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CH10 FLT INSTRUMENT, DISPLAYS Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Primary Flight Display (PFD) indicate for airspeed?

A

Displays air data reference system (ADRS) airspeed information and other airspeed related information.

This includes current airspeed and Mach number indications.

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2
Q

Which system’s attitude information is displayed on the PFD?

A

Inertial Reference System (IRS) attitude information.

This is critical for pilots to understand the aircraft’s orientation.

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3
Q

What does the PFD display regarding Autopilot and Flight Director System Status?

A

Refer to PFD and HUD Flight Mode Annunciations (FMAs) in Chapter 4, Section 10 for additional information.

This section provides details on the current operational mode of the autopilot.

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4
Q

What altitude information is displayed on the PFD?

A

Displays ADRS altitude and other altitude-related information.

This includes current altitude and altitude trends.

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5
Q

What does the PFD show for vertical speed?

A

Displays ADRS vertical speed and other vertical speed information.

This helps pilots monitor climb and descent rates.

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6
Q

What information is displayed on the mini-map of the PFD?

A

Displays current IRS heading, track, and other heading information.

The mini-map is useful for situational awareness.

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7
Q

What additional information does the mini-map on the PFD show?

A

Displays the flight plan with associated information.

Refer to ND Symbology in Chapter 10, Section 40 for more details.

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8
Q

Fill in the blank: The PFD displays _____ altitude-related information.

A

ADRS

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9
Q

True or False: The PFD does not include any airspeed information.

A

False

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10
Q

What does the PFD provide regarding flight plan information?

A

Displays the flight plan with associated information.

This aids in navigation and situational awareness.

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11
Q

What does the PFD airspeed indication display when the MCP IAS/MACH window is blank?

A

The FMC computed airspeed/Mach

This information is crucial for pilots to understand the aircraft’s performance in various flight conditions.

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12
Q

What does the speed trend vector indicate?

A

Predicted airspeed in ten seconds based on current acceleration or deceleration

This helps pilots anticipate changes in airspeed due to current flight dynamics.

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13
Q

What is indicated by the box around the current airspeed indication when it turns amber?

A

Airspeed is below minimum manoeuvring speed

This alert is critical for maintaining safe flight operations.

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14
Q

What does the current Mach display show?

A

Current ADRS Mach

This information is essential for high-speed flight operations.

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15
Q

What does the bottom of the maximum speed bar indicate?

A

Maximum airspeed limited by the lowest of:
* VMO/MMO
* Landing gear placard speed
* Flap placard speed

Understanding these limits is vital for safe operation and compliance with aircraft performance specifications.

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16
Q

What does the bottom of the amber bar indicate?

A

Maximum manoeuvring speed

This speed provides 1.3 g manoeuvre capability to high speed buffet for alternative approved manoeuvre capability as preset by maintenance.

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17
Q

At what bank angle does 1.3 g manoeuvre capability occur in level flight?

A

40°

This is an important consideration for pilots when performing maneuvers.

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18
Q

Fill in the blank: The selected speed bug is displayed in the _______.

A

MCP IAS/MACH window

This feature allows pilots to set and monitor their desired flight speed.

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19
Q

What does the Selected Speed Bug indicate in the PFD?

A

Points to the airspeed/Mach selected in the MCP IAS/MACH window

It also points to FMC computed airspeed when the MCP IAS/MACH window is blank.

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20
Q

What is the height of the Selected Speed Bug?

A

Five knots

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21
Q

What happens to the Selected Speed Bug when the selected speed is off scale?

A

The bug is parked at the top or bottom of the tape, with only one half the bug visible

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22
Q

What are the reference speeds indicated on the PFD?

A

V1, VR, and several airspeeds listed in knots

Specific values include 160, 140, 123, 240, 220, 200, and 100.

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23
Q

What does the PFD show when the MCP IAS/MACH window is blank?

A

FMC computed airspeed

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24
Q

Fill in the blank: The bug is _______ in height.

A

five knots

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25
True or False: The Selected Speed Bug is visible when the selected speed is off scale.
False
26
What speeds are displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) for takeoff?
V1, VR, V2 ## Footnote V1 is the decision speed, VR is the rotation speed, and V2 is the takeoff safety speed.
27
What happens to V1 and VR at lift-off?
They are removed from the display ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft has taken off and is no longer referencing these speeds.
28
Under what conditions is V2 removed from the display after takeoff?
When flap retraction begins, after 10 minutes without flap lever movement, or after VREF has been selected ## Footnote VREF is the reference landing speed for a turn-back.
29
What is indicated by the VNAV Speed Band?
Speed range for VNAV path (VNAV PTH) ## Footnote The VNAV Speed Band shows the upper and lower limits for VNAV operations.
30
What is the upper limit of the VNAV Speed Band?
Speed at which VNAV changes from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD ## Footnote This transition indicates a change in the flight mode for speed management.
31
What is the lower limit of the VNAV Speed Band?
Speed at which autothrottle adds thrust above FMC computed descent thrust ## Footnote This is critical for maintaining the desired descent profile.
32
What does the flap manoeuvring speed indicate?
Flap retraction or extension speed ## Footnote This speed is important for safe operations during flap changes.
33
At what altitude is the flap manoeuvring speed not displayed?
Above approximately 20,000 feet altitude ## Footnote This helps reduce clutter on the display at higher altitudes.
34
When is a flap manoeuvring speed not shown relative to VREF?
If within 4 knots of VREF ## Footnote This is to prevent unnecessary information overload on the display.
35
What happens if V speeds are not selected on the CDU?
NO VSPD is displayed ## Footnote The CDU (Control Display Unit) must have the speeds selected for them to appear on the PFD.
36
What is Vl in the context of the takeoff reference speeds?
Displayed at the top of the airspeed indication when selected and if the value is off the scale ## Footnote Vl is the minimum control speed in the air.
37
What does the Landing Reference Speed display on the PFD?
Displays the VREF speed as selected on the CDU ## Footnote Refer to Approach Reference Page in Chapter 11, Section 43 for additional information.
38
What is indicated when the VREF speed is off the scale?
Displayed at the bottom of the airspeed indication
39
What does the top of the amber bar on the PFD indicate?
Minimum manoeuvring speed
40
What is the minimum manoeuvring speed capable of providing below approximately 20,000 ft?
1.3 g manoeuvre capability to stick shaker
41
What is the minimum manoeuvring speed capable of providing above approximately 20,000 ft?
1.3 g manoeuvre capability to low speed buffet or an alternative approved manoeuvre capability as preset by maintenance
42
When is the minimum speed displayed on the PFD?
Indicates the airspeed where stick shaker activates
43
What does the Landing Flap and VREF Speed indicate?
Displays landing flap position and landing reference speed
44
What is the significance of 1.3 g manoeuvre capability in level flight?
Occurs at 40° of bank
45
Fill in the blank: The PFD displays the VREF speed as selected on the _______.
[CDU]
46
What does the bank pointer indicate?
Bank angle in reference to the bank angle scale and direction toward wings level ## Footnote The bank pointer fills and turns amber if bank angle is 35° or more.
47
What is the function of the slip/skid indication?
Displaces beneath the bank pointer to indicate slip or skid ## Footnote It fills white at full scale deflection and turns amber if bank angle is 35° or more.
48
What does the pitch limit indication represent?
Pitch limit (stick shaker activation point for the existing flight conditions) ## Footnote Limited to a maximum of +30 degrees and displayed when the flaps are not up or at slow speeds with the flaps up.
49
What does the horizon line and pitch scale indicate?
The IRS horizon relative to the airplane symbol ## Footnote The pitch scale is in 2.5° increments.
50
What is the bank scale used for?
Fixed reference for the bank pointer ## Footnote Scale marks are at 0°, 10°, 20°, 30°, 45°, and 60°.
51
What does the airplane symbol indicate?
Airplane attitude with reference to the IRS horizon
52
What does the Flight Director Pitch and Roll Bars indicate?
Indicates flight director pitch and roll steering commands ## Footnote Refer to Autopilot Flight Director Roll and Pitch Controls in Chapter 4, Section 10, for additional information.
53
What does the Flight Path Vector (FPV) display?
Displays Flight Path Angle (FPA) and drift angle ## Footnote FPV is displayed if FPV is selected on the EFIS control panel or FPA is selected on the MCP.
54
How is the Flight Path Angle (FPA) displayed?
Displayed relative to the horizon line.
55
What does the drift angle represent in the Flight Path Vector (FPV)?
Perpendicular distance from the centerline of the pitch scale to the FPV symbol.
56
What does the Selected Flight Path Angle (FPA) indicate?
Indicates the selected flight path angle when FPA is selected on the MCP.
57
When is the Horizon Line Heading Scale displayed?
Displayed when: * FPV is selected on the EFIS control panel * FPA is selected on the MCP * Current bank angle is less than 50° * Absolute pitch angle is less than 20°
58
What does a magenta bug on the Horizon Line Heading Scale reflect?
Reflects the MCP selected heading/track value.
59
Fill in the blank: The Flight Path Vector (FPV) is selected on the _______ control panel.
[EFIS]
60
True or False: The Flight Path Angle (FPA) can be displayed without selecting it on the MCP.
False
61
What does the Primary Flight Display (PFD) show for radio altitude below 2,500 feet AGL?
Displays radio altitude below 2,500 feet AGL ## Footnote The display box is highlighted in white for 10 seconds when passing below 2,500 feet.
62
What color does the PFD display turn when below radio altitude minimums?
Amber ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is below the minimum radio altitude.
63
When are Rising Runway indications displayed on the PFD?
Displayed below 2,500 feet altitude when the localizer pointer is in view for both front and back courses ## Footnote The rising runway symbol moves toward the airplane symbol below 200 feet radio altitude.
64
What happens to the stem of the rising runway symbol when localizer deviations occur?
Flashes ## Footnote The stem flashes when localizer deviations cause the diamond to flash.
65
What does ANP stand for?
Actual Navigation Performance
66
What does RNP stand for?
Required Navigation Performance
67
Under what conditions are PFD Navigation Performance Indications displayed?
When LNAV is armed or active, VNAV is active, or TO/GA roll mode is active
68
True or False: PFD Navigation Performance Indications are displayed when only VNAV is active.
False
69
Fill in the blank: PFD Navigation Performance Indications are shown when _______ is armed or active.
[LNAV]
70
What mode must be active for PFD Navigation Performance Indications to be displayed alongside LNAV?
VNAV
71
Which mode indicates a roll mode for takeoff or go-around?
TO/GA roll mode
72
List the three conditions that trigger PFD Navigation Performance Indications.
* LNAV is armed or active * VNAV is active * TO/GA roll mode is active
73
What does the PFD stand for?
Primary Flight Display
74
What does the Navigation Performance Scale (NPS) Deviation Pointer indicate?
Indicates the navigation path relative to the airplane position
75
What does an unfilled magenta triangle on the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate?
Parked at deflection limit
76
What does a filled magenta triangle on the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate?
Not parked at deflection limit
77
When is the NPS Deviation Pointer displayed on the vertical deviation scale?
Only in descent phase of flight
78
What happens to the NPS Deviation Pointer if it migrates into the bar area for five seconds?
Flashes for ten seconds
79
What do the outer white tic marks on the lateral and vertical scales represent?
RNP
80
What does the center white tic mark represent on the deviation scales?
Airplane position
81
What does the part of the bar extending from an outer tic mark toward the center tic mark represent?
ANP
82
What happens to the bars if the ANP value increases?
Bars become longer, extending toward the center white tic mark
83
True or False: The deviation bars show on the vertical scale during any phase of flight.
False
84
The area between the deviation bars indicates _______.
Margin available to remain within RNP criteria
85
What is the initial state of the NPS Deviation Pointer when parked at deflection limit?
Filled
86
What is the significance of the margin available between bars on the deviation scales?
Indicates the available margin to remain within RNP criteria
87
What happens if ANP equals or exceeds RNP?
The white bars meet in the middle ## Footnote This indicates that the navigation performance is being met.
88
What indicates that RNP operations can no longer be maintained after ANP exceeds RNP?
The bars and scale turn amber ## Footnote This occurs after 5 seconds of exceeding the RNP.
89
What message is displayed when RNP operations cannot be maintained?
NAV UNABLE RNP EICAS message ## Footnote This message is displayed on the lateral scale only.
90
What occurs if the pointer migrates into the bar area for more than 5 seconds?
Scale and ANP bars turn amber and pointer flashes for 10 seconds ## Footnote This indicates a potential navigation performance issue.
91
What does PFD stand for?
Primary Flight Display ## Footnote It is crucial for displaying flight information to the pilots.
92
In the context of PFD, what does ILS stand for?
Instrument Landing System ## Footnote ILS is used for guiding aircraft during approach and landing.
93
Fill in the blank: If the ANP pointer is in the bar area for more than 5 seconds, the pointer will _______ for 10 seconds.
flash
94
True or False: The scale turns amber immediately when ANP exceeds RNP.
False ## Footnote The scale turns amber after 5 seconds of exceeding RNP.
95
What are the visual indications on the PFD when RNP operations can no longer be maintained?
Bars and scale turn amber ## Footnote This serves as a warning to the pilots.
96
List the components mentioned in the PFD navigation performance indications.
* ANP bars * Lateral scale * NAV UNABLE RNP message
97
What information is displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) regarding the Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
Selected ILS/GLS identifier or frequency, approach front course, ILS/GLS DME distance, navigation source annunciation ## Footnote The navigation source annunciation is independent of the approach data.
98
What does the navigation source annunciation identify?
Source of navigation performance for the deviation scales ## Footnote The annunciation is displayed on the third line of the PFD.
99
List the possible combinations for source annunciation on the PFD.
* NPS * ILS Localizer * GLS Localizer * ILS Glideslope * GLS Glideslope * FMC * GPS/FMC ## Footnote Each source indicates different navigation systems being utilized.
100
Under what conditions does ILS/GLS approach reference data appear on the PFD?
When an appropriate approach has been selected to the active route and either: * Manually tuned * Auto-tuned and the airplane is * < 150 NM from the destination airport * < 50 NM from Top of Descent * FMC is in descent mode ## Footnote This ensures that the aircraft is in the correct phase of flight for approach.
101
True or False: If the tuned ILS/GLS frequencies disagree, the frequency will turn amber.
True ## Footnote An amber horizontal line will also appear through the frequency.
102
What happens if the approach courses in the ILS/GLS receivers disagree?
The course turns amber with an amber horizontal line through it ## Footnote This indicates a discrepancy that needs to be resolved.
103
What does the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate?
Indicates the navigation path relative to the airplane position
104
What is indicated by the localizer pointer when NPS are shown?
Unfilled white diamond for LOC
105
What is indicated by the localizer pointer when NPS are not shown?
Unfilled magenta diamond for LOC
106
When does the localizer pointer become filled magenta?
When within 2 1/2 dots from the center
107
When is the localizer scale in view?
After the frequency is tuned if NPS are not shown
108
What happens to the scale at low radio altitudes with autopilot engaged?
Turns amber and the pointer flashes to indicate excessive localizer deviation
109
What does the marker beacon indication show when over a marker beacon transmitter?
Flashing indication
110
What does 'IM' stand for in marker beacon indication?
Inner Marker
111
What does 'MM' stand for in marker beacon indication?
Middle Marker
112
What does 'OM' stand for in marker beacon indication?
Outer Marker
113
How does the glideslope pointer appear when NPS are shown?
Unfilled white diamond for glideslope
114
How does the glideslope pointer appear when PS are not shown?
Unfilled magenta diamond for glideslope
115
Fill in the blank: The pointer indicates the ______ relative to the airplane position.
glideslope
116
What does the glideslope pointer indicate?
The glideslope relative to the airplane position ## Footnote The pointer can show different symbols based on whether NPS are shown.
117
What does an unfilled white diamond represent on the glideslope pointer?
Glideslope if NPS are shown ## Footnote Indicates the airplane's position relative to the glideslope.
118
What does an unfilled magenta diamond indicate on the glideslope pointer?
Glideslope if NPS are not shown ## Footnote This symbol appears when the glideslope signal is received.
119
When does the glideslope pointer become filled magenta?
When within 2 1/2 dots from the center ## Footnote Indicates proximity to the ideal glideslope path.
120
What happens to the glideslope scale at low radio altitudes with autopilot engaged?
The scale turns amber and the pointer flashes ## Footnote Indicates excessive glideslope deviation.
121
What is displayed on the PFD when the autopilot or flight director is in LOC mode?
Expanded Localizer Scale ## Footnote This provides a more sensitive display when close to the runway center line.
122
In the expanded localizer scale, what does a rectangle represent?
1/2 dot deviation ## Footnote This helps pilots gauge their lateral position relative to the runway.
123
What remains in view until glideslope capture if either LNAV or VNAV is active?
NPS indications ## Footnote This is crucial for tracking the glideslope during descent.
124
True or False: The glideslope pointer is not in view unless the glideslope signal is received.
True ## Footnote Indicates that the pointer only appears when a valid signal is detected.
125
Fill in the blank: The scale is in view after the frequency is tuned if _______ are not shown.
PS ## Footnote PS refers to Primary System indications.
126
What does the approach reference data display include?
* Type of approach * Runway * Approach front course * Missed approach waypoint name * Distance to that waypoint * Source annunciation
127
What are the conditions for approach reference data to appear on the display?
* < 150 NM from the destination airport * < 50 NM from Top of Descent * FMC is in descent mode
128
True or False: The source annunciation on the PFD is dependent on the approach data.
False
129
What does the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate?
The navigation path relative to the airplane position.
130
What are the possible combinations for source annunciation in the Horizontal Scale?
* INPS * Final Approach Course * ILS Localizer * GLS Localizer
131
What are the possible combinations for source annunciation in the Vertical Scale?
* Glidepath
132
Fill in the blank: The approach reference data appears when the appropriate approach has been selected to the active route and the airplane is _______.
< 150 NM from the destination airport
133
What does the term 'FMC' stand for in this context?
Flight Management Computer
134
What is indicated when the source annunciation shows 'NPS'?
Navigation Performance Status
135
What does the term 'IAN' stand for?
Integrated Approach Navigation
136
What does the final approach course pointer indicate?
The final approach course relative to the airplane position ## Footnote It shows an unfilled white triangle for FAC if LNAV is active and an unfilled magenta triangle if LNAV is not active.
137
When is the final approach course pointer in view?
When < 25 NM from missed approach point and airplane position is within 60° of FAC ## Footnote The pointer becomes filled magenta when captured.
138
What are the additional features of the scale related to the final approach course?
Has additional tic marks at 1/2 RNP and appears with approach reference data if navigation performance scales are not shown ## Footnote Appears when capture occurs if either LNAV or VNAV is active, or LNAV is armed.
139
How do the deviation scales for final approach differ from ILS/GLS scales?
They are proportional to RNP and do not become more sensitive as ILS/GLS scales do ## Footnote With autopilot engaged or flight director on, the scale turns amber and the pointer flashes to indicate excessive final approach course deviation.
140
What does the glidepath pointer indicate?
Glidepath position relative to the airplane position ## Footnote It shows an unfilled white triangle if VNAV is active and an unfilled magenta triangle if VNAV is not active.
141
What does the glidepath pointer indicate?
Glidepath position relative to the airplane position ## Footnote The pointer shows whether the airplane is above, below, or on the glidepath.
142
What does an unfilled white triangle on the glidepath pointer signify?
VNAV is active ## Footnote VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation, indicating the system is in use.
143
What does an unfilled magenta triangle on the glidepath pointer signify?
VNAV is not active ## Footnote This indicates that vertical navigation is currently disabled.
144
Under what conditions is the glidepath pointer in view?
If: * < 6,000 feet above field elevation * < 25 NM from missed approach point * Airplane position is within 60° of FAC * Airplane track is within 90° of FAC ## Footnote FAC refers to Final Approach Course.
145
What indicates that the glidepath has been captured?
Filled magenta triangle ## Footnote This visual cue confirms that the aircraft is following the glidepath.
146
What additional features does the glidepath scale have?
Additional tic marks at 1/2 RNP ## Footnote RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.
147
When does the glidepath scale appear?
When: * Approach reference data is shown if navigation performance scales are not shown * Capture occurs if either LNAV or VNAV is active, or LNAV is armed ## Footnote LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation.
148
What happens to the glidepath scale when the autopilot is engaged or flight director is on?
Turns amber and the pointer flashes ## Footnote This indicates excessive glidepath deviation, requiring pilot attention.
149
What is the purpose of the Primary Flight Display (PFD)?
To provide integrated approach navigation indications ## Footnote The PFD consolidates critical flight data for easier pilot monitoring.
150
What does the Selected Altitude Bug indicate?
The altitude set in the MCP altitude window ## Footnote It is parked at the top or bottom of the tape when off scale, with only one half visible.
151
What does the Altitude Trend Vector indicate?
Expected altitude six seconds ahead based on current vertical speed
152
How is the Selected Altitude displayed when MTRS is selected?
In meters, displayed in 10 meter increments
153
What is the visual indication of the Selected Altitude box when approaching the selected altitude?
Highlighted in white between 900 feet and 200 feet prior to reaching the selected altitude
154
What does the Current Altitude indicate?
Current ADRS altitude
155
How is the Current Altitude displayed when MTRS is selected?
Displays altitude in meters
156
What color highlights the Current Altitude box when deviating beyond 200 feet from selected altitude?
Highlighted amber
157
When is the amber highlight removed from the Current Altitude box?
When deviation continues beyond 900 feet
158
Fill in the blank: The Selected Altitude is displayed in _______ when selected in the MCP altitude window.
[feet]
159
What does the Landing Altitude Reference Bar indicate?
The height above touchdown ## Footnote White bar indicates 500 to 1,000 feet above landing altitude; amber bar indicates 0 to 500 feet above landing altitude.
160
What does the BARO Minimums Pointer represent?
The minimum altitude as a triangular bug and line on the altitude scale ## Footnote Turns steady amber when the airplane descends below baro minimums.
161
What does the crosshatched area on the PFD indicate?
The FMC landing altitude for the destination runway or airport ## Footnote Indicates the landing altitude for the departure runway until 400 NM or one-half the distance to the destination.
162
What happens when the EFIS control panel MINS reference selector is set to BARO?
Displays BARO minimums ## Footnote Displays minimums in feet MSL.
163
What happens when the EFIS control panel MINS reference selector is set to RADIO?
Displays RADIO minimums ## Footnote Displays minimums in radio altitude feet AGL.
164
What indication occurs when the airplane descends below selected minimum altitude?
Turns amber and flashes for 3 seconds ## Footnote This applies to both BARO and RADIO minimums.
165
What are the two types of minimums displayed on the PFD?
* BARO minimums * RADIO minimums ## Footnote BARO minimums are in feet MSL and RADIO minimums are in feet AGL.
166
What does the PFD Barometric Setting indicate?
Indicates the barometric setting selected on the EFIS control panel barometric selector. ## Footnote STD is displayed when STD is selected.
167
What happens to the barometric display when altitude climbs above the transition altitude?
The display is boxed and changes to amber. ## Footnote This occurs if a barometric setting is set or if STD is set and altitude descends below the transition flight level.
168
What units can be displayed for the barometric setting reference?
* IN (inches of mercury) * HPA (Hectopascals) ## Footnote These are selected on the EFIS control panel barometric reference selector.
169
What does QFE altitude reference indicate?
Indicates QFE altitude reference selected on the CDU APPROACH REF page. ## Footnote QFE is boxed for 10 seconds when selected.
170
What visual cue indicates QFE operation on the altitude tape?
The altitude tape is shaded green. ## Footnote This shading is removed when QNH is selected.
171
How is QNH displayed after being selected?
Displayed for 10 seconds, then blanks. ## Footnote This occurs after the green shading is removed.
172
What does the Autopilot/Flight Director Barometric Source indicate?
Indicates whether the left or right EFIS control panel is the barometric setting reference. ## Footnote The same indication is displayed on both PFDs.
173
When is L or R indicated for the barometric source?
* F/D - one turned on and one not on determines L or R * F/D - both on - L is displayed * A/P - first one pushed on determines L or R ## Footnote These indications are displayed when the flight director switch is ON or the autopilot is engaged.
174
What is the purpose of the barometric setting in the PFD?
To indicate the atmospheric pressure for altitude calculations ## Footnote This setting is crucial for accurate altitude readings.
175
When is a barometric setting considered preselected?
When STD is displayed ## Footnote The preset setting is selected via the EFIS control panel.
176
What does the small QFE indication indicate when STD is selected?
It indicates that QFE is selected ## Footnote QFE represents the pressure setting for an airport.
177
What does the annunciation UL signify in the PFD?
It signifies that a barometric setting uplink is accepted ## Footnote This is shown to the left of the barometric preselect field.
178
Fill in the blank: The preset barometric setting is displayed below _______.
STD ## Footnote STD stands for standard pressure setting.
179
What does the PFD display when a barometric setting is preselected?
The preset barometric setting below STD ## Footnote This allows pilots to see the current setting easily.
180
True or False: The PFD can only display one type of barometric setting at a time.
True ## Footnote Only the selected or preselected pressure setting will be displayed.
181
What does the Vertical Speed Pointer indicate?
Indicates current vertical speed ## Footnote It shows the rate of climb or descent in feet per minute.
182
What does the Selected Vertical Speed Bug represent?
Indicates the speed selected in the MCP vertical speed window with the V/S pitch mode active ## Footnote MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.
183
When is vertical speed displayed?
Displays vertical speed when greater than 400 feet per minute ## Footnote This is relevant for both climbing and descending phases of flight.
184
Where is the display located when climbing versus descending?
Above when climbing and below when descending ## Footnote This helps pilots quickly assess vertical speed direction.
185
True or False: The selected track bug and selected heading bug are displayed at the same time on the PFD.
False ## Footnote Only one of these indications can be displayed at a time.
186
What does the Current Heading Pointer indicate?
Indicates current heading ## Footnote The Current Heading Pointer is a vital component of the Primary Flight Display (PFD).
187
Where is the Selected Track Bug displayed?
On the inside of the compass rose ## Footnote The Selected Track Bug helps pilots understand the selected track in relation to their current heading.
188
What happens if the selected track exceeds the display range?
The bug parks on the side of the compass rose in the direction of the shorter turn to the track ## Footnote This feature aids in navigation by indicating the direction to turn.
189
What does the Track Line indicate?
Indicates the current track ## Footnote The Track Line is crucial for pilots to follow their intended flight path.
190
What is displayed when HDG is selected on the MCP?
SEL HDG ## Footnote This indicates that the selected heading is being referenced.
191
What is displayed when TRK is selected on the MCP?
SEL TRK ## Footnote This indicates that the selected track is being referenced.
192
Where is the Selected Heading Bug displayed?
On the outside of the compass rose ## Footnote The Selected Heading Bug allows pilots to visualize their selected heading.
193
What occurs if the selected heading exceeds the display range?
The bug parks on the side of the compass rose in the direction of the shorter turn to the heading ## Footnote This feature simplifies navigation by showing the required turn direction.
194
What does the Heading/Track Reference display?
Displays the automatic or manually selected heading/track reference ## Footnote This can include MAG (magnetic north) or TRU (true north).
195
Fill in the blank: The Heading/Track Reference can be either _______ or _______.
MAG, TRU ## Footnote These references help pilots understand their orientation in relation to the earth's magnetic field or true north.
196
What mode is the PFD shown in for some display failures?
PFD Reversion Mode ## Footnote The PFD remains in the same relative position referenced to the airplane symbol center.
197
In PFD Reversion Mode, how is the PFD displayed?
The PFD with mini-map is cropped to fit within an MFD window ## Footnote This is one half of a Display Unit.
198
What happens to all PFD symbology in Reversion Mode?
All PFD symbology remains in the same relative position ## Footnote It is referenced to the airplane symbol center.
199
What is indicated by 'SPD' in the PFD?
Speed ## Footnote This is a key parameter displayed on the Primary Flight Display.
200
What does 'LNAV' stand for in the context of PFD?
Lateral Navigation ## Footnote LNAV is a mode that assists with lateral flight path management.
201
What does 'VNAV PTH' refer to?
Vertical Navigation Path ## Footnote VNAV helps manage vertical flight path during climbs and descents.
202
Fill in the blank: The PFD displays a ground speed reading labeled as _______.
GS ## Footnote GS represents the ground speed of the aircraft.
203
What does 'TAS' stand for in the PFD?
True Airspeed ## Footnote TAS is the speed of the aircraft relative to the air.
204
What does 'FMC' represent?
Flight Management Computer ## Footnote The FMC is used for flight planning and navigation.
205
What is the function of 'A/P' in the PFD?
Autopilot ## Footnote A/P is used to automate the control of the aircraft.
206
True or False: In PFD Reversion Mode, the display is unaffected by failures.
False ## Footnote The PFD is specifically shown in reversion mode due to display failures.
207
What altitude is indicated as '31000' in the PFD?
Flight Level 310 ## Footnote This indicates an altitude of 31,000 feet.
208
Fill in the blank: The PFD displays a standard altimeter setting labeled as _______.
STD ## Footnote STD indicates the standard atmospheric pressure setting.
209
What does PFD stand for?
Primary Flight Display
210
What are the conditions under which the AOA SPD message is displayed?
When the ADRS airspeed is not available or the on-side AIR DATA/ATT selector is in ALTN position
211
True or False: The Mach indication is displayed when the AOA SPD message is shown.
False
212
What does AOA SPD represent?
A backup airspeed based on AOA and inertial data
213
What happens to the baro setting display when the ADRS altitude is not valid?
It is not displayed
214
List two conditions that lead to the display of the ISFD SPD message.
* ADRS airspeed is not available * On-side AIR DATA/ATT selector is in ALTN position
215
Fill in the blank: GPS ALT derived altitude displays cannot be used to accurately maintain _______.
ATC assigned altitudes
216
What does the term 'ISFD ALT' refer to?
An altitude indication related to the ISFD
217
What is the implication of displaying AOA SPD in relation to amber band indications?
Upper and lower amber band indications are not displayed
218
What does the term 'ADRS' stand for in the context of flight displays?
Air Data Reference System
219
What is ISFD SPD?
A backup airspeed based on single source data from the center pitot air data module and the center static air data module ## Footnote Displayed if both the ADRS airspeed and AOA SPD are unavailable.
220
When is GPS ALT displayed?
Displayed when: * the ADRS altitude is not available * the on-side AIR DATA/ATT selector has been placed in the ALTN position ## Footnote GPS ALT is a backup altitude based on data from GPS L or GPS R.
221
What is ISFD ALT?
A backup altitude based on single source data from the center static air data module ## Footnote Displayed if both the ADRS altitude and GPS ALT are unavailable.
222
What do PFD failure flags indicate?
Indicate source system failure or lack of computed information ## Footnote PFD failure flags replace the appropriate display.
223
What does SEL SPD refer to?
Selected Speed ## Footnote Part of the flight instruments used to indicate the selected airspeed.
224
What is the function of Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?
Used to measure the distance to a VOR or other navigational aid ## Footnote Enhances navigation capabilities.
225
What does the term 'Flight Path Vector' refer to?
Represents the aircraft's intended flight path ## Footnote Essential for understanding trajectory and navigation.
226
Fill in the blank: PFD failure flags replace the appropriate display to indicate _______.
[source system failure] ## Footnote Indicates a lack of computed information.
227
What does SPD LIM stand for?
Speed Limit ## Footnote Indicates the maximum allowable speed for safe operations.
228
What is the significance of the Flight Director?
Guides the pilot to follow a specific flight path ## Footnote Essential for maintaining proper aircraft attitude and navigation.
229
True or False: ISFD SPD is displayed when ADRS airspeed is available.
False ## Footnote ISFD SPD is only displayed if both ADRS airspeed and AOA SPD are unavailable.
230
What does Glideslope / Glidepath indicate?
The vertical descent angle for landing ## Footnote Critical for approach and landing phases.
231
What does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) present?
A profile view of the airplane and its environment
232
Where is the VSD located on the Navigation Display (ND)?
On the bottom third of the ND
233
What type of information is shown within the cyan dashed lines on the ND?
Terrain, waypoint, and other information
234
In which mode can the VSD be displayed?
MAP mode
235
Fill in the blank: The VSD corridor is represented by _______ on the ND.
cyan dashed lines
236
What does the Navigation Display (ND) feature in the Vertical Situation Display (VSD)?
Indicates the area mapped by the VSD ## Footnote Displayed in cyan
237
What is the default mode of the VSD?
Track mode ## Footnote Dashed lines offset by 1 RNP from instantaneous track of airplane
238
What conditions automatically select Route mode on the VSD when the airplane is on the ground?
* An active flight plan has been entered * A departure runway has been selected * LNAV is armed ## Footnote The airplane must be on the ground
239
What conditions must be met for Route mode to be selected while the airplane is in the air?
* Airplane is in a path-based mode (LNAV, LOC, or FAC) * Lateral path deviation is less than RNP ## Footnote RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance
240
What does the Altitude Reference Scale display?
Altitude in reference to the vertical position of the airplane symbol, terrain, and other objects ## Footnote Shaded green during QFE operations
241
What does the airplane symbol on the VSD indicate?
Current airplane altitude and lateral position relative to terrain ## Footnote The bottom of the triangle indicates altitude, while the point indicates lateral position
242
What does the Horizontal Reference Scale display?
Range in nautical miles ## Footnote The scale is the full range selected on the EFIS control panel when the normal-display ND is used
243
In full-display ND mode, how is the Horizontal Reference Scale range calculated?
Twice the full range selected on the EFIS control panel ## Footnote Applies when using the full-display ND
244
What does the MCP Selected Altitude Readout display?
The altitude set in the MCP altitude window
245
What does the Active Vertical Path display?
