Autonomic drugs and glaucoma drugs Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

Direct Acting Muscarinic Drugs

A

Betanechol, Pilocarpine

MOA: Inhibits M3 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Indirect Acting Nicotinic Drugs

A

Nicotine and Varenicline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Drugs used in Alzheimer’s Disease

A

Rivastigmine, Donepazil, Tacrine, Galantamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Drug used in bowel and bladder atony

A

Betanechol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Indirect acting muscarinic receptor used for treatment of glaucoma

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Antidotes for organophosphate poisoning

A
Atropine
Pralidoxime (should be given only within 6 hours)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nonselective Cholinergic Antagonist

A

Atropine, Tropicamide, Homatropine, Cyclopentolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nonselective Cholinergic antagonist used in the treatment of Parkinsons disease

A

Benztropine, Biperiden, Trihexyphenidyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cholinergic antagonist used in the treatment of asthma

A

Ipatropium and tiotropium

Side effect: Nasal dryness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why Ipatropium and tiotropium preferred as bronchodilators for combined COPD and heart disease patients?

A

less likely to cause tachycardia and cardiac arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nonselective muscarinic antagonist used in the treatment of motion sickness

A

Scopolamine (has an additional histamine and serotonin antagonistic effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Symptoms of atropine toxicity

A

Hot as a hare (hyperthermia)
Dry as a bone (decreased secretions and constipation)
Red as a a beet (atropine flush)
Blind as a bat (blurred vision)
Mad as a hatter (CNS toxicity, tachycardia, arrhythmia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cholinergic antagonist that blocks Nicotinic AcH receptors (ganglion blockers) used in the treatment of hypertension? Side effect?

A

Hexamethonium, Trimethaphan

Side effect: Postural Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the difference of dopamine and norepinephrine in their action in the blood vessels?

A

Dopamine: vasodilates the renal blood vessels
Norepinephrine: vasoconstricts the renal blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inhibitor of tyrosine hydroxylase

A

Metyrosine - prevents conversion of tyrosine to DOPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vesicular transport of norepinephrine and epinephrine is inhibited by what drug

A

Reserpine

MAO’s increase stores of norepinephrine and epineprhine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What drug inhibits entry of calcium which triggers interaction among SNARE proteins (VAMPs and SNAPS? What drugs promote them?

A

Inhibited by Guanethidine

Promoted by Amphetamines and Tyramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Diffusion and reuptake of norepi and epi via NET and DAT in the synaptic cleft is inihibited by what drugs?

A

Cocaine and TCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MOA of Epinephrine

A

Nonselective and Direct acting Sympathomimetic (activates alpha and beta)

a1: vasoconstriction, increases BP
b1: increases heart rate, conduction and contractility (cardiac arrest)
b2: bronchodilation (anaphylaxis)

20
Q

Uses and side effects of norepinephrine

A

Neurogenic shock, cardiogenic shock (last resort)

Extreme vasospasm, tissue necrosis and extensive blood pressure increase

21
Q

Dose dependent actions of dopamine

A

Low dose: 1 - 5 mcg/kg/min - vasodilation of the splanchnic and renal vascular beds via D1 receptors (thus increase in renal blood flow)
Medium Dose: 5-15 mcg/kg/min - D1 and B2 receptors
High dose: >15 mcg/kg/min - A1 receptors

22
Q

Beta nonselective sympathomimetic drug that is used in the treatment of asthma?

A

Isoproterenol
B1: increases heart rate, conduction and velocity
B2: bronchodilation
SE: cardiovascular disturbance, arrhythmias

23
Q

Selective alpha 1 agonist used as decongestant? Side effect?

A

Phenylephrine, Pseudoephrine
SE: rebound nasal congestion
Ocular administration may cause mydriasis without cyclopegia

24
Q

Selective alpha 2 agonist (decreases central sympathetic outflow)? Side effect?

A

Clonidine

SE: rebound hypertension - Treated using Phentolamine

25
Selective alpha 2 agonist used in the treatment of hypertension which causes hemolytic anemia?
Methyldopa
26
Selective alpha 2 agonist used in the treatment of glaucoma (decreases secretion of aqueous humor)?
Apraclonidine, Brimonidine
27
Selective beta 1 agonist used in acute heart failure and cardiogenic shock? Side effect?
Dobutamine Side effect: tachyphylaxis Other uses: Used in cardiac stress testing
28
Selective beta 2 agonists used in the treatment of asthma
Albuterol/Salbutamol | Terbutaline and Ritodrine
29
Selective beta 2 agonists used as tocolytic in preterm labor
terbutaline and ritodrine Remember: beta 2 receptors - relaxation of uterine muscles vs alpha 1 and M3 receptors which causes contraction of uterine muscles
30
Drugs used in the presurgical treatment of hypertension in pheochromocytoma?
Phenoxybenzamine and Phentolamine MOA: nonselective alpha blockers (alpha 1>alpha2) SE: Orthostatic hypotension
31
Difference between phenoxybenzamine and phentolamine
Phenoxybenzamine: IRREVERSIBLE Inhibitor Phentolamine: REVERSIBLE Inhibitor, can also be used as treatment for rebound hypertension (e.g. Clonidine)
32
Selective alpha 1 receptors used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension?
Prazosin, Doxazosin, Terazosin, Tamsulosin, Silodosi | Side effect: First dose orthostatic hypotension
33
Most selective for prostatic smooth muscle?
Tamsulosin
34
Nonselective beta blockers
Propranolol, Pindolol, Timolol, Labetalol, Carvedilol, Nadolol SE: bronchospasm, erectile dysfunction
35
Drug which has a combined alpha and beta blocker blockade (can also be used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma)
Labetalol
36
Nonselective beta blockers which has an intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
Pindolol and acebutolol
37
Beta blocker which has an absent Local anesthetic activity
timolol and betaxolol (local anesthetic activity is disadvantageous when used in the eye topically since it can decrease protective effects and increase the risk of corneal ulcerations)
38
Beta blocker which has the longest half-life
Nadolol
39
selective beta blockers
Betaxolol, esmolol, acebutolol, atenolol, and metoprolol
40
Selective beta blockers used for supraventricular tachycardia
Esmolol
41
Beta blocker which has the shortest half-life
Esmolol
42
Flow of aqueous humor
Ciliary body - Posterior chamber - Angle of the anterior chamber - Pupil - Anterior chamber - trabecular meshwork - canal of schlemm - Uveoscleral veins
43
Drugs that cause decreased secretion of aqueous humor from the ciliary epithelium
Beta blocker: Timolol Osmotic agents: Mannitol Alpha2 agonist: Apraclonidine Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor: acetazolamide, dorzolamide
44
Drugs that cause ciliary muscle contraction, opening of trabecular meshwork and increased outflow through canal of schlemm
Cholanomimetics: Pilocarpine, Physostigmine
45
Drugs that cause increased outflow through canal of Schlemm
Prostaglandins: latanoprost
46
Drugs that causes increased outflow via uveoscleral veins
Epinephrine