Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomic Pathology 2 > Pathology of Hemolymphatics > Flashcards

Pathology of Hemolymphatics Flashcards

1
Q

<p>Where in the body does hematopoiesis occur?</p>

A

<p>bone marrow, liver, spleen</p>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

the proliferation and orderly differentiation of hematoloogic cell lineages from pleuripotent stem cells and progenitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some positive regulators of hematopoesis?

A

erythropoietin, thrombopoietin, and cytokines (GM-CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are some negative regualtors of hematopoiesis?

A

inflammation, hormones, drugs, toxins, and infectious agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the steps of erythroid maturation?

A

rubriblast to prorubricyte to rubricyte to metarubricyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the steps of myeloid maturation?

A

myeloblast to promyelocyte to myelocyte to metamyelocyte to seg and band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is physiologic hyperplasia?

A

the increased demand for RBCs, granulocytes, and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are some peripheral manifestations in bone marrow?

A

leukocytosis, regenerative anemia, and extramedullary hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

increased white blood cell count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the causes for hypoplasia, aplasia, and atrophy in bone marrow?

A

decreased demand, increased destruction, and genetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are some causes/processes for increased destruction of bone marrow?

A

immune-mediated, infiltrative disease, paraneoplastic, and exogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an example of an infiltrative disease that causes increased destriction to bone marrow?

A

myelophthisis - replacement of BM by non-native issue/cells leading to pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are some examples of paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of exogenous agents cause increased destruction in bone marrow?

A

infectious (parvovirus, FeLv, FIV, EIA, Ehrlichia) and chemical (antimicrobials, chemotherapeutics, phenylbutazone, bracken fern, and estrogen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some categories of bone marrow neoplasias?

A

lymphoproliferative disease, myeloproliferative disease, and metastatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some examples of neoplasias that arise from lymphoproliferative disease?

A

lymphoma, leukemia, plasma cell tumor, multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some examples of neoplasias that arise from myeloproliferative disorders?

A

progenitor-derived neoplasms with bone marrow and hematologic involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What causes serous atrophy of fat?

A

any animal that is undergoing a negative energy balance for a long amount of time (starvation or cancer related)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is myelofibrosis?

A

when bone marrow stroma and parenchyma is replaced by fibrous connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the structure of the thymus?

A

multilobular with capsule, cortex, and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the thymus?

A

it is the site of T cell production and maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What lymphatics are associated with the thymys?

A

only efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the cortex of the thymus do?

A

produces immunocompetent naïve T-cells which are then sent to the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are epithelial reticular cells?

A

isolates of naïve T cells from antigen exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do tingible-body macrophages do?

A

break down deleted T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does the medulla of the thymus contain?

A

immunocompetent naïve T-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are Hassall’s corpuscles?

A

confined epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What can cause hypoplasia of the thymus?

A

SCID in arabian foals and mice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does SCID stand for?

A

severe combined immunodeficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What causes SCID in arabian foals?

A

there is a defect in DNA protein kinase (premature stop codon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the pathogenesis of hypoplasia of the thymus?

A

enzyme defect to inadequate gene rearrangement to no T or B receptor to apoptosis of lymphocyte precursors to few functional T and B cells to poor adaptive immune response to death by 5 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does thymic atrophy occur in response to?

A

environmental toxin or systemic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is thymic atrophy not to be confused with?

A

involution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is thymitis?

A

inflammation of the thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does circovirus infection in pigs cause?

A

pyogranulomatous thymitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a thymoma composed of?

A

neoplastic thymic epithelial cells and non-neoplastic T-lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where are thymomas typically located?

A

in the cranioventral thorax and may impinge on nearby structures (esophagus, trachea, and vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Do thymomas typically occur to older or younger animals?

A

older animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where are thymic lymphomas located?

A

in the mediastinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Microscopically, what do thymic lymphomas look like?

A

sheets of neoplastic lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the structure of the spleen?

A

capsule, smooth muscle trabecula, vessels, and NO lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the flow of blood through the spleen?

A

trabecular artery to central artery (PALS) to penicillar artery to sheathed arteriole (macrophages) to capillary to sinuses (red pulp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the red pulp made up of?

A

sinuses and splenic cords

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the sinuses of the red pulp?

A

discontinuous endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the splenic cords of the red pulp?

A

reticular fibers and macrophages, T and B cells, plasma cells, and extramedullar hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the white pulp of the spleen made up of?

A

peri-arteriial lymphatic sheaths, lymhoid nodules, and marginal zone

47
Q

What are peri-arterial lymphatic sheets?

A

T-cells around central arteries

48
Q

What are lymphoid nodules in the spleen?

A

B-cell areas adjacent to PALS; may contain germinal centers

49
Q

What is the marginal zone of the spleen?

A

it is located external to lymphoid nodules and PALS and is the interface with red pulp

50
Q

What is the marginal zone of the spleen made up of?

A

T and B cells, plasma cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells

51
Q

What are the functions of the spleen?

A

filtration, immunologic, hematopoiesis, and storage

52
Q

What is the purpose of filtration in the spleen?

A

erythrocyte removal and removal of particulates

53
Q

What does the spleen store?

A

blood, iron, and recycling

54
Q

How does the spleen respond to injury (8)?

A

inflammation, hyperplasia, hematopoiesis, lymphoid atrophy, necrosis, hemorrhage, hemosiderosis, and neoplasia

55
Q

What is diffuse enlargement of the spleen known as?

A

splenomegaly

56
Q

What causes splenomegaly?

A

congestion, extramedullary hematopoiesi, and amyloidosis

57
Q

What are some types of congestion that lead to splenomegaly?

A

CHF, torsion, epticemia, viremia, and barbituates

58
Q

What are some types of extramedullary hematopoiesis processes that cause splenomegaly?

A

AIHA and anaplasmosis

59
Q

What causes nodules in the spleen?

A

abscesses, granulomas, hematoma, and neoplasia

60
Q

What can cause splenic contraction/atrophy?

A

hemorrhage/hypovolemia and lymphoid atrophy

61
Q

What are hemosiderotic plaques?

A

small plaques that form on the surface of the spleen made up of hemosiderin and bilirubin

62
Q

What are splenic explants?

A

accessory spleens

63
Q

What do primary splenic neoplasias arise from?

A

cell populations that normally exist in the speen: lymphocytes, macrophages, endothelial cells, and smooth muscle

64
Q

What is the path of flow of the lymphatic system?

A

interstitial fluid to afferent lymphatics to subcapsular space of draining lymph node to interaction with immune cells to efferent lymphatics to other nodes to the thoracic duct to subclavian veins to the cranial vena cava

65
Q

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

A

lymph drainage, innate and adaptive immunity, and transport of fat and fat-soluble vitamins via lacteals

66
Q

What causes hypoplasia of the lymph nodes?

A

SCID

67
Q

What causes atrophy of lymph nodes?

A

lymphoid depletion

68
Q

What causes lymphadenomegaly?

A

lymphoid/reactive hyperplasia, inflammation, primary neoplasia, and secondary neoplasia

69
Q

What is inflammation of the lymph node called?

A

lymphadenitis

70
Q

What is a primary neoplasia of the lymph node?

A

lymphosarcoma

71
Q

What are some secondary neoplasias that affect the lymph nodes?

A

carcinoma, round cell tumors, and sarcomas

72
Q

What exudate is associeated with lymphadenitis?

A

suppurative, eosinophilic, pyogranulomatous, and granulomatous

73
Q

Lymphadenitis is a common response to infection by what?

A

bacteria, fungi, viruses

74
Q

What is an example of a bacteria that causes lymphadenitis in horse?

A

streptococcus equi ssp. Equi

75
Q

What is an example of a virus that causes lymphadenitis in swine?

A

procine circovirus (causes granulomatous lymphadenitis)

76
Q

What is an example of a bacteria that causes lymphadenitis in sheep?

A

corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis; caseous lymphadenitis

77
Q

What is lymphoma (like specifically what is it)?

A

neoplastic proliferation of lymphocytes

78
Q

What causes lymphoma?

A

sporadic or viral-associated or other

79
Q

What is large cell lymphoma caused by?

A

lymphoblastic (immature) cells

80
Q

What is small cell lymphoma caused by?

A

indolent (mature) cells

81
Q

What are the lymphoid immunophenptypes?

A

T cell, B cell, plasma cells, and multiple myelomas

82
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with lymphoma?

A

cytopenias, anemia, and hypercalcemia

83
Q

Canine lymphoma is the most common of canine ________.

A

malignancies

84
Q

80percent of canine lymphomas are of what type?

A

multicentrac - generalized lymphadenopathy

85
Q

20-40 percent of other canine lymphomas are associated with what clinical signs?

A

weight loss, anorexia, fever, hepato-/splenomegaly

86
Q

Where are the 20-40percent of canine lymphomas that arent multicentric located?

A

thymic, cutaneous, epidermotropic, and ocular

87
Q

What type of cells are most of the canine lymphomas made up of?

A

B-cells (60-80percent )

88
Q

Are most canine lymphomas large cell or small cell?

A

large cell

89
Q

Are most feline lymphomas large cell are small cell?

A

large cell

90
Q

What is the ratio of B-cell to T-cell types of lymphoma in cats?

A

fifty fifty

91
Q

FeLv associated lymphomas typically occur to what age of cats?

A

4-6 year olds

92
Q

FeLv associated lymphomas typically localize where?

A

mediastinum or spine

93
Q

Non-FeLv associated lymphomas typically occur in what age of cats?

A

older cats

94
Q

Non-FeLv associated lymphomas are typically localized where?

A

GI/abdominal: 70percent intestinal, 30percent liver, spleen and kidney
other sites: nasal, CNS, ocular, cutaneous

95
Q

What is Marek’s disease?

A

T-cell lymphosarcoma of 2-5 month old chickens

96
Q

What is Marek’s disease caused by?

A

oncogenic herpesvirus

97
Q

How is Marek’s disease transmitted?

A

horizontal transmission via infected feather follicle dander

98
Q

Where does Marek’s disease localized?

A

liver, brain, peripheral nerves, and other organs

99
Q

What is lymphoid leukosis?

A

B-cell lymphosarcoma of chickens greater than 4 months old

100
Q

What is lymphoid leukosis caused by?

A

avian retrovirus

101
Q

Where does lymphoid leukosis localize?

A

Bursa of Fabricius, liver, spleen, ovary, and other organs

102
Q

What is the most comon form of bovine lymphoma?

A

adult form

103
Q

What is the adult form of bovine lymphoma caused by?

A

bovine leukemia virus - a retrovirus

104
Q

Where does bovine lymphosarcoma typically manifest?

A

HURLS

105
Q

What does HURLS stand for?

A

heart, uterus, renal and retrilobular, lymph nodes, stomach, and spinal

106
Q

At what age does the adolescent form of bovine lymphoma occur?

A

6-30 months of age

107
Q

Where does adolescent bovine lymphoma localize?

A

in the thymus and bone marrow

108
Q

When does juvenile bovine lymphoma infect cattle?

A

in calves under 6 months old

109
Q

What type of lymphoma is associated with juvenile lymphoma?

A

multicentric often with organ involvement

110
Q

What is MALT?

A

mucosal associated lymphoid tissue

111
Q

What organs are part of MALT?

A

tonsils, Peyer’s patches, gut associated lymphoid tissue, bronchial-associated lymphoid tissue, rectoanal mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue and others

112
Q

MALT is an important part of what type of immunity?

A

mucosal

113
Q

What pathogens can invade MALT?

A

bovine herpesvirus 1, salmonella, CSF, FMD, brucella abortus, Mycobacterium avium susbp. Paratuberculosis, prions

Anatomic Pathology 2 (48 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions