Ch 1 Quiz Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Ch 1 Quiz Deck (379):
1

Fish have scales that enable them to live in a water environment. This is an example of
Development
Homeostatis
Adaptation
Metabolism
Cellular organization

Adaptation

2

The face of a sunflower turns to follow the sun as it moves across the sky. This is an example of
Metabolism
Homeostatis
Response to stimuli
Development
Reproduction

Response to stimuli

3

Which of the following statements most correctly defines homeostasis?
• All living organisms are alike.
• Living organisms do not change much over time.
• Human beings

Cells and organisms must be able to maintain a fairly constant internal environment

4

IN a swamp, all of the alligators would represent a/an

Population

5

After studying biology, it is hoped that you

Will be better able to make wise decisions regarding your own well being and the Earth's

6

Traditions, beliefs, and values are considered what aspect of human life?

Cultural

7

Which of he following is not a basic theory of biology?
• Theory of ecosystems
• Cell theory
• Gene theory
• Theory of evolution
• Theory of gravity

Theory of gravity

8

An important part of scientific research is repeatability.

True

9

The process of change that produces the diversity of life on Earth is called

Evolution

10

The tentative explanation to be tested is called

A hypothesis

11

The region in which populations interact with each other and with the physical environment is called

An ecosystem

12

Which organisms are most closely related to humans?
• Meerkats
• Earthworms
• Spiders
• Snakes
• Parakeets

Meerkats

13

______ observations are supported by factual information while ______ observations involve personal judgment.

Objective; Subjective

14

Which of the following statements would be considered anecdotal data?

"I lost 21 lbs on the Atkins diet."

15

If the control group in an experiment shows the same results as the test group, the treatment was successful.

False

16

A complex individual that consists of organ systems is known as a/an

Organism

17

Four million years ago, horses were rather small compared to today's horses and had relatively stocky bodies with a straight shoulder and thick neck. This statement is an example of which biological concept?

Evolution

18

In a graph, the experimental variable is plotted on the

x axis

19

The development of resistance of MRSA bacteria to antibiotics is an example of

Evolution

20

Which of the following statements is a hypothesis?

If a student buys a meal plan he/she will eat more vegetables

21

The cause of stomach ulcers appears to be

The bacterium Helicobacter pylori

22

Only humans have a language that allows us to communicate information and experiences symbolically?

True

23

Which of the following statements is an objective observation?
• I like this picture
• This mattress feels hard to me
• I think I am going to be sick
• This milk tastes funny
• This package is larger than that one

This package is larger than that one

24

Starch, cellulose, and glycogen are alike in that

They are all made of glucose

25

Isotopes of an element differ due the number of

Neutrons

26

A hydrolysis reaction involves the loss of water

True

27

The monomer unit of protein is

Amino acids

28

Which of the following is not one of the four classes of organic molecules found in cells?
• Vitamins
• Nucleic acids
• Lipids
• Carbohydrates
• Proteins

Vitamins

29

In an atom, the number of protons always equals the number of

Electrons

30

Water makes up 60-70% of total body weight

True

31

What are the properties of water?

• High heat capacity
• High heat of evaporation
• Is a solvent
• Water molecules are cohesive and adhesive
• Frozen water is less dense than liquid water

32

An alpha helix or a beta sheet are examples of what level of protein structure?

Secondary

33

A solution with a pH of 7 has 10 times as many H+ as a pH of 6.

False

34

A combination of two or more atoms of the same type is called

A molecule

35

Fats are usually of animal origin while oils are usually of plant origin.

True

36

Which of the following characteristics of water is most responsible for the sinking of the Titanic?

Frozen water is less dense than liquid water

37

Fermentation produces more ATP than does aerobic respiration.

False

38

Brad placed a drop of blood in some distilled water. What happened in the red blood cells?

The cells burst

39

What type of junctions must there be between cells to form a barrier?

Tight junctions

40

Which of the following structures are present in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
• Mitochondria
• Endoplasmic reticulum
• Plasma membrane
• Nucleus
• Gogli body

Plasma membrane

41

Which of the following protein fibers is used for cellular movement and are extremely thin in size?
• Intermediate filaments
• Actin filaments
• Microtubules
• Cilia
• Centrosome

Actin filaments

42

The size of a metabolizing cell is limited by its

Surface area to volume ratio

43

The cytoplasm is not considered a cellular organelle

True

44

The first day of football practice was rough on the squad. During practice, the players complained of cramps and sore muscles. The reason for their complaints was that there was a ______ build up in their muscles.

Lactate

45

What is the function of cholesterol in the plasma membrane?

Support

46

Which structure in the human body will use flagella to move?

Sperm

47

Which of the following would be a way of finishing this hypothesis about the function of the Gogli apparatus? If the Gogli apparatus is involved in packaging products for secretion, then

Vesicles must travel from the Gogli to the cell structure

48

The gel-like fluid substance within a mitochondrion is called the

Matrix

49

Sheree observed an amoeba feeding by engulfing the prey with its false feet or pseudopods. This process is known as

Phagocytosis

50

If a cell lacked ribosomes, it would not be able to

Synthesize proteins

51

Which type of tissues make up the epidermis?

Stratified squamous epithelium

52

What protein provides flexibility and strength to connective tissues?

Collagen

53

With a negative feedback system, the value in question will vary around the set point.

True.

54

Which of the following is not considered a basic tissue type?
• Epithelial
• Connective
• Muscle
• Nervous
• Fat

Fat

55

The best description for the two components of blood are

Formed elements and plasma

56

In epithelial tissues, what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue?

Basement membrane

57

Which of the following is not involved in body temperature homeostatis?
• Shivering
• Respiration rate
• Constriction or dilation of blood vessels
• Secretion of sweat glands
• The hypothalamus

Respiration rate

58

Which of the follwing is responsible for the waterproofing of skin?
• Sweat
• Keratin
• Mucus
• Wax
• Hyaline cartilage

Keratin

59

Carla is having problems with infections. Which body system is failing?

Immune system

60

If temperature were controlled by a positive feedback mechanism, the body's temperature would continue to rise.

True

61

The cardiovascular system is limited to just the heart and blood.

False

62

What are the two forms of fibrous connective tissue?

Loose fibrous and dense fibrous

63

The "lub" sound of the "lub-dup" heart beat is due to what?

The closing of the AV valves

64

What structure within a capillary bed shunts blood form the arteriole to the venule?

Precapillary sphincter

65

What is a stent?

A cylinder of expandable metal mesh

66

Elizabeth takes a prescription drug that dilates her arterioles. What does this do to her blood pressure? Why?

It falls because this increases the cross-sectional area of the vessels.

67

Generally, there are no symptoms of hypertension.

True

68

What is the function of valves in the veins?

To prevent the backward flow of blood

69

The innermost layer of an artery is known as what?

Endothelium

70

What are the upper chambers of the heart called?

Atria

71

Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit?

Right ventricle

72

If a person is dehydrated, how will this affect nutrient exchange at the capillaries?

Water will not leave the arterial end of the capillary and enter the tissues

73

During open heart surgery, the first heart structure that would be cut into is the ______.

Pericardium

74

What happen to the excess fluid that leaves the capillaries at the venous end?

The excess fluid is collected in the lymphatic capillaries

75

A blood pressure of 90/40 is considered normal.

False

76

Which part of the brain contains the cardiac control center?

Medulla oblongata

77

If your pulse is 70 beats per minute, how fast is your heart beating?

70 beats per minute

78

When comparing the cardiovascular system to a city, what is it similar to?

Roads

79

Excess tissue fluid becomes lymphatic fluid that eventually enters the blood stream.

True

80

Which of the following is not a characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
• The virus remains within a person
• It is caused by an Epstein-Barr virus
• Active EBV can be passed in saliva
• There is uncontrolled white blood cell production
• Symptoms include fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph glands

There is uncontrolled white blood cell production

81

What do type A positive and AB negative blood have in common?

A antigens

82

How many globin chains are found in hemoglobin?

4

83

White blood cells are like red blood cells in that they only live for a matter of days.

False

84

How does the muscular system benefit the blood?

It keeps blood moving through the heart and vessels

85

Jeremy has type O negative blood. What type blood could he receive in a transfusion?

O negative only

86

Coagulation contributes to homeostatis by

Keeping the blood within the vessels

87

The two major components of blood are

Formed elements and plasma

88

Robby has type B positive blood. His blood will contain

B and Rh antigens, and anti-A antibodies

89

Which of the following substances is not considered part of blood plasma?

Red blood cells

90

If mom has already developed any-Rh antibodies during her first pregnancy, a RhoGAM shot will not help her second pregnancy.

True

91

Hormones produced by the endocrine system regulate blood volume and blood cell formation.

True

92

If a person does not have enough iron in their diet, they may suffer from

Anemia

93

The most abundant component of plasma is water.

True

94

An individual who is blood type O will have antibodies against type A and B antigens, regardless of whether the have had a blood transfusion or not.

True

95

Which of the following is not produced by the pancreas?
• Trypsin
• Lipase
• Amylase
• Sodium bicardonate
• Bile

Bile

96

Why is it necessary to include some carbohydrates in the diet?

Brain cells require glucose

97

The dentist explained that dental cavities are caused by

Bacteria within the mouth metabolizing sugar

98

Muscles that encircle tubes and act as circular valves are called

Sphincters

99

The fleshly extension of the soft palate is known as the

Uvula

100

What is one benefit of normal flora in the large intestine?

Produce vitamin B

101

Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
• To ingest food
• To digest food into small nutrients so hat the molecules can pass through membranes
• to absorb nutrient molecules
• To eliminate indigestible remains
• To protect against pathogens

To protect against pathogens

102

The small lymphatic capillaries that reside in the small intestines and absorb fats are known as

Lacteals

103

Which of the following is not associated with the stomach?
• Alcohol absorption
• Gastric glands
• Rugae
• Duodenum
• Pepsin

Duodenum

104

According to the BMI chart, a healthy BMI is in the range of

18.5 to 24.9

105

Which accessory organ of the digestive system will process and store nutrients as well as producing bile for emulsification?

Liver

106

The secretions of digestive juices are controlled by the nervous system as well as by digestive hormones.

True

107

About 90% of people suffering from anorexia nervosa are

Young women

108

Today, physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to ______.

Cardiovascular disease

109

Which of the enzyme-substrate pairings is incorrect?
• Lipase-fat
• Pepsin-protein
• Trypsin-carbohydrates
• Nuclease-DNA
• Amylase-starch

Trypsin-carbohydrates

110

What is the correct order of components of the digestive tract?

Mouth
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Rectum
Anus

111

The amount of air that moves in and out with each breath is called the

Tidal volume

112

Which structure is not part of the inspiration process?

All are part of the process:
Bronchioles
Trachea
Larynx
Lungs

113

Which structure is the initial entry way for air to enter the respiratory system?

The nose

114

Where is the respiratory control center located?

In the brain

115

Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the plasma as

Bicarbonate ion

116

The epiglottis is the slit between the vocal chords

False

117

What separates the lungs from the thoracic cavity?

Pleura

118

"Strep throat" is caused by what type of infecting organism?

Bacteria

119

During respiration, which structure connects the larynx to the bronchiole tree?

Trachea

120

Chemoreceptors for blood pH are located in the brain stem and the lungs.

False

121

Which part of the lower respiratory tract is intimately in contact with the cardiovascular system?

Lungs

122

The respiratory system is responsible for

Oxygen entering the body and carbon dioxide leaving the body

123

Which of the following is not a part of inspiration?
• Air rushes into the lungs
• The rib cage moves up and out
• The intercostal muscles pull the robs outward
• The diaphragm contracts and moves down
• The pressure in the lungs increases

The pressure in the lungs increases

124

During respiration, what is the additional amount of air that can be exhaled from the lungs during an extra deep exhalation? This volume is usually around 1,400 mL.

Expiratory reserve volume

125

Which of these lower respiratory diseases should be treated with antibiotics?
• Pulmonary fibrosis
• Pulmonary tuberculosis
• Lung cancer
• Asthma
• Emphysema

Pulmonary tuberculosis

126

Kidneys are organs of homeostasis because they

• Help maintain the correct concentration of salts in the blood
• Regulate the blood volume
• Regulate the pH of the blood
• Excrete nitrogenous wastes

127

Why do water and small molecules move from the glomerulus into the filtrate?

Glomerular blood pressure

128

What part of the kidney is the central space that leads to the ureter?

Renal pelvis

129

Which of the following is not a metabolic waste product?
• Creatinine
• Uric acid
• Urea
• Erythropoietin

Erythropoietin

130

Which of these contains urine?
• Intestine
• Gallbladder
• Uterus
• Urethra

Urethra

131

What is the normal pH of the blood?

Slightly basic

132

Which of the following is not part of a nephron?
• Loop of Henle
• Ureter
• Glomerular capsule
• Proximal convoluted tubule
• Collecting duct

Ureter

133

How many openings (inputs and outputs) are there in the urinary bladder?

three

134

Which substance is removed from the blood during tubular secretion?

H+

135

Place the parts of the nephron in order of how filtration would occur:

1. Glomerulus
2. Proximal convoluted tubule
3. Descending limb of loop
4. Ascending limb of loop
5. Distal convoluted tubule
6. Collecting duct

136

The kidneys excrete metabolic wastes, including urea, a by-product of glucose metabolism.

False

137

What are the two ways substances are removed from the blood and added to the forming urine?

Glomerular filtration and tubular secretion

138

What hormone is secreted by the kidneys when blood oxygen drops, targets bone marrow, and triggers production of red blood cells?

Erythropoietin

139

Which of the following is not a region of the kidney?
• Hypothalamus
• Cortex
• Pelvis
• Medulla
• Collectig ducts

Hypothalamus

140

Antidiuretic hormone acts directly on the colelcting duct to ______ water and make the urine ______ concentrated.

Reabsorb, more

141

Choose which components are found in glomerular filtration.
• Water
• Large proteins
• Blood cells
• Ions
• Small molecules

Water
Ions
Small molecules

142

Which of these is a function of the skeleton?
• Houses tissue involved in the production of red blood cells
• Support
• Protection
• All of the above

All of the above

143

The shoulder joint is an example of a ______ joint.

Ball and socket
Synovial
Freely movable

144

What type of cartilage is found at the ends of the long bones?

Hyaline cartilage

145

How long does the bony callus in a bone repair last?

3-4 months

146

Which of the following is not associated with a synovial joint?
• Ligaments
• Menisci
• Fibrous capsule
• Bursae
• Fibrocartilage

Fibrocartilage

147

Which joint action allows for the body part to move towards the midline?

Adduction

148

Bone-building cells are ______; mature bone cells are ______.

Osteoblasts; Osteocytes

149

Fluid-filled sacs within synovial joints are called

Bursae

150

Which of the following is not a type of joint?
• Synovial
• Trochanter
• Fibrous
• Suture
• Cartilaginous

Trochanter

151

Endochondral ossification involves

A cartilaginous model
Long bones
An epiphyseal plate

152

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the region of primary ossification of a bone?

The region of primary ossification is where osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the bone.

153

Which function of the skeletal system requires the leg bones to be extremely strong?

They support the entire body

154

Choose the proper sequence describing repair of bone fractures

Hematoma - fibrocartilage callus - bony callus - remodeling

155

What type of cartilage is particularly felxible and is found in ear flaps and the epiglottis?

Elastic cartilage

156

The hardest portion(s) of a long bone is/are the

Compact bone

157

Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what?

The amount of calcium in the blood

158

The outer portion of a long bone, aside from the articular cartilage, is covered by a layer of fibrous connective tissue called

Periosteum

159

Which of these is NOT a function of the skeleton:
• Conducts nerve impulses
• Supports the body
• Protects soft body parts
• Stores minerals

Conducts nervous impulses

160

What muscle works in a pair with the biceps brachii?

The triceps brachii

161

According to the sliding filament theory

Actin moves past myosin as myosin cross-bridges pull on the actin

162

A muscle pulling just opposite to another can be best describes as a(n)

Antagonist

163

What is true of fast-twitch fibers?

Fewer blood vessels than slow-twitch fibers
Light in color, little myoglobin
Provide explosions of energy

164

Of the three pathways for supplying ATP to the muscle, which pathway(s) do slow-twitch fibers prefer?

Aerobic respiration

165

What does troponin bind to and what happens when it binds?

Ca+, tropomyosin shifts

166

Spasm

Sudden, involuntary muscular contraction

167

Myalgia

Achy muscles

168

Tendinitis

Inflamed tendon, painful joint movement

169

Strain

Overstretching of a muscle near a joint

170

If you lock your knees while standing you may pass out because of the lack of venous return to the heart.

True

171

ATP

Produced during cellular respiration

172

Myoglobin

Stores oxygen in muscle fibers

173

Creatine phosphate

Used to regenerate ATP from ADP

174

Fermentation

Results in the buildup of lactate and results in an oxygen deficit

175

Fermentation, creatine phosphate

Anaerobic source of energy

176

Which disease is an autoimmune disease characterized by weakness that especially affects the muscles of the eyelids, face, neck, and extremities?

Myasthenia gravis

177

A whole muscle is divided into bundles of muscle fibers called ______, each of which is surrounded by a layer of connective tissue.

Fascicles

178

Which of the following does not occur when a muscle fatigues?
• Tetanus is chieved
• Stimulation continues
• The muscle relaxes
• Acetylcholine is crossing the synaptic cleft
• Its energy reserves are depleted

Tetanus is achieved

179

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal muscles?
• Protection of internal organs
• Movement of bones
• Support
• Maintenance of body temperature
• Pumping of blood throughout the body

Pumping of blood throughout the body

180

Which of the following is not a source of ATP for muscle contraction?
• Fermentation
• ATP in the blood
• ATP stored in the cell
• The creatine phosphate pathway
• Aerobic respiration

ATP in the blood

181

Of the three types of muscle tissue, which has multinucleated fibers?

Skeletal muscle

182

What is the resevoir for Ca2+ in the body?

Bones

183

Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles, usually due to overuse.

False

184

One motor unit obeys a principle calle dthe all-or-none law.

True

185

Why are slow-twitch muscles dark?

They contain myoglobin

186

When a muscle contracts, the H zone almost disappears.

True

187

The contractile unit of a myofibril is the

Sacromere

188

______ refers to a group of inherited disorders characterized by a progressive degeneration and weakening of muscles.

Muscular dystrophy

189

Which conducts an action potential faster and why?

Myelinated fibers; the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another

190

The central nervous system is protected by

Bone

191

Which of the following is not a type of neuron?
• Afferent
• Neuroglia
• Sensory
• Motor
• Interneuron

Neuroglia

192

Which of the following drugs is classified as a hallucinogen?
• Caffeine
• Alcohol
• Marijuana
• Nicotine

Marijuana

193

Which of the following components of a neuron transmits signals away from the cell body?
• Synaptic cleft
• Axon
• Dendrite
• Synovial joint

Axon

194

Depolarization of the neuron occurs when

Sodium gates open and sodium moves inside the cell

195

Which of the following is associated with the PNS but not the CNS?
• Myelin sheath
• Node of Ranvier
• Axon
• Dendrite
• Schwann cells

Schwann cells

196

Which of the following is not a neurotransmitter?
• Serotonin
• ATP
• GABA
• Glutamate
• Acetylcholine

ATP

197

Heavy use of which drug can lead to hallucinations, anxiety, depression, paranoia, and psychotic symptoms?

Marijuana

198

Which drug is in the same category as nicotine?

Cocaine

199

The drug ______ in tobacco products causes neurons to release dopamine, which reinforces dependence on this drug. Occasional ______ users experience euphoria, alterations in vision and judgment, and distortions of space and time. Heavy use of ______ often leads to liver damage.

Nicotine, marijuana, alcohol

200

When a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft, the response of the receiving neuron will be toward excitation.

False

201

Long term use of heroin results in which set of symptoms?

Addiction, hepatitis, HIV/AIDS, various bacterial infections

202

The white matter of the spinal cord surrounds the grey matter.

True

203

Rapid conduction of a nerve impulse in vertebrates is because of

Openings in the myelin sheath

204

Which of the following is not a type of proprioceptor?
• Muscle spindles
• Nociceptors
• Golgi tendon organs

Nociceptors

205

Which disorder of the eye is due to the cornea or lens being uneven resulting in a fuzzy image?

Astigmatism

206

Nociceptors are a type of chemoreceptor

True

207

Sensory adaption is a form of integration and involves the summing of input signals.

True

208

What do nociceptors detect?

Stimuli of pain

209

The senses of taste and smell work because specific ______ in the organs of taste and smell combine with ______ in the air or food. Both senses thus employ ______ to detect changes in the environment.

Protein receptors; chemicals (molecules); chemoreceptors

210

Sensation is the conscious perception of stimuli.

True

211

The type of taste called umami allows us to enjoy what type of flavor?

Savory

212

Which of the following are mechanoreceptors involved in reflex actions and serve to maintain muscle tone?

• Nociceptors
• Proprioceptors
• Meissner corpuscles
• Ruffini endings

213

If the nerves between the eyes and the ears were switched, stimulation of the mechanoreceptors in the ear would result in

Seeing lights

214

The lens is involved in focusing visual information on the retina.

True

215

All sensory receptors initiate nerve signals.

True

216

Which structure in the eye refracts and focuses light rays?

Lens

217

Which layer of the eye contains an extensive blood supply?

Choroid

218

The blind spot is

On the retina, where there are no rods or cones

219

Which of the following is a genetic mutation that affects males more than females?

Red green color blindness

220

Nociceptors respond to the sense of pain.

True

221

Steroid hormones

Activate genes leading to protein synthesis

222

Describe the characteristics of individuals with type 2 diabetes

• Overweight/obese
• Genetic; occurs in families
• More common in African Americans
• Adipose tissue secretes a substance that prohibits insulin receptors from working correctly, thus sugar is not removed from the blood stream

223

Overproduction of growth hormone may result in a condition termed acromegaly

True

224

Which of the following is a feature of an endocrine gland?

Secretes a hormone directly into the bloodstream

225

Endocrine glands secrete their products directly into the bloodstream while exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts.

True

226

Through the action of neurotransmitters, the nervous system responds rapidly to external stimuli. In contrast, the dependence upon hormones within the endocrine system results in a slower response to stimuli.

True

227

Which of the following secretes erythropoietin?

Kidney

228

______ is secreted when blood glucose is high and ______ is/are secreted when blood glucose is low.

Insulin; glucagon

229

Peptide hormones

Bind to a receptor in the plasma membrane

230

In which case is insulin not produced?

Type 1 diabetes

231

The secretion of which hormones qualifies the pancreas as an endocrine gland?

Insulin and glucagon

232

The cramping associated with premenstrual syndrome is often due to norepinephrine.

False

233

Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

Dudodenum

234

The effects initiated by the endocrine system are longer lasting than those of the nervous system.

True

235

How are type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus similar?

The blood glucose levels are very high in both

236

Which of the following is not part of the male reproductive system?
• Testes
• Bladder
• Prostrate gland
• Urethra
• Epididymides

Bladder

237

If fertilization occurs, the progesterone levels fall to almost zero.

False

238

During IVF, where does conception occur?

In the laboratory

239

All of the body systems in humans are the same in males and females.

False

240

How much does the uterus stretch in order to accommodate a growing fetus?

6 times normal

241

The oviducts are not attached to the ovaries.

True

242

What is the function of inhibin?

It inhibits the secretion of GnRH

243

Which STD is characterized by a foul-smelling, yellow-green frothy discharge and itching of the V?

Trichomoniasis

244

The development of a hard chancre (an ulcerated sore with hard edges) is indication of what type of STD?

Syphilis

245

All of the following are viral infections except
• Chlamydia
• Hepatitis
• Warts
• HIV/AIDS
• Herpes

Clamydia

246

How many chromosomes does a S have?

23

247

What causes G warts?

Virus

248

During which stage of the ovarian cycle will LH spike?

Ovulation

249

What structure is present within a follicle?

An oocyte

250

Which of the following are not found in the testes?
• Spermatoza
• Steroli cells
• Seminiferous tubules
• Interstitial cells
• Follicle

Follicle

251

Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?
• HIV/AIDS
• Gonorrhea
• Chlamydia
• Syphilis
• Vginitis

HIV/AIDS

252

What is the most frequent cause of infertility in males

Low S count

253

Which of these pairs is mismatched?
• Morphogenesis = organ systems present
• Differentiation = specialization of cells
• Growth = increase in size
• Cleavage = cell division

Morphogenesis = organ systems present

254

Depolarization of the egg membrane after fertilization prevents polyspermy.

True

255

As aging occurs, the skin becomes ______ and ______ elastic.

Thinner; less

256

Estrogen is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor.

False

257

The placenta is the course of estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy.

True

258

Which of the following skin changes is not associated with growing older?
• The number of elastic fibers decreases
• There is less adipose tissue in the subcutaneous layer
• There is an increase in the number of oil glands
• There are fewer sweat glands for sweating to occur
• Pigmented blotches appear on the skin

There is an increase in the number of oil glands

259

What structure produces progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy?

Placenta

260

At what point during development does the embryo form three germ layer?

When it forms the gastrula

261

______ is a progressive decline in bone density and occurs in both males and females.

Osteoporosis

262

Which hypothesis of aging involves mitochondria?
• Genetic in origin
• External factors
• Extrinsic factors
• Whole-body process
• Damage accumulation

Genetic in origin

263

During the process of fertilization,
• Many S release acrosome enzymes so that one S can enter the egg
• The acrosome on the egg attracts the S cell
• Several S enter the egg but only one fuses with its nucleus
• Two S enter the egg and both fuse with its nucleus

Many S release acrosome enzymes so that one S can enter the egg

264

The zygote begins to undergo cleavage in the

Oviduct

265

If a fetus contains an X and a T chromosome but a defective SRY gene, they will develop

Into a female because testosterone is not present

266

The first system in the body to become visibly differentiated during development is the

Nervous system

267

The yolk sac of the chick provides nutrients to the developing embryo. What structure serves the same role in humans?

Chorion

268

As a group, females live longer then males

True

269

The presence of the ______ chromosome determines whether the embryo will become male or female. At six weeks, a small bud appears between the legs of the embryo. It will develop into a ______ if it is a female and into a ______ if it is a male.

Y; C; P

270

Fertilization begins when S make contact with the ______, they release enzymes from the ______, and then one S can enter the egg. When the S nucleus fuses with the egg nucleus, ______ is complete.

Zona pellucida; acrosome; fertilization

271

The adhering follicular cells that surround the egg are called the

Corona radiata

272

The sex of an individual is determined at the moment of fertilization.

True

273

The placenta
• Develops after birth
• Takes blood to the developing fetus
• Allows exchanges of substances between the maternal and fetal blood
• Forms the umbilical cord

Allows exchanges of substances between maternal and fetal blood

274

When does the heart begin to develop?

3 weeks

275

Development ceases after birth.

False

276

IN a karyotype, chromosomes are paired up by examining the stained dark and light cross-bands of varying widths, chromosomal size, and chromosomal shape.

True

277

Which of the following is located where sister chromatids join?
• Spindle fibers
• Centromere
• Homologous chromosomes
• Centriole

Centromere

278

By the end of meiosis I,
• 4 daughter cells have been produced
• Each daughter nucleus is genetically identical to the original cell
• Crossing over has occurred
• Sister chromatids have separated

Crossing over has occurred

279

The appearance of siblings can vary greatly because of crossing over during

Prophase I

280

Which of the following is not a symptom of Down Syndrome?
• Short stature
• Stubby fingers
• Indeterminate genitalia
• Flat face
• Eyelid fold

Indeterminate genetalia

281

Sister chromatids carry the same genes

True

282

In animal cells, cytokinesis takes place by

A furrowing process

283

During anaphase of meiosis II, ______ separate.

Sister chromatids

284

The gender of a fetus can be determined by analysis of a karyotype.

True

285

If the parent cell has 24 chromosomes, and each of the daughter cells has 24 chromosomes, then the cell has undergone

Mitosis

286

Monosomy and trisomy are caused by which of the following?
• Nondisjunction
• Separation of sister chromatids
• Crossing over
• Fertilization

Nondisjunction

287

What is the term for the DNA and proteins found within the cell?

Chromatin

288

The nuclear division that reduces the chromosome number from the ______ number to the ______ number is called meiosis.

Diploid (2n); haploid (n)

289

What are the two parts of the cell cycle?

Interphase and cell division

290

During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes first become visible?

Prophase

291

In a transaction, all of the DNA is present, and there is only one copy of each piece.

True

292

All the products of oogenesis are equal in size and content.

False

293

Which of the following syndromes has a karyotype with a missing X chromosome?
• Jacob's syndrome
• Down syndrome
• Williams syndrome
• Turner syndrome
• Klinfelter syndrome

Turner syndrome

294

In a karyotype, the chromosomes are arranged in order from

Largest to smallest, with the sex chromosomes at the end

295

If a cell is to divide, DNA replication must occur during

Interphase

296

During which stage of mitosis do sister chromatids separate at their centromere?

Anaphase

297

Which stages comes directly after interphase?

Mitosis

298

In which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate from each other?

Anaphase I

299

The mitotic cell cycle produces four, generally-identical cells vs. the meiotic cell cycle produces two, genetically different cells.

False

300

Suppose that nondisjunction occurs during meiosis II in oogenesis, and each of the resulting 4 cells is fertilized with a normal S. How many cells are normal and how many have a chromosomal trisomy?

2, 1

301

Both parents appear to be normal but their child has cystic fibrosis. Using the letter A, what are the genotypes of the parents?

Aa

302

How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited?

Incompletely dominant

303

Which of the following would not be a way to list someone's genotype for a particular trait?
• Bb
• AA
• bb
• BB
• AB

AB

304

If 25% of the offspring of one set of parents show the recessive phenotype, the parents were probably

Both heterozygous

305

Which of the following represents a dihybrid cross?
• Abb x Aab
• AaBb x AaBb
• Gg x gg
• ff x ff
• Ss x ss

AaBb x AaBb

306

If a mother is a carrier for color-blindness and her husband is not, which of the following children are most likely?

1 normal daughter, 1 carrier daughter, 1 normal son, and 1 color-blind son

307

Which of the following is a dominant allele?
• a
• AA
• A
• ab
• Ab

A

308

While a locus refers to a unit of heredity, a gene refers to a specific position on a chromosome.

False

309

When you describe a person as having attached ear lobes, you are describing their genotype.

False

310

Can a woman with an X-linked recessive disorder have normal sons?

No

311

In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent, what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype?

0

312

Is it possible for a man with type O blood to be the father of a child with type A blood?

Yes

313

A male inherits his X-linked allele from his mother.

True

314

Two individuals with medium-brown skin color could have children who are both darker and lighter than they are.

True

315

Alleles
• Are alternate forms of a gene
• Have the same position on a pair of chromosomes
• Affect the same trait
• Are identical between siblings

• Are alternate forms of a gene
• Have the same position on a pair of chromosomes
• Affect the same trait

316

In a pedigree, an affected male would be designated by

A shaded square

317

A woman has genotype AABB for skin color. She reproduces with a man whose genotype is aabb. What are the genotypes of their offspring?

AaBb

318

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an autosomal dominant disorder pedigree?
• Affected children will usually have unaffected parents
• Both males and females are affected with equal frequency
• Heterozygotes are affected
• Two affected parents can produce an unaffected child
• Two unaffected parents will not have affected children

Affected children will usually have unaffected parents

319

A woman who is not color-blind but has an allele for color blindness reproduces with a man who has normal color vision. What is the change that they will have a color-blind daughter?

No chance

320

If an individual has the A blood type, how many different genotypes can they possess?

Two

321

Inheritance by multiple alleles is illustrated by the inheritance of

Blood type

322

What happens next after transcription of the DNA gene in the nucleus?

mRNA moved to the cytoplasm and becomes associated with a ribosome

323

Which of the following are found within the monomer unit of DNA?
• Fatty acids, sugars
• Phosphate, amino acids
• Amino acids, nitrogen base
• Phosphate, nitrogen base
• Nitrogen base, fatty acid

Phosphate, nitrogen base

324

Which of these is happening when translation takes place?
• All of these answer choices are correct
• mRNA is still in the nucleus
• DNA is being replicated
• tRNAs are bringing amino acids to the ribosomes
• tRNAs expose their anticodons

tRNAs are bringing amino acids to the ribosomes

325

Transcription
• Occurs at the ribosome
• Involves tRNA
• All of the answers are correct
• Involves DNA

Involves DNA

326

What form of RNA is responsible for making a copy of the DNA gene and carrying that from the nucleus to a ribosome located in the cytoplasm of the cell?

Messenger RNA (mRNA)

327

Which is NOT true of DNA?
• Polymer of nucleotides
• Occurs in nucleus
• Has a varied sequence of just three bases
• Contains deoxyribose

Has a varied sequence of just three bases

328

Which of the following occurs during initiation of translation?
• The polypeptide lengthens one amino acid at a time
• The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits
• One of the three stop codons is reached
• The ribosome moves down one codon so that the A site is available to receive an incoming tRNA

The mRNA binds to the smaller of the two ribosomal subunits

329

Protein synthesis takes place in the

Cytoplasm, where mRNA codons pair with tRNA anticodons

330

Which of these pairs is NOT a correct statement of the differences between DNA and RNA?
• DNA is double-stranded; RNA is single-stranded
• DNA bases are A, T, C, and G; RNA bases are A, U, C, G
• DNA is found only in the nucleus; RNA is found only in the cytoplasm
• DNA is the genetc material; RNA is a helper of DNA

DNA is found only in the nucleus; RNA is found only in the cytoplasm

331

Check all of the correct statements that apply to RNA
• tRNA brings amino acids to ribosomes
• mRNA leaves the nucleus with a copy of the genetic information and carries it to the ribosome
• mRNA can be transcribed in the opposite direction and used to repair damaged DNA
• RNA is single-stranded and contains ribose

• tRNA brings amino acids to ribosomes
• mRNA leaves the nucleus with a copy of the genetic information and carries it to the ribosome
• RNA is single-stranded and contains ribose

332

To transcribe something is to make an identical copy, i.e., if the original is DNA, the transcribed copy is also DNA

False

333

Both DNA and RNA are
• Transcribed
• Translated
• Found in the cytoplasm
• Found in the nucleus
• Considered the genetic material of the cell

Found in the nucleus

334

How much of your DNA is identical to the person who sits next to you in biology class?

99.9%

335

More than 50% of the entire human genome codes for functional proteins.

False

336

The denaturation of which enzyme would lead to incorrect base pairing of nucleotides during DNA replication?

DNA polymerase

337

Replication is considered

Semiconservative

338

The human genome
• Contains only about 30,000 genes
• Will probably be completely sequenced in 50 years
• Is known only to government employees because it is top secret
• Has no usefulness to humans

Contains only about 30,000 genes

339

Exons in mRNAs are excised and left in the nucleus.

False

340

Which of the following functions of a herbivore provides energy that becomes available to the carnivore that eats the herbivore?
• Cellular respiration
• Defecation
• Death
• Growth and reproduction
• Excretion

Growth and reproduction

341

In the nitrogen cycle, N2 from the atmosphere is converted to ______, the form plants can use; this process if called ______.

Ammonium (NH4+); nitrogen fixation

342

What organism would be at the second level in a detrital food chain?
• Shrews
• Birds
• Earthworms
• Leaves
• Detritus

Earthworms

343

Select the statement that best describes the relationship between energy flow and nutrient cycling:
• Chemicals and energy pass through an ecosystem in a one-way direction
• Energy flows through an ecosystem while chemicals cycle continuously
• Both energy and chemicals cycle through an ecosystem
• It depends on which chemical and what form of energy as to what path is taken

Energy flows through an ecosystem while chemicals cycle continuously

344

How is the nitrogen cycle like the carbon cycle?

Both are gaseous cycles

345

How does phosphate enter the soil?

Weathering of rocks

346

Hail and snow are examples of

Precipitation

347

From the North Pole south, what is the first type of ecosystem encountered?

Tundra

348

To say that something is a producer is to give information regarding its niche in an ecosystem.

True

349

Which of the following is associated with groundwater mining?
• Ocean
• Runoff
• Groundwater table
• Standing water (lakes and ponds)
• Aquifers

Aquifers

350

Which of the following contribute(s) to the carbon cycle?
• Respiration
• All of the answer choices are correct
• Fossil fuel combustion
• Photosynthesis

All of the answers are correct

351

The global climate has already warmed about 0.6 degrees Celsius since the Industrial Revolution.

True

352

Cultural eutrophication can be caused by

Detergents, fertilizers, and sewage treatment plants

353

The atmosphere would be considered what component of a chemical cycle?

Exchange pool

354

There are no reervoirs of carbon for the carbon cycle.

False

355

There is more nitrogen gas in the atmosphere than there is oxygen.

True

356

If the first-level carnivores consume 500 kg of energy from herbivore tissue, how much is available to the second-level carnivores?

50 kg

357

About ______ of the energy available at a particular trophic level is incorporated into the tissues at the next trophic level.

10%

358

How is carbon dioxide used by living organisms?

By photosynthesis

359

What kind of organism is an earthworm?

Detritus feeder

360

Reducing your personal meat consumption would be beneficial to the environment.

True

361

What are the characteristics of a sustainable society?

• Provides the same amount of goods and services in the future as it does now
• Adequate food and living space
• Resources cannot be depleted

362

Which of the following is a renewable resource?
• Water
• Land
• Minerals
• Fossil fuel

Water

363

How much of Earth's land mass is already desert?

40%

364

What proportion of the world's population lives within 100 kilometers of a coastline?

40%

365

Which of these is NOT a direct value of biodiversity for humans?
• Consumptive use value
• Medicinal value
• Agricultural value
• Waste disposal

Waste disposal

366

Select the practice that will NOT contribute to sustainability in urban areas:
• Recycling of business equipment
• Plant bluegrass lawns rather than native grasses
• Greenbelts and green roofs
• Efficient public transportation

Plant bluegrass rather than native grasses

367

Which of the following is not an unsustainable practice of society?
• Deforestation and desertification
• Using more freshwater for agriculture than in homes
• Eating more meat than vegetables
• Reduction in population growth rate
• Using large amounts of fossil fuels, fertilizers, and pesticides

Reduction in population growth rate

368

Fish are considered a nonrenewable resource

False

369

Why should pregnant women and small children not eat certain fish?

Mercury contamination

370

What do indirect values of biodiversity all have in common?

They are all pervasive benefits provided by ecosystems

371

What is the definition of biotic potential?

Maximum growth rate under ideal conditions

372

The age structure diagram of MDCs is shaped like

A rectangle

373

Define an ecological footprint

The total amount of resources used by an individual to meet their needs

374

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a sustainable society?
• Integrated pest management
• Draining of wetlands for housing
• Multi-use farming
• Mass transit
• Recycling and composting

Draining of wetlands for housing

375

Which is NOT a characteristic of less-developed countries?
• Poor standard of living
• Located mainly in Asia, Africa, and Latin America
• Slow population growth
• Natural resource depletion

Slow population growth

376

What does the population growth for the United States look like?

Increasing

377

Birthrate and death rate are usually expressed as percentages (per 100 people).

False

378

Which of the following statements about the indirect value of trees is not true?
• They retain soil and prevent erosion
• They provide shade and reduce the need for fans and air conditioning
• In forests, they exert a natural "sponge effect" for provision of freshwater
• Globally, they stabilize the climate because they take up carbon dioxide
• They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes

They break down dead organic matter and other types of wastes

379

Development of rain forests for human habitation leads to:

• Loss of habitation
• Resource depletion
• Deforestation