Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

From Flashcardlet > Micriobiology Final > Flashcards

Micriobiology Final Flashcards

1
Q

Innate Immunity

A
  • is non-specific and present at birth.

- does not include production of antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

All of the following protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection EXCEPT

A

the ciliary escalator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The function of the ciliary escalator is to

A

trap inhaled dust and microorganism in mucus and propel it away from the lower respiratory tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following exhibits the highest phagocytic activity?

A

Macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TLRs attach to all of the following EXCEPT

A

AMPs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A differential cell count is used to determine each of the following EXCEPT

A

the number of red blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway after the point in the cascade where the activation of ________ takes place.

A

C3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All of the following increase blood vessel permeability EXCEPT

A

Lysozymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will participate in eliminating contaminating microbes?

A

phagocytosis in the inflammatory response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Margination refers to

A

adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

Gamma interferon causes bactericidal activity by macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is found normally in serum?

A

Complement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Each of the following is an effect of complement activation EXCEPT

A

interference with viral replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is an effect of opsonization?

A

increased adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Normal microbiota provide protection from infection in each of the following ways EXCEPT

A

they produce lysozyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Each of the following provides protection from phagocytic digestion EXCEPT

A

formation of phagolysosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The antimicrobial effects of AMPs include all of the following except

A

inhibition of phagocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The swelling associated with inflammation decreases when the fluid

A

goes into lymph capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following statements about fixed macrophages is FALSE?

A

They develop from neutrophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Phagocytes utilize all of the following to optimize interaction with (getting to and getting hold of) microorganisms EXCEPT

A

lysozyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

All of the following are effects of histamine EXCEPT

A

fever and production of antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A chill is a sign that

A

body temperature is rising.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

There are at least thirty complement proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A

chemotaxis chemical degradation inside a phagolysosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

All of the following are part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons EXCEPT

A

they are effective for long periods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The alternative pathway for complement activation is initiated by

A

lipid-carbohydrate complexes and C3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The classical pathway for complement activation is initiated by

A

antigen-antibody reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Activation of C3a results in

A

acute inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to

A

produce toxic oxygen products.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

After ingesting a pathogen, lysosomal enzymes produce all of the following EXCEPT

A

complement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Activation of C5-C9 results in

A

lysis of microbial cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

All of the following are true regarding NK cells EXCEPT

A

they destroy infected body cells by phagocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths?

A

Eosinophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Macrophages arise from which of the following?

A

Monocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

All of the following pertain to fever EXCEPT that it

A

accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

All of the following are iron-binding proteins found in humans EXCEPT

A

siderophorin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

All of the following occur during inflammation. What is the first step?

A

vasodilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The lectin pathway for complement action is initiated by

A

mannose on the surface of microbes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

All of the following are components of the inflammatory process EXCEPT

A

antibody synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Several inherited deficiencies in the complement system occur in humans. Which of the following would be the MOST severe?

A

deficiency of C3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following statements about the classical pathway of complement activation is FALSE?

A

C1 is the first protein activated in the classical pathway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Lysozyme and the antibiotic penicillin have similar mechanisms of action in that they both cause damage to the bactericidal

A

cell wall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which non-specific defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid?

A

mucociliary escalator intestines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The dermis is composed of connective tissue and serves the primary purpose of providing direct protection from the external environment.

A

FALSE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Microorganisms that are members of the normal microbiota are also known to cause disease.

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Maturation of stem cells into mature blood cells occurs in the red bone marrow.

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The inflammatory response can only be triggered by an infection.

A

FALSE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Histamine and kinins cause increased blood flow and capillary permeability.

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Aspirin alleviates pain, inflammation, and fever by inhibiting prostaglandins.

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Complement proteins in their intact and unactivated form act as opsonins by binding to microorganisms and promoting phagocytosis.

A

FALSE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Digestion of microorganisms occurs in phagosomes.

A

FALSE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

An example of a TLR would be peptidoglycan found in the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.

A

FALSE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ingestion of certain lactic acid bacteria (LABs) has been shown to be beneficial for function and health of the intestinal tract.

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE?

A

Most fungi are pathogenic for humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following statements about helminths is FALSE?

A

All are parasites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which of the following statements about the oomycote algae is FALSE?

A

They have chlorophyll.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Seventeen patients in ten hospitals had cutaneous infections caused byRhizopus. In all seventeen patients, Elastoplast bandages were placed over sterile gauze pads to cover wounds. Fourteen of the patients had surgical wounds, two had venous line insertion sites, and one had a bite wound. Lesions present when the bandages were removed ranged from vesiculopustular eruptions to ulcerations and skin necrosis requiring debridement. Fungi are more likely than bacteria to contaminate bandages because they

A

can tolerate low-moisture conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following statements regarding lichens is FALSE?

