis in a host cell, it must be able to act directly as mRNA using host intracellular machinery for translation. What type of genome does this

A

single stranded + RNA

50
Q

precursor proteins or peptides responsible for localized amyloidosis

  1. cardiac atria
  2. thyroid gland
  3. pancreatic islets
  4. cerebrum/cerebral blood vessels
  5. pituitary gland
A
  1. atrial natruretic peptide
  2. calcitonin
  3. islet amyloid protein ( amylin)
  4. Beta-amyloid protein
  5. prolactin
51
Q

What can cause multi organ amyloid deposition

A

Immune globulin light chains

52
Q

In the United States, Majority of overdose deaths are caused by what

A

opioids, including prescription analgesics and heroin

53
Q

MOA of aminoglycosides

A

30S ribosomal subunit

54
Q

clinical presentation of CN III

A
  1. ptosis
  2. downward and laterally deviated eye
  3. impaired pupillary constriction and accommodation
  4. diagonal dipoplia
55
Q

most dreaded cause of CN III palsy

A

enlarging intracranial aneurysm

56
Q

lesions involving primary somatosensory cortex result in

A

contralateral sensory loss

57
Q

damage to parietal association cortex ( nondominant hemisephere ) may cause

A

contralateral hemineglect due to impaired visuospatial processing

58
Q

What drug is used to control the symptoms of carcinoid syndrome

A

Octerotide

59
Q

MOA of octreotide

A

long acting somatostatin analog

60
Q

In lungs, the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin drives the release of what from RBC

A

Protons and CO2 ( Haldane effect )

61
Q

In peripheral tissues, what facilities oxygen unloading from hemoglobin

A

high CO2 and H+ ( bohr effect)

62
Q

All pancreatic zymogens are converted into their active forms by what

A

trypsin

63
Q

Where does median nerve travel in arm

A

between bicep brachia and brachialis muscle with brachial artery

64
Q

How does median nerve enter forearm

A

between humeral and ulnar head of pronator trees

65
Q

How does median nerve travel on forearm

A

between flexor digitorium superficialis and feller digitorum profundus muscles

  • then goes to flexor retinaculum
66
Q

patient has myopathy, cardiomyopathy, hypoketotic hypoglycemia in setting of decreased muscle carnation content

A

primary carnitine deficiency

67
Q

What is wrong in primary carnation deficiency

A

fatty acids cannot transport from cytoplasm into mitochondira

68
Q

what cannot be synthesized with primary carnitine deficiency

A

ketone bodies

Uworld (63 decks)

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