Test 73: All Flashcards

1
Q

branches of celiac trunk

A
  1. common hepatic
  2. splenic
  3. left gastric
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2
Q

MOA for Bordetella pertussis

A

overactivates adenylate cyclase ( increase cAMP)

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3
Q

MOA for Bacillus anthracis

A

mimics adenylate cyclase enzyme ( increase cAMP)

- neutrophil and macrophage dysfunction

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4
Q

Efficacy

A

measure of maximum pharmacodynamic effect achievable with a drug

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5
Q

Potency

A

dose of drug that is required to produce a given effect

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6
Q

Lower the ED50 of a drug, what is its potency

A

more potent

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7
Q

What receptors do Epinephrine work at

A

high doses: alpha1 vasoconstriction

low doses: beta2 vasodilation , increases heart rate and contractility

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8
Q

What receptors do Epinephrine work on

A

Alpha 1 and 2

Beta

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9
Q

Phenylephrine MOA

A

selective alpha-adrenergic agonist

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10
Q

MOA Phentolamine

A

non-specific alpha-1 and alpha 2 blocker

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11
Q

Isoproterenol MOA

A

non-selective Beta adrenergic agonist

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12
Q

Atropine MOA

A

competitive antagonist at post-junctional muscarinin receptors of the heart

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13
Q

MOA of Amphotericin B

A

binds ergosterol of fungal cell membranes

- can also bind cholesterol in humans

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14
Q

toxicity of Amphotericin B

A
  1. nephrotoxicity
  2. hypokalemia
  3. hypomagnesemia
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15
Q

MOA of Griseofulvin

A

binding of micro tubular proteins

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16
Q

When is Griseofulvin used

A

against dermatophytes

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17
Q

patient has flank pain, hematuria, elevated lactate dehydrogenase ( cell necrosis) and wedge-shaped kidney on CT has what

A

renal infarction

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18
Q

Most common cause of renal infarction

A

thromboembolism

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19
Q

3rd week of pregnancy, yolk sac turns into what

A

allantois

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20
Q

What is urachus

A

duct between bladder and yolk sac

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21
Q

Allantois forms what

A

urachus

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22
Q

What is patent urachus? clinical presntation

A

total failure of urachus to obliterate

- straw-colored urine discharge from umbilicus

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23
Q

Where can ulnar nerve be injured

A
  1. medial epicondyle of humerus ( funny bone)
  2. Guyon’s canal near hook of hamate
  3. pisiform bone in wrist
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24
Q

clinical presentation for ulnar nerve injury

A
  • sensory loss over medial 1.5 digits
  • hypothenar eminence
  • weakness of wrist flexion/adduction
  • flexion of 4th/5th digits
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25
Q

What nerve innervates coracobrachialis muscle

A

musculocutaneous nerve

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26
Q

Fracture of surgical neck of humerus causes what nerve injury

A

axillary nerve

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27
Q

Fracture of mid shaft of humerus results in what nerve injury

A

radial nerve

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28
Q

Subluxation of radial head can hurt what nerve

A

deep branch of radial nerve

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29
Q

Where does splenic artery originate from

A

celiac artery

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30
Q

branches from splenic artery go where

A

stomach and pancreas

  • pancreatic
  • short gastric
  • left gastroepiploic arteries
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31
Q

if splenic artery isn’t getting a good supply which branch would get the least supply of blood

A

short gastric ( no anastomoses )

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32
Q

Define sensitivity

A

ability to correctly identify those with the disease

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33
Q

pinna

A

visibile portion of ear

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34
Q

Cutaneous sensation to the posterior external auditory canal via same auricular branch

A

vagus nerve, rest of canal done by mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

35
Q

5-month baby consuming honey probably has what

A

C. botulinum spores

36
Q

how do adults and infants consume botulinum

A

infants: consuming C. botulinum spores
adults: consuming preformed toxin

37
Q

List some common features of Turner syndrome

A
  1. primary amenorrhea
  2. short stature
  3. high arched palate
  4. widely spaced nipples
38
Q

define Primary amenorrhea

A
  • absence of menses by age 15 with normal female

- absence of messes by age 13 with absent secondary sex characteristics

39
Q

Normal epithelium of bronchi

A

pseudo stratified ciliated columnar cells

40
Q

what does smoking do to bronchi

A

squamous cell metaplasia

41
Q

equation for Filtration fraction

A

GFR/RPF

42
Q

equation for determining renal plasma?

A

1-hematocrit

43
Q

Majority of left ventricular blood flow occurs during what time

A

diastole

44
Q

What portion of Left ventricle is prone to ischemia

A

subendocardial region

45
Q

GI ulcer is unlikely to be malignant in which location

A

duodenum

46
Q

Colonic adenocarcinomas at a young age along with predisposition for extra intestinal malignancies

A

Lynch syndrome

hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

47
Q

mutation in MSH2, MLH1

A

Lynch syndrome

48
Q

If cardiovascular examination shows a cardiac point of maximal impulse that is palpated at the right 5th intercostal space, what does that mean

A

Situs inversus

49
Q

If patient has Bronchiectasis, recurrent sinusitis and situs inverses >

A

Kartagener syndrome

50
Q

What are common etiologies for dilated cardiomyopathy

A

ABCCCD

  • alcohol abuse
  • wet beriberi
  • Coxsackie B
  • Cocaine
  • Chagas
  • Doxorubicin
51
Q

classic histo finding for tropheryma whippelii?

A

PAS + foamy macrophages in intestinal lamina propria

52
Q

What are classic symptoms for Whipple disease

A

Cardiac, arthralgia and neurologic symptoms

53
Q

treatment of amino salicylic acid derivatives are used for wht

A

Ulcerative colitis

54
Q

treatment for whipple diseae

A

antibiotics

55
Q

Cortisol increases the conversion of what in the adrenal medulla via?

A

norepinephrine to epinephrine

- Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase

56
Q

Role of Smooth ER

A

has enzymes for steroid and phospholipid biosynthesis

57
Q

what organs are rich in smooth ER

A
  • adrenal cortex
  • gonads
  • liver
58
Q

Growth hormone binds to cell receptors and activates what pathway

A

JAK-STAT pathway

59
Q

Ductus arteriosus is derived from what embryonic arch

A
  • sixth embryonic aortic arch
60
Q

Where is ductus arteriosus murmur heard

A

left infraclavicular region

61
Q

bulbus cords gives rise to what

A

smooth parts of left and right ventricle

62
Q

Primitive atrium forms what

A

rough portions of left and right atria

63
Q

Left horn of suns venosus forms what

A

coronary sinus

64
Q

right horn of sinus venosus forms what

A

smooth part of right atrium

65
Q

India ink staining of CSF shows what for cyptococus neoformans

A

round or oval budding yeast

66
Q

Treatment for narcolepsy

A
  1. daytime naps
  2. Modafinil for daytime sleepiness first line
  3. second line: amphetamines
67
Q

What type of murmur is aortic stenosis

A

Crescendo-decrescendo murmur

68
Q

When does aortic stenosis start and stop

A
  • starts after first heart sound

- ends before A2 component of second heart sound

69
Q

Patients with chronic aortic stenosis and concentric left ventricular hypertrophy, what contributes significantly to left ventricular filling

A

atrial contraction

70
Q

1-day-old infant has flat facial profile, protruding tongue, and small ears? what does baby have

A

Down syndrome

71
Q

what is the number one cause for Down syndrome

A

meiotic nondisjunction

72
Q

Reduced pulmonary parenchymal compliance is hallmark of what disease

A

pulmonary fibrosis

73
Q

Antibodies to citrullinated peptides/proteins have a high specificity for what disease

A

rheumatoid arthritis

74
Q

Anti-centromere antibodies are found in what

A

CREST syndrome

75
Q

Anti-dsDNA is found in what

A

systemic lupus erythematosus

76
Q

what is rheumatoid factor

A

autoantibodies targeting the Fc portion of human IgG

77
Q

Where does hydroxylation of proline and lysine in collagen synthesis occur

A

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

78
Q

most important virulence factor that uropathogenic E. coli express

A

P. fimbriae

79
Q

ovarian torsion usually involves what ligament

A

infundibulopelvic ligament

80
Q

what does ovarian ligament contain

A

nothing

81
Q

what does infundibulopelvic ligament contain

A

ovarian vessels

82
Q

chronic opioid users do not develop tolerance to what side effects

A

constipation and miosis

83
Q

what is rheumatoid factor

A

IgM antibody