A

Lichens are a mutualistic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A

anamorphs lack spores.

60
Q

In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic ofPenicillium?

A

2 - ascospore & 6 - conidiospore

61
Q

In Table 12.1, which of these spores are characteristic ofRhizopus?

A

7 - sporangiospore & 8 - zygospore

62
Q

In Table 12.1, which is a thick-walled spore formed as a segment within a hypha?

A

5 - Chlamydoconidium

63
Q

In Table 12.1, which of these spores are asexual spores?

A

1 - Arthroconidium, 4 - Blastoconidium , 5 - Chlamydoconidium, 6 - Conidiospore & 7 - Sporangiospore

64
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A

coenocytic hyphae hyphae with cross-walls

65
Q

Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE?

A

Nearly all protozoa cause disease.

66
Q

In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. She was placed on penicillin. By the end of January, the ulcer had not healed, and she was referred to a plastic surgeon. On January 30, a swab of the wound was cultured at 35C on blood agar. On the same day, a smear was made for Gram staining. The Gram stain showed large (10 m) cells. Brownish, waxy colonies grew on the blood agar. Slide cultures set up on February 1 and incubated at 25C showed septate hyphae and single conidia. The most likely cause of the infection is a

A

dimorphic fungus.

67
Q

Which of the following tends to be more complex in a parasitic helminth than in free-living helminths?

A

reproductive system.

68
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A

Fungal spores are highly resistant to heat and chemical agents.

69
Q

Which of the following pairs are mismatched?

A

2 - sporangiospore formed within hyphae & 5 - chlamydoconidium formed in a sac

70
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A

green algae prokaryotic.

71
Q

Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by

A

gastrointestinal route.

72
Q

All of the following are characteristic of the Platyhelminthes EXCEPT that they

A

have highly developed digestive and nervous systems.

73
Q

In the malaria parasite life cycle, humans are the ________ host, while mosquitoes are the ________ host as well as the vector.

A

intermediate; definitive

74
Q

Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. During the rafting trip, the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks. An examination of the patients sputum revealed helminth eggs, and serum samples were positive for antibodies toParagonimus. All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel. In theParagonimuslife cycle,

A

humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.

75
Q

The encysted larva of the beef tapeworm is called a

A

cysticercus.

76
Q

Which of the following arthropods does NOT transmit diseases by sucking blood from a human host?

A

houseflies.

77
Q

Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE?

A

All are unicellular.

78
Q

Below are paired items referring to the heartwormDirofilaria immitis. Which of the pairs is mismatched?

A

mosquito definitive host.

79
Q

All of the following are characteristic of algae EXCEPT which ONE of the following?

A

They are currently classified as plants.

80
Q

A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite?

A

adult.

81
Q

What do tapeworms eat?

A

Intestinal content.

82
Q

GiardiaandTrichomonasare unusual eukaryotes because they

A

lack mitochondria.

83
Q

The life cycle of the fish tapeworm is similar to that of the beef tapeworm. Which of the following is the most effective preventive measure?

A

cooking fish before eating.

84
Q

Which of the following is the most effective control for malaria?

A

eliminateAnophelesmosquitoes.

85
Q

In the microscope, you observe multinucleated amoeboid cells with sporangia that form spores. This is a(n)

A

plasmodial slime mold.

86
Q

You observe a mass of amoeba-like cells that swarm together, form a stalk, and produce spores. This is a(n)

A

cellular slime mold.

87
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A

cestodes all are free-living

88
Q

Which of the following is a nucleated, unicellular organism that, if you changed the incubation temperature, would form filaments with conidiospores?

A

ascomycete.

89
Q

Which of the following organisms is photoautotrophic protozoan?

A

Euglena

90
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A

mosquitoPneumocystis

91
Q

Which of the following groups of algae does NOT produce compounds that are toxic to humans?

A

green algae.

92
Q

The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because

A

they distribute nutrients by cytoplasmic streaming.

93
Q

Assume you have isolated a multicellular heterotrophic organism that produces coenocytic hyphae, motile zoospores, and cellulose cell walls. It is most likely a(n)

A

oomycote alga.

94
Q

If a larva ofEchinococcus granulosusis found in humans, humans are the

A

intermediate host.

95
Q

Ringworm is caused by a(n)

A

fungus.

96
Q

Yeast infections are caused by

A

Candida albicans.