The path that VNAV commands if active ## Footnote The VSD must be in route mode for the active vertical path to be displayed.
246
What indicates the selected altitude in the MCP?
Selected Altitude Bug and Line
247
What happens when the selected altitude is off scale?
The bug is parked at the top or bottom, with only one half the bug visible ## Footnote The dashed line does not park.
248
What do the BARO Minimums Bug and Line indicate?
The barometric minimums selected on the EFIS control panel
249
What color do the pointer and dashed line turn when the airplane descends below selected minimum altitude?
Amber
250
How can the BARO Minimums be reset?
With the RST switch on the EFIS control panel
251
What is displayed with any altitude constraint beneath the Waypoint ID?
Dashed vertical line depicts lateral position
252
During QFE operations, how are altitude constraints shown?
In parentheses below the QNH values
253
What does the FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line display?
Displayed for approaches that have a designated approach angle
254
How far does the dashed line of the FMC Approach Glidepath Angle extend?
10 NM for situational awareness
255
To what is the FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line anchored?
The missed approach waypoint, not the runway
256
What symbol is used to represent altitude constraints on the waypoint anchor line?
Triangle(s) ## Footnote The altitude constraint symbol is displayed as triangle(s) on the waypoint anchor line.
257
What does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) represent in flight instruments?
Flight path background ## Footnote The VSD provides a visual representation of the flight path background.
258
What does MCP stand for in the context of flight instruments?
Mode Control Panel ## Footnote The MCP is used to set various flight parameters, including vertical speed and flight path angle.
259
What does the dashed target angle line indicate when the MCP V/S mode is selected?
Selected vertical speed ## Footnote It displays the selected vertical speed as a dashed target angle line.
260
What does the dashed target angle line indicate when the MCP FPA mode is selected?
Flight path angle vector ## Footnote It displays the flight path angle vector as a dashed target angle line.
261
What does the Vertical Flight Path Vector indicate?
Current flight path angle ## Footnote It shows current flight path angle based on vertical speed and groundspeed.
262
How is the length of the Vertical Flight Path Vector determined?
Fixed at one half of the VSD range ## Footnote The length of the vector does not change and is fixed relative to the VSD range.
263
What does the Range to Target Speed Dot (RTSD) indicate?
Where the airplane will achieve the target speed ## Footnote It shows the position where the airplane will reach the FMC or MCP target speed.
264
When does the RTSD dot appear?
More than 5 knots above target speed ## Footnote The dot is blanked within 5 knots of the target speed.
265
What does the Range to Target Speed Dot (RTSD) indicate?
Indicates where the airplane will achieve the FMC or MCP target speed ## Footnote The dot is blanked within 5 knots of target speed, appears if more than 5 knots above target speed, and is placed at the end or edge of the vertical flight path vector line based on speed achievement.
266
When does the Range to Target Speed Dot appear?
Appears if more than 5 knots above target speed ## Footnote The dot is unfilled and placed at the end of the vertical flight path vector line if the speed will not be achieved in that distance.
267
What is the purpose of the 3° Reference Line?
Displayed for approaches that do not have a designated approach angle ## Footnote The dashed line extends 10 NM for situational awareness and is anchored to the runway threshold.
268
What do Decision Gates represent?
Displayed on the FMC approach glidepath angle line at 500 feet and 1,000 feet above field elevation ## Footnote They help in determining the aircraft’s position relative to the glidepath.
269
What does the Runway symbol represent on the display?
Represents the selected runway ## Footnote The runway length is scaled to the selected range.
270
Fill in the blank: The Range to Target Speed Dot is blanked within _______ of target speed.
5 knots
271
True or False: The 3° Reference Line may intersect terrain.
True
272
What is the altitude at which Decision Gates are displayed?
500 feet and 1,000 feet above field elevation
273
How far does the 3° Reference Line extend?
10 NM
274
What happens to the Range to Target Speed Dot if the speed will not be achieved within the display area?
It is unfilled and placed at the edge of the display along the vertical flight path vector line.
275
What does the Terrain Profile Line on the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) represent?
The highest terrain within the enroute corridor
276
How is the actual altitude separation between the airplane and terrain shown on the VSD?
By depicting terrain below and ahead of the airplane
277
What color indicates terrain that is more than 500 feet below the airplane on the VSD?
Green
278
What color indicates terrain ranging from 500 feet below to 2,000 feet above the airplane on the VSD?
Amber
279
What color indicates terrain that is more than 2,000 feet above the airplane on the VSD?
Red
280
At what range does the Airport Map automatically display if the airport is the ORIGIN or DESTINATION?
5 NM or less
281
What is the ICAO ID for the taxiway mentioned in the Airport Map Display?
TASSO
282
Fill in the blank: The Airport Map is integrated with the _______.
[Navigation Display (ND)]
283
True or False: The Airport Map Display shows construction areas.
True
284
What is the significance of the color coding used on the VSD?
It corresponds to the GPWS terrain depiction
285
What does the RADIO selection on the Minimums Reference Selector do?
Selects radio altitude as the PFD minimums reference ## Footnote PFD stands for Primary Flight Display.
286
What does the BARO selection on the Minimums Reference Selector do?
Selects barometric altitude as the PFD minimums reference
287
What function does the Minimums Selector (Middle) serve?
Adjusts the PFD radio or baro minimums altitude by rotating (slewing)
288
What happens when the Minimums Reset (MINS RST) Switch is pushed?
Resets the PFD minimums alert display and blanks the minimums display when green
289
What does the Flight Path Vector (FPV) Switch do when pushed?
Displays the PFD flight path vector
290
What does the Meters (MTRS) Switch do when pushed?
Displays PFD altitude meters indications
291
What does the Barometric Standard (BARO STD) Switch do when pushed?
Selects the standard barometric setting (29.92 inches Hg/1013 HPA) for the PFD barometric reference ## Footnote If STD is displayed, it selects the preselected barometric setting.
292
What is the function of the Barometric (BARO) Selector?
Adjusts the PFD barometric reference by rotating (slewing)
293
What does the ND Mode Selector (Outer) do?
Moves the highlight box to the desired ND map display or map information selection.
294
What are the key features of the MAP mode on the ND?
* Displays a moving, track-up route depiction * Displays FMC generated route and map information, airplane position, heading, and track * Displays waypoints, including the active waypoint, within the selected range * Displays VNAV path deviation
295
What are the characteristics of the PLAN mode on the ND?
* Displays a non-moving, true north-up, route depiction * Allows route step-through using the CDU legs page * Weather radar and TCAS are not displayed in PLAN mode
296
What function does the MENU option serve in the ND Mode Selector?
Rotate to move highlight between Map Information Selections.
297
What happens when the ND Mode Select Switch (Inner) is pushed?
Selects the highlighted key on the ND.
298
What do the map switches do?
* Displays selected detailed ND and mini-map data * Displays can be selected simultaneously * Second push removes the data
299
What information does the WXR (Weather Radar) display?
Displays weather radar information.
300
What does the TFC (Traffic) display show?
Displays TCAS information.
301
What does the TERR (Terrain) display show?
Displays terrain data ## Footnote Includes GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting Display and Annunciations.
302
What is the function of the ND Range Selector (Outer)?
Selects the desired ND nautical mile range scale ## Footnote Uses increment/decrement knob; range between 0.5nm to 1280nm.
303
How does the ND Range Selector adjust the range?
Rotating clockwise increases range; counter-clockwise decreases range.
304
What does the ND Center (CTR) Switch (Inner) do when pushed?
Displays the full compass rose for MAP mode ## Footnote Subsequent pushes alternate between expanded and centered displays.
305
What are the functions of the MAP / PLAN keys?
Used to access MAP and PLAN modes.
306
What is the range of nautical miles that can be selected on the ND Range Selector?
0.5nm to 1280nm.
307
Fill in the blank: The ND Center (CTR) Switch alternates between expanded and _______ displays.
centered
308
True or False: The ND Range Selector can only increase the range.
False
309
What does the MAP key provide access to?
Map menu.
310
What happens when the ND Center (CTR) Switch is pushed multiple times?
Alternates between expanded and centered displays.
311
What is the purpose of the GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting Display?
Provides alerts based on terrain data.
312
What does the MАP Key display when selected?
A moving, track-up route depiction ## Footnote Additional information includes FMC generated route and map information, airplane position, heading, track, waypoints, and VNAV path deviation.
313
What does the PLAN Key display when selected?
A non-moving, true north-up, route depiction ## Footnote This mode allows route step-through using the CDU legs page and does not display weather radar or TCAS.
314
What happens when the MENU Key is selected?
Displays a drop-down menu containing map information selections ## Footnote When de-selected, it removes the menu from the ND.
315
What is not displayed in PLAN mode?
Weather radar and TCAS
316
What does the MENU Key control?
Map information selections
317
Fill in the blank: The MАP Key displays VNAV path _______.
deviation
318
What information does the MАP Key show regarding waypoints?
Displays waypoints, including the active waypoint, within the selected range
319
True or False: The PLAN Key allows route step-through using the CDU legs page.
True
320
What are the four selections displayed under the MENU Key?
* VSD * WXR * TERR * ARPT * WPT * STA
321
What does MAP MODE display?
VOR selections, map information selections, and associated data ## Footnote MAP MODE shows information relevant to navigation and situational awareness
322
What information does the VOR selection display?
VOR pointer, VOR frequency or identification, and associated DME information ## Footnote DME stands for Distance Measuring Equipment
323
What are the limitations of WXR and TERR selections?
WXR and TERR are not selectable at the same time ## Footnote This applies to the display settings on the MFD
324
What is VSD?
Vertical Situation Display ## Footnote VSD provides vertical information about the aircraft's position relative to terrain and air traffic
325
What does WXR stand for?
Weather Radar ## Footnote Displays weather radar information, aiding in weather-related navigation
326
What does TERR display?
Terrain data ## Footnote Used for GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain Alerting
327
What information does TFC display?
Traffic information from TCAS ## Footnote TCAS stands for Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
328
What does ARPT display?
Airports on all ranges ## Footnote For ranges greater than 640 NM, it displays as a star field
329
What does WPT stand for?
Waypoint ## Footnote Displays waypoints when the ND is in the 10, 20, or 40 NM range
330
What is STA used for?
Displays high and low altitude navigation aids ## Footnote Shows navigation aids based on the ND range settings
331
Fill in the blank: Selections that are common to both MAP and PLAN modes ______ when changing between the two formats.
retain their states ## Footnote This ensures consistency in displayed information
332
True or False: STA will display as a star field for all ranges.
False ## Footnote STA displays as a star field only for ranges greater than 640 NM
333
What does the POS (Position) function display?
Displays IRS and GPS positions and VOR raw data radials extended from the nose of the airplane to the stations displayed on the CDU NAV RAD page ## Footnote IRS stands for Inertial Reference System, and CDU stands for Control Display Unit.
334
What information does the DATA (Data) function provide?
Displays the entered or procedural altitude and ETAs at each waypoint, based on distance to go and groundspeed ## Footnote ETAs may differ from other FMC performance predictions.
335
What is reserved for future development in the context of flight information?
FIR (Flight Information Regions) and AIRSP (Airspace) ## Footnote These features may include advanced navigation or airspace management capabilities.
336
What is the function of the EXIT Key?
Removes menu from ND when selected (momentary) ## Footnote ND refers to Navigation Display.
337
What does the AIRPLANE Map Centering function do?
Centers the map on the current latitude and longitude of the airplane when momentarily pushed ## Footnote This function is available only in PLAN Mode.
338
What are the Map Centering Keys used for?
Used for centering the map in PLAN Mode only ## Footnote This allows for better navigation and situational awareness.
339
What is the purpose of the CURSOR control?
Enables selection and manipulation of waypoints on the navigation display ## Footnote This aids in route planning and adjustment.
340
Fill in the blank: The _______ function displays the entered or procedural altitude and ETAs at each waypoint.
DATA (Data)
341
True or False: The AIRSP function is currently available for use.
False
342
What does the CTR function do?
Centers the map on the airplane's current position ## Footnote This enhances the pilot's awareness of the aircraft's location.
343
What does the AIRPLANE key do in PLAN mode?
Centers the map on the current latitude and longitude of the airplane ## Footnote The map does not continually re-center on the airplane.
344
What happens when the DEST key is pressed?
Places the airplane on the center of the destination airport ## Footnote Displayed cyan if no destination airport is entered in the flight plan.
345
What is the function of the CURSOR key?
Re-centers airplane on the position where the cursor clicks when activated ## Footnote The cursor changes shape when mode is active and is deactivated when other centering keys are selected.
346
How does the CTR ON key function?
Centers on any database item or latitude/longitude coordinate already entered in the scratch pad ## Footnote Activated by a momentary push.
347
What does the PICK WPT key allow the pilot to do?
Graphically create a latitude/longitude point or select a visible waypoint, airport, or navigation aid ## Footnote Visible only when the cursor is on the ND map area and enabled when the scratch pad is empty.
348
What indicates that the PICK WPT key is disabled?
The key label is displayed in cyan ## Footnote This occurs when the scratch pad contains data.
349
What happens to the PICK WPT key label when activated?
Changes to CANCEL ## Footnote This indicates that the user can cancel the action.
350
What are instrument source switches used for?
To manually select instrument sources if a display-related failure is not detected by automatic system monitors ## Footnote Normally, the display system automatically reconfigures.
351
What is the purpose of the instrument source switches?
To manually select instrument sources if a display-related failure is not detected by automatic system monitors ## Footnote Normally, the display system automatically reconfigures for failures without the pilot having to use these switches.
352
What does the 'NORM' position indicate on the PFD/MFD Selector?
Normal position ## Footnote This is the standard operational setting for the display.
353
What happens when the PFD/MFD Selector is in the 'INBD DU' position?
The outboard DU is blanked and the inboard DU displays the PFD in reversion mode and EICAS if EICAS was displayed on this side ## Footnote This is considered a non-normal position.
354
True or False: The display system requires the pilot to manually switch sources for all types of failures.
False ## Footnote The system automatically reconfigures for most failures.
355
Fill in the blank: The PFD/MFD Selector has a position labeled _______.
NORM
356
What does EICAS stand for?
Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System ## Footnote EICAS provides critical information about the aircraft's systems status.
357
What is the function of the Instrument Source Select Panels?
To allow manual source selection for flight instruments in case of display failures ## Footnote This is used when automatic monitoring does not detect a failure.
358
What are the two types of display units mentioned?
Outboard DU and Inboard DU ## Footnote These units are part of the display system in the cockpit.
359
In the event of a failure, which display shows the PFD in reversion mode?
Inboard DU
360
What happens when the OUTBD DU selector is in the non-normal position?
The inboard DU is blanked and the outboard half of the outboard DU displays the PFD in reversion mode and EICAS if EICAS was displayed on this side.
361
What is the normal position of the Air Data / Attitude (AIR DATA/ATT) Source Selector?
AUTO
362
In AUTO position, what does the ADRS provide to the PFD and HUD?
Air data
363
What type of backup airspeed is provided in AUTO position?
Based on AOA and inertial data
364
What type of backup altitude is provided in AUTO position?
Based on GPS data
365
What does the IRS provide to the PFD and HUD in AUTO position?
Attitude data
366
What is automatically provided as required in terms of backup attitude data?
From the ISFD sources
367
What is the non-normal position of the Air Data / Attitude (AIR DATA/ATT) Source Selector?
ALTN
368
In ALTN position, what is displayed for air data on the on-side PFD and HUD?
Backup airspeed and altitude
369
In ALTN position, what is displayed for attitude on the on-side PFD and HUD?
ISFD attitude
370
What are the options for Heading Reference Controls?
NORM, TRUE
371
What does the HEADING REF switch control?
Selects the heading reference for the AFDS, FMCs, NDs, and PFDs ## Footnote AFDS stands for Autopilot Flight Director System, FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, ND stands for Navigation Display, and PFD stands for Primary Flight Display.
372
What is the default reference when the HEADING REF switch is in NORM?
Magnetic north ## Footnote In polar regions, it references true north automatically.
373
When does the HEADING REF switch automatically reference true north?
When operating within the polar regions for FMCs, NDs, and PFDs ## Footnote Also applies to all AFDS cruise roll modes.
374
What happens when the AFDS roll mode is HDG SEL and the HEADING REF switch is changed from NORM to TRUE?
Activates HDG HOLD as the roll mode ## Footnote HDG HOLD is a mode that maintains the aircraft's heading.
375
In which roll mode does switching the HEADING REF from NORM to TRUE activate TRK HOLD?
TRK SEL ## Footnote TRK HOLD is a mode that maintains the aircraft's track.
376
True or False: The HEADING REF switch can only be switched manually.
False ## Footnote The autopilot can automatically switch between magnetic and true references.
377
What is the effect of manually switching the HEADING REF switch when the AFDS roll mode is TRK SEL?
Activates TRK HOLD as the roll mode ## Footnote This applies to both manual and automatic switching of the reference.
378
What section should be referred to for additional information on FMC Polar Operations?
Chapter 11, Section 31 ## Footnote This section contains further details on how to operate in polar regions.
379
Fill in the blank: The HEADING REF switch in TRUE mode references ______.
true north
380
What does the Multifunction Display (MFD) Switches do?
Selects the on-side MFD location (left or right window on each upper display unit) that is affected by pressing display switch(es).
381
What happens when the Upper Display Switch is pushed a second time?
The MFD format is removed and the default format is displayed.
382
What information does the SYS display provide?
System synoptic and maintenance information including: * System menu * Status messages for dispatch * Electrical system indications * Hydraulic system indications * Fuel system indications * Air system indications * Door system indications * Landing gear / brake indications * Flight control indications * EFIS / DSP backup * Circuit breaker functions
383
What is the purpose of the CHKL indicator?
Checklist (Normal Checklist, Chapter 10, Section 50)
384
What does CDU stand for in the context of flight displays?
Control Display Unit (CDU)
385
What does the COMM display provide information about?
Communications (Communications Menus, Chapter 5, Section 40)
386
Fill in the blank: The INFO display shows _______.
airport map database effectivity dates
387
What does ND stand for?
Navigation Display (ND)
388
What does pushing the ENG Display Switch do?
Displays secondary engine information on EICAS and blanks it upon a second push ## Footnote EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.
389
What is the function of the EICAS Transfer Switch?
Transfers EICAS format between the captain and first officer inboard display units
390
What does the Cancel/Recall (CANC/RCL) Switch do?
Refer to Display Select Panel (DSP) in Chapter 15, Section 10 for additional information
391
Where are the Multifunction Keypads (MFK) located?
On the forward aisle stand, one on each side of the lower DU
392
What is the purpose of the Multifunction Keypads (MFK)?
Controls cursor position and operation on the on-side inboard DU and on-side MFD on the lower DU
393
Fill in the blank: The ENG Display Switch displays secondary engine information on _______.
[EICAS]
394
True or False: There is only one Multifunction Keypad (MFK) on the forward aisle stand.
False
395
What is the function of the Lower Display Switches?
Pushing the switch displays the associated format; pushing it again removes the MFD format and displays the default format
396
What type of information does the SYS format display?
System synoptic and maintenance information including: * System menu * Status messages for dispatch * Electrical system indications * Hydraulic system indications * Fuel system indications * Air system indications * Door system indications * Landing gear / brake indications * Flight control indications * EFIS / DSP backup * Maintenance functions * Circuit breaker functions
397
What does the CHKL format represent?
Checklist (Normal Checklist)
398
What does CDU stand for in the context of flight displays?
Control Display Unit
399
What is the purpose of the COMM format?
Communications Menus
400
What information does the INFO format provide?
Displays airport map database effectivity dates
401
What is the ND format used for?
Navigation Display
402
Fill in the blank: The function of the _______ is to display electrical system indications.
Electrical Synoptic Display
403
True or False: The hydraulic system indications are displayed in the SYS format.
True
404
Which chapter covers the Landing Gear / Brake Indications?
Chapter 14, Section 10
405
Which section details the Air System Indications?
Chapter 2, Section 10
406
What does the term 'EFIS' refer to?
Electronic Flight Instrument System
407
What does DSP stand for in the context of flight displays?
Display System Processor
408
What type of indications are included under Flight Control Synoptic Displays?
Flight control indications
409
Fill in the blank: The circuit breaker functions are indicated in the _______.
Circuit Breaker Indication and Control (CBIC)
410
What does the Multifunction Keypad (MFK) allow a user to do?
Input characters and control displays on the MFD ## Footnote MFK includes various keys for different functions.
411
What is the function of the Alpha/Numeric Keys on the MFK?
Input selected characters into the scratchpad ## Footnote Each key corresponds to a specific character.
412
What does the Slash (1) key do on the MFK?
Enters '/' in the scratchpad ## Footnote It is a specific character input key.
413
What is the purpose of the Plus Minus (+/-) key on the MFK?
First push enters '' in scratchpad; subsequent pushes alternate between '+' and '_' ## Footnote It allows for flexible input in the scratchpad.
414
What does the Space (SP) Key do when pushed?
Enters a space in the scratchpad ## Footnote This key allows for spacing in text input.
415
What is the function of the Cursor Control Selector (Outer)?
Rotates to move the highlight in a predetermined path on the active MFD ## Footnote It facilitates navigation through options.
416
What action does the Cursor Select Switch (Inner) perform when pushed?
Selects the highlighted key on the MFD ## Footnote This key is essential for confirming selections.
417
What does the ENTER Key do when pushed?
Performs an associated action to the highlighted field ## Footnote It is crucial for executing commands.
418
What happens when the Clear (CLR) Key is pushed?
Clears the last character of data in the scratchpad ## Footnote It is used for correcting input mistakes.
419
What does pushing and holding the Clear (CLR) Key do?
Clears all scratchpad data ## Footnote This allows for complete data reset.
420
What is the function of the Delete (DEL) Key?
Enters 'DELETE' in the scratchpad ## Footnote It signifies a command to remove data.
421
What does the Cursor Control Device (CCD) contain?
The left CCN contains the left inboard display unit and the lower display unit ## Footnote It is part of the overall system for display management.
422
What does CCD stand for in the context of flight instruments?
Cursor Control Device ## Footnote The CCD is used to control the cursor position and operation on display units.
423
What does the left CCD control?
The left inboard display unit and the lower display unit cursor position and operation ## Footnote The left CCD is responsible for managing specific display units in the cockpit.
424
What does the right CCD control?
The right inboard display unit and the lower display unit cursor position and operation ## Footnote The right CCD functions similarly to the left CCD, managing its respective display units.
425
True or False: The left and right CCDs have different functions.
False ## Footnote Both CCDs serve similar functions, controlling different display units.
426
Fill in the blank: The left CCD is shown; the right CCD is similar, except the _______ switch and the _______ switch are located on the opposite side.
EFB, LWR ## Footnote EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag and LWR stands for Lower switch.
427
What does CCD stand for in the context of flight instruments?
Cursor Control Device ## Footnote The CCD is used to control the cursor position and operation on display units.
428
What does the left CCD control?
The left inboard display unit and the lower display unit cursor position and operation ## Footnote The left CCD is responsible for managing specific display units in the cockpit.
429
What does the right CCD control?
The right inboard display unit and the lower display unit cursor position and operation ## Footnote The right CCD functions similarly to the left CCD, managing its respective display units.
430
True or False: The left and right CCDs have different functions.
False ## Footnote Both CCDs serve similar functions, controlling different display units.
431
Fill in the blank: The left CCD is shown; the right CCD is similar, except the _______ switch and the _______ switch are located on the opposite side.
EFB, LWR ## Footnote EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag and LWR stands for Lower switch.
432
What does the associated annunciator light indicate?
It indicates where the cursor appears ## Footnote The associated annunciator light is linked to the Cursor Location Lights.
433
What is the function of the Cursor Location Switches?
Selects the display where the cursor appears and automatically deselects the previous display ## Footnote Displays can include EFB, left MFD, right MFD, or lower MFD.
434
How does the Touch Pad function in cursor movement?
Finger movement on the touch pad moves the cursor on the selected display ## Footnote Lifting the finger off the pad does not move the cursor unless it is placed back down in a different location.
435
What happens when tapping in the corner areas of the display?
Tapping places the cursor in the corresponding corner of the display ## Footnote This effect occurs except for system (SYS) displays.
436
What is the purpose of the Cursor Select Switch?
Activates the area of the screen that the cursor is currently in ## Footnote The area is highlighted by a magenta border to indicate it can be selected.
437
What functions can the Cursor Select Switch be used for?
Select menus, checklists, checklist steps, and other functions ## Footnote This switch enhances interaction with the display.
438
What do the Display Brightness Controls adjust?
Adjust the brightness of the forward panel displays ## Footnote Includes controls for OUTBD DSPL, INBD DSPL, and CONTRAST.
439
Fill in the blank: The Cursor Location Lights indicate where the _______ appears.
cursor
440
True or False: The cursor can be moved by lifting the finger off the touch pad.
False ## Footnote The cursor only moves when the finger is moved on the touch pad surface.
441
What are the components of standby flight instruments?
The standby flight instruments include the: * integrated standby flight display * standby magnetic compass ## Footnote These instruments provide essential information in case of primary instrument failure.
442
What does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) provide?
The ISFD provides an independent source of attitude, airspeed, and altitude information. ## Footnote This ensures that critical flight data is available even if main displays fail.
443
What does the Approach (APP) Switch do when blank?
Selects APP ## Footnote This initiates the approach mode for the flight instruments.
444
What is indicated when the Approach Mode Annunciation is blank?
No approach deviation data displayed ## Footnote This means the system is not in an active approach mode.
445
What does APP indicate in the Approach Mode Annunciation?
ILS/GLS localizer and glideslope deviation data displayed ## Footnote This provides critical information for landing approaches.
446
What does BCRS stand for in the context of Approach Mode Annunciation?
Back Course ## Footnote This mode reverses the sensing for the localizer pointer during back course approaches.
447
What does the Attitude Display indicate?
Airplane attitude and bank in reference to the bank scale ## Footnote It shows the airplane's orientation relative to the horizon.
448
What happens when the airplane's pitch exceeds 30°?
Large red arrowheads (V-shaped) indicate excessive attitude ## Footnote This visual cue alerts the pilot to a dangerous pitch angle.
449
What do the Display Brightness Switches control?
Increase or decrease display brightness ## Footnote The + button increases brightness while the - button decreases it.
450
What does the airplane symbol on the display indicate?
Airplane position with reference to the horizon ## Footnote It helps pilots understand their aircraft's orientation.
451
What percentage is indicated by the airplane symbol's 'I'?
64% ## Footnote This may refer to a specific parameter related to the airplane's performance or position.
452
What does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) provide?
Standby flight information ## Footnote It serves as a backup display for critical flight data.
453
What is indicated when airspeed is above 30 knots?
Airspeed indications
454
What does the Attitude Reset (ATT RST) Switch do?
Aligns horizon with the airplane symbol and starts a new initialization sequence if previous attempt failed ## Footnote Requires a push and hold of at least two seconds and takes approximately ten seconds to reset
455
What happens when the Hectopascal/Inch (HP/IN) Switch is pushed?
Changes units of barometric reference
456
What does the barometric setting indicate?
The barometric setting selected with the barometric selector
457
What is displayed when STD is selected with the barometric selector?
STD is displayed
458
What does the Ambient Light Sensor do?
Automatically adjusts display intensity for ambient lighting condition
459
What does the glideslope pointer indicate?
Glideslope position relative to the airplane ## Footnote The pointer is in view when the glideslope signal is received
460
When is the glideslope scale in view?
When the APP mode is selected
461
What occurs when the B/CRS mode is selected?
The glideslope pointer and scale are removed
462
What does the Localizer Pointer and Deviation Scale indicate?
Current altitude
463
What does the localizer pointer indicate?
Localizer position relative to the airplane. ## Footnote The pointer is in view when the localizer signal is received.
464
When is the localizer scale in view?
When either the APP or B/CRS mode is selected. ## Footnote APP refers to approach mode, and B/CRS refers to bearing/course mode.
465
What function does the Barometric Selector (BARO) serve when rotated?
Changes barometric setting. ## Footnote This allows pilots to adjust the altimeter setting for accurate altitude readings.
466
What happens when the Barometric Selector (BARO) is pushed?
Selects standard barometric setting (29.92 inches Hg/1013 HPA). ## Footnote This is important for standardizing altitude readings across different aircraft.
467
What does the display show when 'STD' is displayed on the Barometric Selector?
Selects the preselected barometric setting. ## Footnote This allows for easy switching between standard and specific altimeter settings.
468
What does the heading indication display show?
Airplane heading. ## Footnote This is crucial for navigation and maintaining the desired flight path.
469
What does the TRU heading source indicate?
True heading. ## Footnote True heading is based on geographic north, not magnetic north.
470
What does a blank heading source indicate?
Magnetic heading. ## Footnote Magnetic heading is based on the Earth's magnetic field.
471
What does 'WAIT ATT' signify in ISFD messages?
Indicates that the system is waiting for attitude information. ## Footnote ISFD stands for Integrated Standby Flight Display.
472
What does the ATT:RST message indicate?
