Ch 1 Quiz Flashcards
(379 cards)
1
Q
Fish have scales that enable them to live in a water environment. This is an example of Development Homeostatis Adaptation Metabolism Cellular organization
A
Adaptation
2
Q
The face of a sunflower turns to follow the sun as it moves across the sky. This is an example of Metabolism Homeostatis Response to stimuli Development Reproduction
A
Response to stimuli
3
Q
Which of the following statements most correctly defines homeostasis?
• All living organisms are alike.
• Living organisms do not change much over time.
• Human beings
A
Cells and organisms must be able to maintain a fairly constant internal environment
4
Q
IN a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a/an
A
Population
5
Q
After studying biology, it is hoped that you
A
Will be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own well being and the Earth’s
6
Q
Traditions, beliefs, and values are considered what aspect of human life?
A
Cultural
7
Q
Which of he following is not a basic theory of biology? • Theory of ecosystems • Cell theory • Gene theory • Theory of evolution • Theory of gravity
A
Theory of gravity
8
Q
An important part of scientific research is repeatability.
A
True
9
Q
The process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth is called
A
Evolution
10
Q
The tentative explanation to be tested is called
A
A hypothesis
11
Q
The region in which populations interact with each other and with the physical environment is called
A
An ecosystem
12
Q
Which organisms are most closely related to humans? • Meerkats • Earthworms • Spiders • Snakes • Parakeets
A
Meerkats
13
Q
______ observations are supported by factual information while ______ observations involve personal judgment.
A
Objective; Subjective
14
Q
Which of the following statements would be considered anecdotal data?
A
“I lost 21 lbs on the Atkins diet.”
15
Q
If the control group in an experiment shows the same results as the test group, the treatment was successful.
A
False
16
Q
A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a/an
A
Organism
17
Q
Four million years ago, horses were rather small compared to today’s horses and had relatively stocky bodies with a straight shoulder and thick neck. This statement is an example of which biological concept?
A
Evolution
18
Q
In a graph, the experimental variable is plotted on the
A
x axis
19
Q
The development of resistance of MRSA bacteria to antibiotics is an example of
A
Evolution
20
Q
Which of the following statements is a hypothesis?
A
If a student buys a meal plan he/she will eat more vegetables
21
Q
The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be
A
The bacterium Helicobacter pylori
22
Q
Only humans have a language that allows us to communicate information and experiences symbolically?
A
True
23
Q
Which of the following statements is an objective observation? • I like this picture • This mattress feels hard to me • I think I am going to be sick • This milk tastes funny • This package is larger than that one
A
This package is larger than that one
24
Q
Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are alike in that
A
They are all made of glucose
25
Isotopes of an element differ due the number of
Neutrons
26
A hydrolysis reaction involves the loss of water
True
27
The monomer unit of protein is
Amino acids
28
```
Which of the following is not one of the four classes of organic molecules found in cells?
• Vitamins
• Nucleic acids
• Lipids
• Carbohydrates
• Proteins
```
Vitamins
29
In an atom, the number of protons always equals the number of
Electrons
30
Water makes up 60-70% of total body weight
True
31
What are the properties of water?
* High heat capacity
* High heat of evaporation
* Is a solvent
* Water molecules are cohesive and adhesive
* Frozen water is less dense than liquid water
32
An alpha helix or a beta sheet are examples of what level of protein structure?
Secondary
33
A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times as many H+ as a pH of 6.
False
34
A combination of two or more atoms of the same type is called
A molecule
35
Fats are usually of animal origin while oils are usually of plant origin.
True
36
Which of the following characteristics of water is most responsible for the sinking of the Titanic?
Frozen water is less dense than liquid water
37
Fermentation produces more ATP than does aerobic respiration.
False
38
Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water. What happened in the red blood cells?
The cells burst
39
What type of junctions must there be between cells to form a barrier?
Tight junctions
40
```
Which of the following structures are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
• Mitochondria
• Endoplasmic reticulum
• Plasma membrane
• Nucleus
• Gogli body
```
Plasma membrane
41
```
Which of the following protein fibers is used for cellular movement and are extremely thin in size?
• Intermediate filaments
• Actin filaments
• Microtubules
• Cilia
• Centrosome
```
Actin filaments
42
The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its
Surface area to volume ratio
43
The cytoplasm is not considered a cellular organelle
True
44
The first day of football practice was rough on the squad. During practice, the players complained of cramps and sore muscles. The reason for their complaints was that there was a ______ build up in their muscles.
Lactate
45
What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?
Support
46
Which structure in the human body will use flagella to move?
Sperm
47
Which of the following would be a way of finishing this hypothesis about the function of the Gogli apparatus? If the Gogli apparatus is involved in packaging products for secretion, then
Vesicles must travel from the Gogli to the cell structure
48
The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the
Matrix
49
Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with its false feet or pseudopods. This process is known as
Phagocytosis
50
If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to
Synthesize proteins
51
Which type of tissues make up the epidermis?
Stratified squamous epithelium
52
What protein provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues?
Collagen
53
With a negative feedback system, the value in question will vary around the set point.
True.
54
```
Which of the following is not considered a basic tissue type?
• Epithelial
• Connective
• Muscle
• Nervous
• Fat
```
Fat
55
The best description for the two components of blood are
Formed elements and plasma
56
In epithelial tissues, what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue?
Basement membrane
57
Which of the following is not involved in body temperature homeostatis?
• Shivering
• Respiration rate
• Constriction or dilation of blood vessels
• Secretion of sweat glands
• The hypothalamus
Respiration rate
58
```
Which of the follwing is responsible for the waterproofing of skin?
• Sweat
• Keratin
• Mucus
• Wax
• Hyaline cartilage
```
Keratin
59
Carla is having problems with infections. Which body system is failing?
Immune system
60
If temperature were controlled by a positive feedback mechanism, the body's temperature would continue to rise.
True
61
The cardiovascular system is limited to just the heart and blood.
False
62
What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue?
Loose fibrous and dense fibrous
63
The "lub" sound of the "lub-dup" heart beat is due to what?
The closing of the AV valves
64
What structure within a capillary bed shunts blood form the arteriole to the venule?
Precapillary sphincter
65
What is a stent?
A cylinder of expandable metal mesh
66
Elizabeth takes a prescription drug that dilates her arterioles. What does this do to her blood pressure? Why?
It falls because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels.
67
Generally, there are no symptoms of hypertension.
True
68
What is the function of valves in the veins?
To prevent the backward flow of blood
69
The innermost layer of an artery is known as what?
Endothelium
70
What are the upper chambers of the heart called?
Atria
71
Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit?
Right ventricle
72
If a person is dehydrated, how will this affect nutrient exchange at the capillaries?
Water will not leave the arterial end of the capillary and enter the tissues
73
During open heart surgery, the first heart structure that would be cut into is the ______.
Pericardium
74
What happen to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries at the venous end?
The excess fluid is collected in the lymphatic capillaries
75
A blood pressure of 90/40 is considered normal.
False
76
Which part of the brain contains the cardiac control center?
Medulla oblongata
77
If your pulse is 70 beats per minute, how fast is your heart beating?
70 beats per minute
78
When comparing the cardiovascular system to a city, what is it similar to?
Roads
79
Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the blood stream.
True
80
Which of the following is not a characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
• The virus remains within a person
• It is caused by an Epstein-Barr virus
• Active EBV can be passed in saliva
• There is uncontrolled white blood cell production
• Symptoms include fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph glands
There is uncontrolled white blood cell production
81
What do type A positive and AB negative blood have in common?
A antigens
82
How many globin chains are found in hemoglobin?
4
83
White blood cells are like red blood cells in that they only live for a matter of days.
False
84
How does the muscular system benefit the blood?
It keeps blood moving through the heart and vessels
85
Jeremy has type O negative blood. What type blood could he receive in a transfusion?
O negative only
86
Coagulation contributes to homeostatis by
Keeping the blood within the vessels
87
The two major components of blood are
Formed elements and plasma
88
Robby has type B positive blood. His blood will contain
B and Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies
89
Which of the following substances is not considered part of blood plasma?
Red blood cells
90
If mom has already developed any-Rh antibodies during her first pregnancy, a RhoGAM shot will not help her second pregnancy.
True
91
Hormones produced by the endocrine system regulate blood volume and blood cell formation.
True
92
If a person does not have enough iron in their diet, they may suffer from
Anemia
93
The most abundant component of plasma is water.
True
94
An individual who is blood type O will have antibodies against type A and B antigens, regardless of whether the have had a blood transfusion or not.
True
95
```
Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas?
• Trypsin
• Lipase
• Amylase
• Sodium bicardonate
• Bile
```
Bile
96
Why is it necessary to include some carbohydrates in the diet?
Brain cells require glucose
97
The dentist explained that dental cavities are caused by
Bacteria within the mouth metabolizing sugar
98
Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called
Sphincters
99
The fleshly extension of the soft palate is known as the
Uvula
100
What is one benefit of normal flora in the large intestine?
Produce vitamin B
101
Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
• To ingest food
• To digest food into small nutrients so hat the molecules can pass through membranes
• to absorb nutrient molecules
• To eliminate indigestible remains
• To protect against pathogens
To protect against pathogens
102
The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are known as
Lacteals
103
```
Which of the following is not associated with the stomach?
• Alcohol absorption
• Gastric glands
• Rugae
• Duodenum
• Pepsin
```
Duodenum
104
According to the BMI chart, a healthy BMI is in the range of
18.5 to 24.9
105
Which accessory organ of the digestive system will process and store nutrients as well as producing bile for emulsification?
Liver
106
The secretions of digestive juices are controlled by the nervous system as well as by digestive hormones.
True
107
About 90% of people suffering from anorexia nervosa are
Young women
108
Today, physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to ______.
Cardiovascular disease
109
```
Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is incorrect?
• Lipase-fat
• Pepsin-protein
• Trypsin-carbohydrates
• Nuclease-DNA
• Amylase-starch
```
Trypsin-carbohydrates
110
What is the correct order of components of the digestive tract?
```
Mouth
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Rectum
Anus
```
111
The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the
Tidal volume
112
Which structure is not part of the inspiration process?
```
All are part of the process:
Bronchioles
Trachea
Larynx
Lungs
```
113
Which structure is the initial entry way for air to enter the respiratory system?
The nose
114
Where is the respiratory control center located?
In the brain
115
Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the plasma as
Bicarbonate ion
116
The epiglottis is the slit between the vocal chords
False
117
What separates the lungs from the thoracic cavity?
Pleura
118
"Strep throat" is caused by what type of infecting organism?
Bacteria
119
During respiration, which structure connects the larynx to the bronchiole tree?
Trachea
120
Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem and the lungs.
False
121
Which part of the lower respiratory tract is intimately in contact with the cardiovascular system?
Lungs
122
The respiratory system is responsible for
Oxygen entering the body and carbon dioxide leaving the body
123
Which of the following is not a part of inspiration?
• Air rushes into the lungs
• The rib cage moves up and out
• The intercostal muscles pull the robs outward
• The diaphragm contracts and moves down
• The pressure in the lungs increases
The pressure in the lungs increases
124
During respiration, what is the additional amount of air that can be exhaled from the lungs during an extra deep exhalation? This volume is usually around 1,400 mL.
Expiratory reserve volume
125
```
Which of these lower respiratory diseases should be treated with antibiotics?
• Pulmonary fibrosis
• Pulmonary tuberculosis
• Lung cancer
• Asthma
• Emphysema
```
Pulmonary tuberculosis
126
Kidneys are organs of homeostasis because they
* Help maintain the correct concentration of salts in the blood
* Regulate the blood volume
* Regulate the pH of the blood
* Excrete nitrogenous wastes
127
Why do water and small molecules move from the glomerulus into the filtrate?
Glomerular blood pressure
128
What part of the kidney is the central space that leads to the ureter?
Renal pelvis
129
```
Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product?
• Creatinine
• Uric acid
• Urea
• Erythropoietin
```
Erythropoietin
130
```
Which of these contains urine?
• Intestine
• Gallbladder
• Uterus
• Urethra
```
Urethra
131
What is the normal pH of the blood?
Slightly basic
132
```
Which of the following is not part of a nephron?
• Loop of Henle
• Ureter
• Glomerular capsule
• Proximal convoluted tubule
• Collecting duct
```
Ureter
133
How many openings (inputs and outputs) are there in the urinary bladder?
three
134
Which substance is removed from the blood during tubular secretion?
H+
135
Place the parts of the nephron in order of how filtration would occur:
1. Glomerulus
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Descending limb of loop
4. Ascending limb of loop
5. Distal convoluted tubule
6. Collecting duct
136
The kidneys excrete metabolic wastes, including urea, a by-product of glucose metabolism.
False
137
What are the two ways substances are removed from the blood and added to the forming urine?
Glomerular filtration and tubular secretion
138
What hormone is secreted by the kidneys when blood oxygen drops, targets bone marrow, and triggers production of red blood cells?
Erythropoietin
139
```
Which of the following is not a region of the kidney?
• Hypothalamus
• Cortex
• Pelvis
• Medulla
• Collectig ducts
```
Hypothalamus
140
Antidiuretic hormone acts directly on the colelcting duct to ______ water and make the urine ______ concentrated.
Reabsorb, more
141
```
Choose which components are found in glomerular filtration.
• Water
• Large proteins
• Blood cells
• Ions
• Small molecules
```
Water
Ions
Small molecules
142
Which of these is a function of the skeleton?
• Houses tissue involved in the production of red blood cells
• Support
• Protection
• All of the above
All of the above
143
The shoulder joint is an example of a ______ joint.
Ball and socket
Synovial
Freely movable
144
What type of cartilage is found at the ends of the long bones?
Hyaline cartilage
145
How long does the bony callus in a bone repair last?
3-4 months
146
```
Which of the following is not associated with a synovial joint?
• Ligaments
• Menisci
• Fibrous capsule
• Bursae
• Fibrocartilage
```
Fibrocartilage
147
Which joint action allows for the body part to move towards the midline?
Adduction
148
Bone-building cells are ______; mature bone cells are ______.
Osteoblasts; Osteocytes
149
Fluid-filled sacs within synovial joints are called
Bursae
150
```
Which of the following is not a type of joint?
• Synovial
• Trochanter
• Fibrous
• Suture
• Cartilaginous
```
Trochanter
151
Endochondral ossification involves
A cartilaginous model
Long bones
An epiphyseal plate
152
Which of the following statements is not true regarding the region of primary ossification of a bone?
The region of primary ossification is where osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the bone.
153
Which function of the skeletal system requires the leg bones to be extremely strong?
They support the entire body
154
Choose the proper sequence describing repair of bone fractures
Hematoma - fibrocartilage callus - bony callus - remodeling
155
What type of cartilage is particularly felxible and is found in ear flaps and the epiglottis?
Elastic cartilage
156
The hardest portion(s) of a long bone is/are the
Compact bone
157
Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what?
The amount of calcium in the blood
158
The outer portion of a long bone, aside from the articular cartilage, is covered by a layer of fibrous connective tissue called
Periosteum
159
```
Which of these is NOT a function of the skeleton:
• Conducts nerve impulses
• Supports the body
• Protects soft body parts
• Stores minerals
```
Conducts nervous impulses
160
What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii?
The triceps brachii
161
According to the sliding filament theory
Actin moves past myosin as myosin cross-bridges pull on the actin
162
A muscle pulling just opposite to another can be best describes as a(n)
Antagonist
163
What is true of fast-twitch fibers?
Fewer blood vessels than slow-twitch fibers
Light in color, little myoglobin
Provide explosions of energy
164
Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle, which pathway(s) do slow-twitch fibers prefer?
Aerobic respiration
165
What does troponin bind to and what happens when it binds?
Ca+, tropomyosin shifts
166
Spasm
Sudden, involuntary muscular contraction
167
Myalgia
Achy muscles
168
Tendinitis
Inflamed tendon, painful joint movement
169
Strain
Overstretching of a muscle near a joint
170
If you lock your knees while standing you may pass out because of the lack of venous return to the heart.
True
171
ATP
Produced during cellular respiration
172
Myoglobin
Stores oxygen in muscle fibers
173
Creatine phosphate
Used to regenerate ATP from ADP
174
Fermentation
Results in the buildup of lactate and results in an oxygen deficit
175
Fermentation, creatine phosphate
Anaerobic source of energy
176
Which disease is an autoimmune disease characterized by weakness that especially affects the muscles of the eyelids, face, neck, and extremities?
Myasthenia gravis
177
A whole muscle is divided into bundles of muscle fibers called ______, each of which is surrounded by a layer of connective tissue.
Fascicles
178
Which of the following does not occur when a muscle fatigues?
• Tetanus is chieved
• Stimulation continues
• The muscle relaxes
• Acetylcholine is crossing the synaptic cleft
• Its energy reserves are depleted
Tetanus is achieved
179
```
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal muscles?
• Protection of internal organs
• Movement of bones
• Support
• Maintenance of body temperature
• Pumping of blood throughout the body
```
Pumping of blood throughout the body
180
```
Which of the following is not a source of ATP for muscle contraction?
• Fermentation
• ATP in the blood
• ATP stored in the cell
• The creatine phosphate pathway
• Aerobic respiration
```
ATP in the blood
181
Of the three types of muscle tissue, which has multinucleated fibers?
Skeletal muscle
182
What is the resevoir for Ca2+ in the body?
Bones
183
Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles, usually due to overuse.
False
184
One motor unit obeys a principle calle dthe all-or-none law.
True
185
Why are slow-twitch muscles dark?
They contain myoglobin
186
When a muscle contracts, the H zone almost disappears.
True
187
The contractile unit of a myofibril is the
Sacromere
188
______ refers to a group of inherited disorders characterized by a progressive degeneration and weakening of muscles.
Muscular dystrophy
189
Which conducts an action potential faster and why?
Myelinated fibers; the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another
190
The central nervous system is protected by
Bone
191
```
Which of the following is not a type of neuron?
• Afferent
• Neuroglia
• Sensory
• Motor
• Interneuron
```
Neuroglia
192
```
Which of the following drugs is classified as a hallucinogen?
• Caffeine
• Alcohol
• Marijuana
• Nicotine
```
Marijuana
193
```
Which of the following components of a neuron transmits signals away from the cell body?
• Synaptic cleft
• Axon
• Dendrite
• Synovial joint
```
Axon
194
Depolarization of the neuron occurs when
Sodium gates open and sodium moves inside the cell
195
```
Which of the following is associated with the PNS but not the CNS?
• Myelin sheath
• Node of Ranvier
• Axon
• Dendrite
• Schwann cells
```
Schwann cells
196
```
Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter?
• Serotonin
• ATP
• GABA
• Glutamate
• Acetylcholine
```
ATP
197
Heavy use of which drug can lead to hallucinations, anxiety, depression, paranoia, and psychotic symptoms?
Marijuana
198
Which drug is in the same category as nicotine?
Cocaine
199
The drug ______ in tobacco products causes neurons to release dopamine, which reinforces dependence on this drug. Occasional ______ users experience euphoria, alterations in vision and judgment, and distortions of space and time. Heavy use of ______ often leads to liver damage.
Nicotine, marijuana, alcohol
200
When a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft, the response of the receiving neuron will be toward excitation.
False
201
Long term use of heroin results in which set of symptoms?
Addiction, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, various bacterial infections
202
The white matter of the spinal cord surrounds the grey matter.
True
203
Rapid conduction of a nerve impulse in vertebrates is because of
Openings in the myelin sheath
204
Which of the following is not a type of proprioceptor?
• Muscle spindles
• Nociceptors
• Golgi tendon organs
Nociceptors
205
Which disorder of the eye is due to the cornea or lens being uneven resulting in a fuzzy image?
Astigmatism
206
Nociceptors are a type of chemoreceptor
True
207
Sensory adaption is a form of integration and involves the summing of input signals.
True
208
What do nociceptors detect?
Stimuli of pain
209
The senses of taste and smell work because specific ______ in the organs of taste and smell combine with ______ in the air or food. Both senses thus employ ______ to detect changes in the environment.
Protein receptors; chemicals (molecules); chemoreceptors
210
Sensation is the conscious perception of stimuli.
True
211
The type of taste called umami allows us to enjoy what type of flavor?
Savory
212
Which of the following are mechanoreceptors involved in reflex actions and serve to maintain muscle tone?
* Nociceptors
* Proprioceptors
* Meissner corpuscles
* Ruffini endings
213
If the nerves between the eyes and the ears were switched, stimulation of the mechanoreceptors in the ear would result in
Seeing lights
214
The lens is involved in focusing visual information on the retina.
True
215
All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals.
True
216
Which structure in the eye refracts and focuses light rays?
Lens
217
Which layer of the eye contains an extensive blood supply?
Choroid
218
The blind spot is
On the retina, where there are no rods or cones
219
Which of the following is a genetic mutation that affects males more than females?
Red green color blindness
220
Nociceptors respond to the sense of pain.
True
221
Steroid hormones
Activate genes leading to protein synthesis
222
Describe the characteristics of individuals with type 2 diabetes
* Overweight/obese
* Genetic; occurs in families
* More common in African Americans
* Adipose tissue secretes a substance that prohibits insulin receptors from working correctly, thus sugar is not removed from the blood stream
223
Overproduction of growth hormone may result in a condition termed acromegaly
True
224
Which of the following is a feature of an endocrine gland?
Secretes a hormone directly into the bloodstream
225
Endocrine glands secrete their products directly into the bloodstream while exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts.
True
226
Through the action of neurotransmitters, the nervous system responds rapidly to external stimuli. In contrast, the dependence upon hormones within the endocrine system results in a slower response to stimuli.
True
227
Which of the following secretes erythropoietin?
Kidney
228
______ is secreted when blood glucose is high and ______ is/are secreted when blood glucose is low.
Insulin; glucagon
229
Peptide hormones
Bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane
230
In which case is insulin not produced?
Type 1 diabetes
231
The secretion of which hormones qualifies the pancreas as an endocrine gland?
Insulin and glucagon
232
The cramping associated with premenstrual syndrome is often due to norepinephrine.
False
233
Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?
Dudodenum
234
The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous system.
True
235
How are type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus similar?
The blood glucose levels are very high in both
236
```
Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system?
• Testes
• Bladder
• Prostrate gland
• Urethra
• Epididymides
```
Bladder
237
If fertilization occurs, the progesterone levels fall to almost zero.
False
238
During IVF, where does conception occur?
In the laboratory
239
All of the body systems in humans are the same in males and females.
False
240
How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus?
6 times normal
241
The oviducts are not attached to the ovaries.
True
242
What is the function of inhibin?
It inhibits the secretion of GnRH
243
Which STD is characterized by a foul-smelling, yellow-green frothy discharge and itching of the V?
Trichomoniasis
244
The development of a hard chancre (an ulcerated sore with hard edges) is indication of what type of STD?
Syphilis
245
```
All of the following are viral infections except
• Chlamydia
• Hepatitis
• Warts
• HIV/AIDS
• Herpes
```
Clamydia
246
How many chromosomes does a S have?
23
247
What causes G warts?
Virus
248
During which stage of the ovarian cycle will LH spike?
Ovulation
249
What structure is present within a follicle?
An oocyte
250
```
Which of the following are not found in the testes?
• Spermatoza
• Steroli cells
• Seminiferous tubules
• Interstitial cells
• Follicle
```
Follicle
251
```
Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?
• HIV/AIDS
• Gonorrhea
• Chlamydia
• Syphilis
• Vginitis
```
HIV/AIDS
252
What is the most frequent cause of infertility in males
Low S count
253
```
Which of these pairs is mismatched?
• Morphogenesis = organ systems present
• Differentiation = specialization of cells
• Growth = increase in size
• Cleavage = cell division
```
Morphogenesis = organ systems present
254
Depolarization of the egg membrane after fertilization prevents polyspermy.
True
255
As aging occurs, the skin becomes ______ and ______ elastic.
Thinner; less
256
Estrogen is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor.
False
257
The placenta is the course of estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy.
True
258
Which of the following skin changes is not associated with growing older?
• The number of elastic fibers decreases
• There is less adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer
• There is an increase in the number of oil glands
• There are fewer sweat glands for sweating to occur
• Pigmented blotches appear on the skin
There is an increase in the number of oil glands
259
What structure produces progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy?
Placenta
260
At what point during development does the embryo form three germ layer?
When it forms the gastrula
261
______ is a progressive decline in bone density and occurs in both males and females.
Osteoporosis
262
```
Which hypothesis of aging involves mitochondria?
• Genetic in origin
• External factors
• Extrinsic factors
• Whole-body process
• Damage accumulation
```
Genetic in origin
263
During the process of fertilization,
• Many S release acrosome enzymes so that one S can enter the egg
• The acrosome on the egg attracts the S cell
• Several S enter the egg but only one fuses with its nucleus
• Two S enter the egg and both fuse with its nucleus
Many S release acrosome enzymes so that one S can enter the egg
264
The zygote begins to undergo cleavage in the
Oviduct
265
If a fetus contains an X and a T chromosome but a defective SRY gene, they will develop
Into a female because testosterone is not present
266
The first system in the body to become visibly differentiated during development is the
Nervous system
267
The yolk sac of the chick provides nutrients to the developing embryo. What structure serves the same role in humans?
Chorion
268
As a group, females live longer then males
True
269
The presence of the ______ chromosome determines whether the embryo will become male or female. At six weeks, a small bud appears between the legs of the embryo. It will develop into a ______ if it is a female and into a ______ if it is a male.
Y; C; P
270
Fertilization begins when S make contact with the ______, they release enzymes from the ______, and then one S can enter the egg. When the S nucleus fuses with the egg nucleus, ______ is complete.
Zona pellucida; acrosome; fertilization
271
The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the
Corona radiata
272
The sex of an individual is determined at the moment of fertilization.
True
273
```
The placenta
• Develops after birth
• Takes blood to the developing fetus
• Allows exchanges of substances between the maternal and fetal blood
• Forms the umbilical cord
```
Allows exchanges of substances between maternal and fetal blood
274
When does the heart begin to develop?
3 weeks
275
Development ceases after birth.
False
276
IN a karyotype, chromosomes are paired up by examining the stained dark and light cross-bands of varying widths, chromosomal size, and chromosomal shape.
True
277
```
Which of the following is located where sister chromatids join?
• Spindle fibers
• Centromere
• Homologous chromosomes
• Centriole
```
Centromere
278
```
By the end of meiosis I,
• 4 daughter cells have been produced
• Each daughter nucleus is genetically identical to the original cell
• Crossing over has occurred
• Sister chromatids have separated
```
Crossing over has occurred
279
The appearance of siblings can vary greatly because of crossing over during
Prophase I
280
```
Which of the following is not a symptom of Down Syndrome?
• Short stature
• Stubby fingers
• Indeterminate genitalia
• Flat face
• Eyelid fold
```
Indeterminate genetalia
281
Sister chromatids carry the same genes
True
282
In animal cells, cytokinesis takes place by
A furrowing process
283
During anaphase of meiosis II, ______ separate.
Sister chromatids
284
The gender of a fetus can be determined by analysis of a karyotype.
True
285
If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes, and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes, then the cell has undergone
Mitosis
286
```
Monosomy and trisomy are caused by which of the following?
• Nondisjunction
• Separation of sister chromatids
• Crossing over
• Fertilization
```
Nondisjunction
287
What is the term for the DNA and proteins found within the cell?
Chromatin
288
The nuclear division that reduces the chromosome number from the ______ number to the ______ number is called meiosis.
Diploid (2n); haploid (n)
289
What are the two parts of the cell cycle?
Interphase and cell division
290
During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes first become visible?
Prophase
291
In a transaction, all of the DNA is present, and there is only one copy of each piece.
True
292
All the products of oogenesis are equal in size and content.
False
293
```
Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome?
• Jacob's syndrome
• Down syndrome
• Williams syndrome
• Turner syndrome
• Klinfelter syndrome
```
Turner syndrome
294
In a karyotype, the chromosomes are arranged in order from
Largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end
295
If a cell is to divide, DNA replication must occur during
Interphase
296
During which stage of mitosis do sister chromatids separate at their centromere?
Anaphase
297
Which stages comes directly after interphase?
Mitosis
298
In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?
Anaphase I
299
The mitotic cell cycle produces four, generally-identical cells vs. the meiotic cell cycle produces two, genetically different cells.
False
300
Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal S. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy?
2, 1
301
Both parents appear to be normal but their child has cystic fibrosis. Using the letter A, what are the genotypes of the parents?
Aa
302
How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited?
Incompletely dominant
303
```
Which of the following would not be a way to list someone's genotype for a particular trait?
• Bb
• AA
• bb
• BB
• AB
```
AB
304
If 25% of the offspring of one set of parents show the recessive phenotype, the parents were probably
Both heterozygous
305
```
Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross?
• Abb x Aab
• AaBb x AaBb
• Gg x gg
• ff x ff
• Ss x ss
```
AaBb x AaBb
306
If a mother is a carrier for color-blindness and her husband is not, which of the following children are most likely?
1 normal daughter, 1 carrier daughter, 1 normal son, and 1 color-blind son
307
```
Which of the following is a dominant allele?
• a
• AA
• A
• ab
• Ab
```
A
308
While a locus refers to a unit of heredity, a gene refers to a specific position on a chromosome.
False
309
When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes, you are describing their genotype.
False
310
Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons?
No
311
In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype?
0
312
Is it possible for a man with type O blood to be the father of a child with type A blood?
Yes
313
A male inherits his X-linked allele from his mother.
True
314
Two individuals with medium-brown skin color could have children who are both darker and lighter than they are.
True
315
```
Alleles
• Are alternate forms of a gene
• Have the same position on a pair of chromosomes
• Affect the same trait
• Are identical between siblings
```
* Are alternate forms of a gene
* Have the same position on a pair of chromosomes
* Affect the same trait
316
In a pedigree, an affected male would be designated by
A shaded square
317
A woman has genotype AABB for skin color. She reproduces with a man whose genotype is aabb. What are the genotypes of their offspring?
AaBb
318
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree?
• Affected children will usually have unaffected parents
• Both males and females are affected with equal frequency
• Heterozygotes are affected
• Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child
• Two unaffected parents will not have affected children
Affected children will usually have unaffected parents
319
A woman who is not color-blind but has an allele for color blindness reproduces with a man who has normal color vision. What is the change that they will have a color-blind daughter?
No chance
320
If an individual has the A blood type, how many different genotypes can they possess?
Two
321
Inheritance by multiple alleles is illustrated by the inheritance of
Blood type
322
What happens next after transcription of the DNA gene in the nucleus?
mRNA moved to the cytoplasm and becomes associated with a ribosome
323
```
Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA?
• Fatty acids, sugars
• Phosphate, amino acids
• Amino acids, nitrogen base
• Phosphate, nitrogen base
• Nitrogen base, fatty acid
```
Phosphate, nitrogen base
324
Which of these is happening when translation takes place?
• All of these answer choices are correct
• mRNA is still in the nucleus
• DNA is being replicated
• tRNAs are bringing amino acids to the ribosomes
• tRNAs expose their anticodons
tRNAs are bringing amino acids to the ribosomes
325
```
Transcription
• Occurs at the ribosome
• Involves tRNA
• All of the answers are correct
• Involves DNA
```
Involves DNA
326
What form of RNA is responsible for making a copy of the DNA gene and carrying that from the nucleus to a ribosome located in the cytoplasm of the cell?
Messenger RNA (mRNA)
327
```
Which is NOT true of DNA?
• Polymer of nucleotides
• Occurs in nucleus
• Has a varied sequence of just three bases
• Contains deoxyribose
```
Has a varied sequence of just three bases
328
Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation?
• The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time
• The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits
• One of the three stop codons is reached
• The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an incoming tRNA
The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits
329
Protein synthesis takes place in the
Cytoplasm, where mRNA codons pair with tRNA anticodons
330
Which of these pairs is NOT a correct statement of the differences between DNA and RNA?
• DNA is double-stranded; RNA is single-stranded
• DNA bases are A, T, C, and G; RNA bases are A, U, C, G
• DNA is found only in the nucleus; RNA is found only in the cytoplasm
• DNA is the genetc material; RNA is a helper of DNA
DNA is found only in the nucleus; RNA is found only in the cytoplasm
331
Check all of the correct statements that apply to RNA
• tRNA brings amino acids to ribosomes
• mRNA leaves the nucleus with a copy of the genetic information and carries it to the ribosome
• mRNA can be transcribed in the opposite direction and used to repair damaged DNA
• RNA is single-stranded and contains ribose
* tRNA brings amino acids to ribosomes
* mRNA leaves the nucleus with a copy of the genetic information and carries it to the ribosome
* RNA is single-stranded and contains ribose
332
To transcribe something is to make an identical copy, i.e., if the original is DNA, the transcribed copy is also DNA
False
333
```
Both DNA and RNA are
• Transcribed
• Translated
• Found in the cytoplasm
• Found in the nucleus
• Considered the genetic material of the cell
```
Found in the nucleus
334
How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class?
99.9%
335
More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins.
False
336
The denaturation of which enzyme would lead to incorrect base pairing of nucleotides during DNA replication?
DNA polymerase
337
Replication is considered
Semiconservative
338
The human genome
• Contains only about 30,000 genes
• Will probably be completely sequenced in 50 years
• Is known only to government employees because it is top secret
• Has no usefulness to humans
Contains only about 30,000 genes
339
Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus.
False
340
```
Which of the following functions of a herbivore provides energy that becomes available to the carnivore that eats the herbivore?
• Cellular respiration
• Defecation
• Death
• Growth and reproduction
• Excretion
```
Growth and reproduction
341
In the nitrogen cycle, N2 from the atmosphere is converted to ______, the form plants can use; this process if called ______.
Ammonium (NH4+); nitrogen fixation
342
```
What organism would be at the second level in a detrital food chain?
• Shrews
• Birds
• Earthworms
• Leaves
• Detritus
```
Earthworms
343
Select the statement that best describes the relationship between energy flow and nutrient cycling:
• Chemicals and energy pass through an ecosystem in a one-way direction
• Energy flows through an ecosystem while chemicals cycle continuously
• Both energy and chemicals cycle through an ecosystem
• It depends on which chemical and what form of energy as to what path is taken
Energy flows through an ecosystem while chemicals cycle continuously
344
How is the nitrogen cycle like the carbon cycle?
Both are gaseous cycles
345
How does phosphate enter the soil?
Weathering of rocks
346
Hail and snow are examples of
Precipitation
347
From the North Pole south, what is the first type of ecosystem encountered?
Tundra
348
To say that something is a producer is to give information regarding its niche in an ecosystem.
True
349
```
Which of the following is associated with groundwater mining?
• Ocean
• Runoff
• Groundwater table
• Standing water (lakes and ponds)
• Aquifers
```
Aquifers
350
```
Which of the following contribute(s) to the carbon cycle?
• Respiration
• All of the answer choices are correct
• Fossil fuel combustion
• Photosynthesis
```
All of the answers are correct
351
The global climate has already warmed about 0.6 degrees Celsius since the Industrial Revolution.
True
352
Cultural eutrophication can be caused by
Detergents, fertilizers, and sewage treatment plants
353
The atmosphere would be considered what component of a chemical cycle?
Exchange pool
354
There are no reervoirs of carbon for the carbon cycle.
False
355
There is more nitrogen gas in the atmosphere than there is oxygen.
True
356
If the first-level carnivores consume 500 kg of energy from herbivore tissue, how much is available to the second-level carnivores?
50 kg
357
About ______ of the energy available at a particular trophic level is incorporated into the tissues at the next trophic level.
10%
358
How is carbon dioxide used by living organisms?
By photosynthesis
359
What kind of organism is an earthworm?
Detritus feeder
360
Reducing your personal meat consumption would be beneficial to the environment.
True
361
What are the characteristics of a sustainable society?
* Provides the same amount of goods and services in the future as it does now
* Adequate food and living space
* Resources cannot be depleted
362
```
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
• Water
• Land
• Minerals
• Fossil fuel
```
Water
363
How much of Earth's land mass is already desert?
40%
364
What proportion of the world's population lives within 100 kilometers of a coastline?
40%
365
```
Which of these is NOT a direct value of biodiversity for humans?
• Consumptive use value
• Medicinal value
• Agricultural value
• Waste disposal
```
Waste disposal
366
Select the practice that will NOT contribute to sustainability in urban areas:
• Recycling of business equipment
• Plant bluegrass lawns rather than native grasses
• Greenbelts and green roofs
• Efficient public transportation
Plant bluegrass rather than native grasses
367
Which of the following is not an unsustainable practice of society?
• Deforestation and desertification
• Using more freshwater for agriculture than in homes
• Eating more meat than vegetables
• Reduction in population growth rate
• Using large amounts of fossil fuels, fertilizers, and pesticides
Reduction in population growth rate
368
Fish are considered a nonrenewable resource
False
369
Why should pregnant women and small children not eat certain fish?
Mercury contamination
370
What do indirect values of biodiversity all have in common?
They are all pervasive benefits provided by ecosystems
371
What is the definition of biotic potential?
Maximum growth rate under ideal conditions
372
The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like
A rectangle
373
Define an ecological footprint
The total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs
374
```
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sustainable society?
• Integrated pest management
• Draining of wetlands for housing
• Multi-use farming
• Mass transit
• Recycling and composting
```
Draining of wetlands for housing
375
Which is NOT a characteristic of less-developed countries?
• Poor standard of living
• Located mainly in Asia, Africa, and Latin America
• Slow population growth
• Natural resource depletion
Slow population growth
376
What does the population growth for the United States look like?
Increasing
377
Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as percentages (per 100 people).
False
378
Which of the following statements about the indirect value of trees is not true?
• They retain soil and prevent erosion
• They provide shade and reduce the need for fans and air conditioning
• In forests, they exert a natural "sponge effect" for provision of freshwater
• Globally, they stabilize the climate because they take up carbon dioxide
• They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes
They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes
379
Development of rain forests for human habitation leads to:
* Loss of habitation
* Resource depletion
* Deforestation