97
Q

All of the following are characteristic of lichens EXCEPT

A

they are a symbiotic relationship between a fungus and a protozoan.

98
Q

You see acid-fast oocysts in a fecal sample from a patient who has diarrhea. What is the MOST likely cause?

A

Cryptosporidium.

99
Q

The insect vectors have six legs and include spiders, ticks, mosquitoes, and lice.

A

FALSE.

100
Q

Most cases of hookworm infection are acquired by ingestion of adult forms in contaminated food or water.

A

FALSE.

101
Q

Penicillin was considered a miracle drug for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

A

it was the first antibiotic.

102
Q

A drug that inhibits mitosis, such as griseofulvin, would be more effective against

A

fungi.

103
Q

Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against

A

bacteria.

104
Q

Antimicrobial peptides (AMPs) frequently work by

A

disrupting the plasma membrane.

105
Q

In what way are semisynthetic penicillins and natural penicillins alike?

A

Both are based on -lactam.

106
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT bactericidal?

A

polyenes.

107
Q

Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others?

A

streptomycin.

108
Q

The antibiotic tetracycline binds to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, as shown by the dark black bar on the right portion of the diagram in Figure 20.1. The effect is to

A

interfere with the attachment of the tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.

109
Q

The antibiotic chloramphenicol binds to the 50S subunit of the ribosome, as shown in Figure 20.2. The effect is to

A

prevent peptide bond formation in prokaryotes.

110
Q

Which of the following antimicrobial agents has the fewest side effects?

A

penicillin.

111
Q

Which of the following drugs does NOT act by competitive inhibition?

A

streptomycin.

112
Q

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic?

A

inhibition of protein synthesis.

113
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is recommended for use against gram-negative bacteria?

A

polymyxin.

114
Q

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections?

A

amphotericin B.

115
Q

In Table 20.1, as illustrated by the data shown, the minimal bactericidal concentration of antibiotic X is

A

15 g/ml.

116
Q

In Table 20.1, the minimal inhibitory concentration of antibiotic X is

A

10 g/ml.

117
Q

More than half of our antibiotics are

A

produced by bacteria.

118
Q

To date, most of our natural antibiotics have been found to be produced by members of what genus?

A

Streptomyces.

119
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?

A

Florey and Chain identification ofPenicilliumas the producer of penicillin.

120
Q

Which compound would be the most useful to treat candidiasis?

A

flucytosine.

121
Q

Which of the following antibiotics are used to treat fungal infections?

A

3 - griseofulvin & 4 - polyenes

122
Q

Which of the following antibiotics does NOT interfere with cell wall synthesis?

A

macrolides.

123
Q

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are

A

tetracyclines.

124
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A

Interferon inhibits glycolysis.

125
Q

Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because

A

their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells.

126
Q

Which of the following organisms would MOST likely be sensitive to natural penicillin?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes.

127
Q

Which of the following statements about drug resistance is FALSE?

A

It is found only in gram-negative bacteria.

128
Q

Which of the following does NOT constitute an advantage of using two antibiotics together?

A

Two are always twice as effective as one.

129
Q

Drug resistance occurs

A

when antibiotics are used indiscriminately.

130
Q

In Table 20.2, the most effective antibiotic tested was

A

D.

131
Q

In Table 20.2, the antibiotic that exhibited bactericidal action was

A

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

132
Q

In Table 20.2, which antibiotic would be most useful for treating aSalmonellainfection?

A

The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

133
Q

Which of the following would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?

A

ethambutol inhibits mycolic acid synthesis.

134
Q

In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because

A

it undergoes lysis.

135
Q

Lamisil is an allylamine used to treat dermatomycoses. Lamisils method of action is similar to that of

A

azole antibiotics.

136
Q

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against

A

helminths.

137
Q

The data in Table 20.3 show that these bacteria

A

developed resistance to antibiotics.

138
Q

Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE?

A

They cause cellular plasmolysis.

139
Q

The substrate for transpeptidase used to synthesize peptidoglycan is shown in Figure 20.3. Which of the drugs shown would inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis?

A

D.

140
Q

The structures of the influenza drug Tamiflu and sialic acid, the substrate for influenza viruss neuramidase, are shown in Figure 20.4. What is the method of action of Tamiflu?

A

competitive inhibition.

141
Q

Which of the following does NOT affect eukaryotic cells?

A

semisynthetic penicillins

142
Q

Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation; therefore, it would NOT affect

A

bacteria.

143
Q

Which of the following antibiotics causes misreading of mRNA?

A

aminoglycoside changes shape of 30S units.

144
Q

The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with

A

transcription.

145
Q

Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because

A

the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal.

From Flashcardlet (104 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions