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Anatomic Pathology 2 > Unit 4 - Female Repro 4 > Flashcards

Unit 4 - Female Repro 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What gross changes are associated with Neospora?

A

mid gestation fetus that is generally autolyzed, has diffuse subcutaneous edema, and abundant serosanguinous fluid in body cavities

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2
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Neospora abortion?

A

Its a loop: You have a cow that becomes infected by ingesting oocysts from feed contaminated by canid feces, there is a recrudescence of infection at mid gestation. The cow either aborts or produces a congenitally infected calf which will grow up and repeat the process

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3
Q

What are some gross lesions of the fetus associated with Neospora abortions?

A

subcutaneous edema, serosanguinous fluid in body cavities, and the fetus is mid-gestation (small and hairless)

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4
Q

Where are microscopic lesions from Neospora abortions found?

A

the brain

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5
Q

What are the preferred diagnostic samples for Neospora abortion diagnosis?

A

brain, heart, skeletal muscle, kidney, and liver

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6
Q

What microscopic lesions are associated with Neospora abortion?

A

multiple, random, foci of cerebral necrosis surrounded by reactive glial cells and gitter cells often accompanied by focal areas of gliosis

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7
Q

What are the vast majority of viral abortions in US bovines due to?

A

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis and bovine virus diarrhea

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8
Q

Why doesn’t vaccination against BVD prevent fetal infection/abortion?

A

because there are many strains and it doesn’t protect against all of them

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9
Q

If a cow is infected near conception, what does BVD cause?

A

infertility

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10
Q

If a cow is infected between 42-125 days of pregnancy what does BVD cause?

A

abortion, fetal mummification, or fetal malformations

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11
Q

If a cow is infected between 125-170 days, what does BVD cause?

A

development of congenital malformations and abortion (less common)

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12
Q

If a cow is infected in the third trimester, what does BVD cause?

A

no significant fetal disease

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13
Q

What are the common congenital defects associated with BVD?

A

cerebral defects, ocular defects, intrauterine growth retardation, partial alopecia, and pulmonary hypoplasia

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14
Q

What cerebral defects are caused by BVD?

A

cerebellar hypoplasia, hydrancephaly, porencephaly, hydrocephalus, and hypomyelinogenesis

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15
Q

What ocular defects are caused by BVD infection?

A

retinal dysplasia, congenital cataracts, and microphthalmia

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16
Q

What tissues are important to diagnose for BVD?

A

brain, kidney, lung, spleen, lymph nodes, thymus, or any tissue with lesions

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17
Q

What is the most common cause of porcine abortion?

A

PRRSV

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18
Q

Do all porcine fetuses become infected at the same time?

A

no

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19
Q

Are there any gross lesions caused by PRRSV that are helpful in diagnosing abortion?

A

no - there is perirenal edema, mesocolonic edema, and umbilical cord edema

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20
Q

Why do you want to submit more than one fetus for a PRRSV diagnosis?

A

because not all of the fetuses will be infected - if you only send in one you may not get the dianosis because it wasnt infected

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21
Q

What does transplacental porcine circovirus infection result in?

A

fetal mummification, abortion, or the birth of weak pigs

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22
Q

What gross lesions are associated with porcine circovirus infection?

A

mummified fetuses and lesions in the heart (fluid in body cavities, accentuated lobular pattern in the liver, and cardiac hypertrophy)

23
Q

What is the target tissue for porcine circovirus and therefore the preferred diagnostic sample?

A

the heart

24
Q

What is the typical manifestation of porcine parvovirus?

A

it is in gilts - increased and irregular returns to service, decreased litter size, and elevated mummy rate

25
Q

What is the preferred diagnostic sample for porcine parvovirus?

A

mummified fetuses

26
Q

If a gilt is infected with PPV 0-30 days in gestation what does it cause?

A

early embryonic death with resorption

27
Q

If a gilt is infected with PPV 30-70 days in gestation what does it cause?

A

in utero death with fetal mummification

28
Q

If a gilt is infected with PPV greater than 70 days in gestation what does it cause?

A

fetus mounts an immune response and infection is typically inapparent

29
Q

When determining the cause of small ruminant abortion what should you submit?

A

the placenta

30
Q

What classic gross lesion is associated with Campylobacter abortion?

A

circular foci of hepatic necrosis

31
Q

What is Q-fever caused by?

A

Coxiella burnetii

32
Q

Abortions caused by Q-fever are more common in what species?

A

goats

33
Q

Where is Coxiella burnetii commonly found in?

A

placenta, colostrum, urine, uterine discharge, and milk

34
Q

What clinical signs are associated with Q-fever?

A

late gestation abortion, stillborn/weakborn kids, and minimal signs in the aborting doe

35
Q

What gross lesions are associated with Q-fever?

A

thick, gray-brown exudate on the placenta, thickened intercotyledonary placenta, multifocal cotyledonary necrosis and mineralization

36
Q

What is the preferred tissue for diagnosis of Q-fever?

A

the placenta

37
Q

What is the source of Toxoplasma abortion in small ruminants?

A

cats

38
Q

How do small ruminants get toxoplasma?

A

ingestion of bedding, hay, grain contaminated by oocysts

39
Q

What gross lesions are associated with toxoplasma abortion?

A

multifocal necrosis and mineralizationof cotyledonary villi

40
Q

What are the preferred diagnostic samples for toxoplasma abortion?

A

placenta, brian, fetal thoracic fluid

41
Q

What serves as the intitial source of infection for Chlamydial abortions?

A

ewes infected in the previous lambing season

42
Q

What is the source of chlamydial infection during the abortion storm?

A

the fetus, fetal membranes, and uterine discharge

43
Q

What are the gross lesions associated with chlamydial abortions?

A

multifocal cotyledonary necrosis and thickened intercotyledonary placenta

44
Q

What are the preferred diagnostic samples for chlamydial abortions?

A

placenta, fetal thoracic fluid, and uterine discharge

45
Q

What is a hippomane?

A

a soft putty-like aggregate of urinary calculus and cellular debris whiich form throughout pregnancy - its normal

46
Q

Where is the cervical star located?

A

where the placenta abuts the cervix

47
Q

In the case of equine placentitis, where will placentitis be the worst?

A

surrounding the cervical star

48
Q

When is umbilical cord torsion a significant finding in horses?

A

when there are functional consequences such as edema, hemorrhage, and thrombosis - five or six turns are normal

49
Q

What is the most common contagious bacterial cause of abortion in the bitch?

A

Brucella canis

50
Q

What does Brucella canis cause?

A

early embryonic death and resportion, spontaneous abortions between 49 and 59 days after breeding, stillborn puppies, and neonatal mortality

51
Q

What gross lesions are associated with Brucella canis?

A

placentitis

52
Q

What are the preferred diagnostic specimens for Brucella canis?

A

serum from dam, placenta, aborted fetus, and vaginal discharge

53
Q

How can panleukopenia affect the fetus?

A

it may spread transplacentally and cause embryonic resorption, fetal mummification, abortion, or stillbirth

54
Q

What does in utero infection of panleukopenia lead to?

A

cerbellar hypoplasia

Anatomic Pathology 2 (48 decks)

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