Attitude must be reset using the attitude reset switch ## Footnote This message is displayed in amber color.
473
What does the ATT 10s message signify?
10 second attitude realignment in progress ## Footnote This message is also displayed in amber color.
474
What does the WAIT ATT message indicate?
Temporary self correcting loss of attitude ## Footnote This message is displayed in amber color.
475
What does the INIT 90s message represent?
Countdown of 90 second initialization ## Footnote This countdown stops if excessive motion is detected and resumes when motion stops.
476
What happens if initialization is not complete within six minutes?
ATT:RST displays ## Footnote This indicates a failure in completing the initialization process.
477
What does the OUT OF ORDER flag indicate?
Instrument system failure ## Footnote This failure flag replaces the appropriate display.
478
What are the components displayed in standby flight instruments?
* Airspeed * Glideslope * Altitude * Attitude * Localizer ## Footnote These instruments provide essential flight data.
479
Fill in the blank: The _______ message indicates that attitude must be reset using the attitude reset switch.
[ATT:RST] ## Footnote This message is displayed in amber color.
480
True or False: The WAIT ATT message indicates that the attitude is permanently lost.
False ## Footnote The WAIT ATT message indicates a temporary self-correcting loss of attitude.
481
What does the message INIT 90s do when excessive motion is detected?
Countdown stops ## Footnote The countdown resumes when motion stops.
482
What does the CLOCK switch do?
Push - subsequent pushing starts, stops, removes the chronograph from display. ## Footnote The CLOCK switch allows for the management of the chronograph function.
483
What type of time does the UTC Time display show?
Current UTC time (hours, minutes, seconds) using GPS inputs. ## Footnote This feature relies on GPS for accurate timekeeping.
484
What information does the Date display indicate?
Current date (day, month, year) using GPS inputs. ## Footnote The date is also sourced from GPS data.
485
What does the Elapsed Time display show?
Elapsed flight time (hours, minutes, seconds). ## Footnote This helps pilots track the duration of the flight.
486
Describe the automatic start-stop logic for the timer.
* On power up, timer is set to 00:00 * Timer begins at weight off wheels * Timer stops at weight on wheels plus 30 seconds * Timer resets to 00:00 when on ground and V-speeds are entered into CDU ## Footnote This logic ensures accurate timing related to flight phases.
487
What are the two display methods for elapsed time in the chronograph function?
* Analog dial with sweep second hand * Digital readout ## Footnote Both methods present elapsed time since the chronograph was started.
488
What does the EFIS Control Panels and Display Select Panel (DSP) provide?
An alternate way to control the functions of the EFIS control panel and/or the display select panel. ## Footnote This feature enhances user interface options for pilots.
489
How are DSP controls available in relation to EFIS controls?
DSP controls are available full time; backup EFIS controls must be enabled prior to activation. ## Footnote This distinction is important for operational readiness.
490
What does the CLOCK switch do?
Push - subsequent pushing starts, stops, removes the chronograph from display. ## Footnote The CLOCK switch allows for the management of the chronograph function.
491
What type of time does the UTC Time display show?
Current UTC time (hours, minutes, seconds) using GPS inputs. ## Footnote This feature relies on GPS for accurate timekeeping.
492
What information does the Date display indicate?
Current date (day, month, year) using GPS inputs. ## Footnote The date is also sourced from GPS data.
493
What does the Elapsed Time display show?
Elapsed flight time (hours, minutes, seconds). ## Footnote This helps pilots track the duration of the flight.
494
Describe the automatic start-stop logic for the timer.
* On power up, timer is set to 00:00 * Timer begins at weight off wheels * Timer stops at weight on wheels plus 30 seconds * Timer resets to 00:00 when on ground and V-speeds are entered into CDU ## Footnote This logic ensures accurate timing related to flight phases.
495
What are the two display methods for elapsed time in the chronograph function?
* Analog dial with sweep second hand * Digital readout ## Footnote Both methods present elapsed time since the chronograph was started.
496
What does the EFIS Control Panels and Display Select Panel (DSP) provide?
An alternate way to control the functions of the EFIS control panel and/or the display select panel. ## Footnote This feature enhances user interface options for pilots.
497
How are DSP controls available in relation to EFIS controls?
DSP controls are available full time; backup EFIS controls must be enabled prior to activation. ## Footnote This distinction is important for operational readiness.
498
What does EFIS stand for?
Electronic Flight Instrument System ## Footnote EFIS is a key component in modern aircraft cockpits, providing pilots with critical flight information.
499
What is the purpose of the Display Select Panel (DSP)?
To control the display settings and select various information for the Multi-Function Display (MFD) ## Footnote The DSP allows pilots to customize the information shown on the MFD.
500
What does MFD stand for?
Multi-Function Display ## Footnote MFDs are used to present multiple types of information to the pilot in a consolidated format.
501
True or False: The control call outs on the EFIS control panels correspond to the control names on the DSP.
True ## Footnote This ensures consistency in terminology and function across the systems.
502
Fill in the blank: The _______ allows for alternate control of the systems on the MFD.
Systems MFD Alternate Control ## Footnote This feature provides backup functionality in case the primary controls fail.
503
What is the function of the BAROSET control?
To set the barometric pressure for altitude reference ## Footnote Correct barometric settings are crucial for accurate altitude readings.
504
What does the term 'STAT' refer to in the context of the flight instruments?
Status information display ## Footnote This display provides real-time operational status of various aircraft systems.
505
What does the 'ND RANGE' control adjust?
The range of the navigation display ## Footnote Adjusting the ND RANGE allows pilots to zoom in or out on the navigation information.
506
What information can be accessed through the MAINT INFO control?
Maintenance information regarding aircraft systems ## Footnote This information is vital for ensuring the aircraft is in a safe operating condition.
507
What does the 'FT' control indicate?
Feet, a unit of measurement for altitude ## Footnote Pilots use this measurement for vertical navigation.
508
What is indicated by the 'CAPT' label on the controls?
Captain's controls and displays ## Footnote These are specifically for the pilot in command.
509
What does the 'FO' label signify?
First Officer's controls and displays ## Footnote These are specifically for the co-pilot or first officer.
510
True or False: The EFIS control panels are not related to the functions of the CDU.
False ## Footnote The CDU functions are aligned with the control panels to provide a cohesive control system.
511
Fill in the blank: The _______ control provides backup functionality for the EFIS.
EFIS CTRL BACKUP ## Footnote This ensures continued operation in case of primary control failure.
512
What does the 'WXR' control represent?
Weather radar information ## Footnote This is crucial for situational awareness regarding weather conditions.
513
What does 'HPA' stand for in the context of barometric settings?
Hectopascal ## Footnote Hectopascal is a unit of pressure often used in aviation.
514
What does the EFIS Control Panels and Display Select Panel (DSP) manage?
Controls and indicators for the EFIS and DSP systems.
515
What does the Backup EFIS/DSP Select Key display?
Backup EFIS/DSP control keys.
516
What is the purpose of the CAPT/FO Keys?
Allows manual reconfiguration to control off-side EFIS/DSP control panels.
517
What happens when the EFIS CTRL BACKUP Key is pushed?
Enables EFIS backup controls.
518
What must occur for Backup EFIS Controls to be functional?
They need to be enabled before functional.
519
When Backup EFIS Controls are enabled, what are they initially configured to control?
On-side EFIS control panel.
520
What do Backup EFIS Controls do when enabled?
Override functional EFIS control panel.
521
Do DSP Controls need to be enabled for backup controls to be functional?
No, they do not need to be enabled.
522
What happens to DSP if it is still functional?
Backup controls do not override DSP.
523
What is the primary function of the Head-Up Display (HUD)?
Displays symbology similar to the PFD.
524
Where can detailed descriptions of HUD symbology be found?
Section 10 of the chapter.
525
What is the Full Symbology Mode in relation to HUD?
It displays symbology consistent with PFD symbology.
526
What does HUD stand for in aviation?
Head-Up Display ## Footnote The HUD provides critical flight information without requiring the pilot to look down at instruments.
527
What information does the Airspeed/Mach Indication provide?
Current airspeed and Mach number ## Footnote This is crucial for maintaining flight performance and safety.
528
What does the Attitude, Steering, and Miscellaneous Indications display?
Flight attitude, steering commands, and additional relevant information ## Footnote This helps pilots maintain proper control of the aircraft.
529
What does the Autopilot, Flight Director System Status indicate?
The operational status of the autopilot and flight director system ## Footnote This is essential for understanding flight automation levels.
530
What information does Vertical Speed Indication provide?
Rate of climb or descent ## Footnote This helps pilots manage altitude changes effectively.
531
What does the Compass Rose display?
Current IRS heading, track, and related information ## Footnote The compass rose is not displayed during ground operations.
532
When is the decluttered symbology mode not available?
During takeoff or go-around when TO/GA is the active pitch mode ## Footnote This ensures critical information is available during critical phases of flight.
533
Fill in the blank: The acronym LNAV stands for _______.
Lateral Navigation ## Footnote LNAV is used for managing lateral flight path.
534
Fill in the blank: The acronym VNAV stands for _______.
Vertical Navigation ## Footnote VNAV is used for managing vertical flight path.
535
What does the SPD indication refer to?
Speed indication ## Footnote This is vital for maintaining appropriate airspeed.
536
What altitude does the example display indicate?
31000 feet ## Footnote This altitude is common for cruising in commercial aviation.
537
What does the A/P indication represent?
Autopilot status ## Footnote This indicates whether the autopilot is engaged or not.
538
True or False: The compass rose is displayed during ground operations.
False ## Footnote The compass rose is specifically noted to be absent during ground operations.
539
What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) indicate?
Current ADRS airspeed ## Footnote The HUD displays various speed indications crucial for pilot awareness.
540
What happens to the current airspeed indication when it is below minimum manoeuvring speed?
The box around the current airspeed indication flashes ## Footnote This visual alert helps pilots recognize critical speed thresholds.
541
What does the HUD display when the Mach number is 0.40 or greater?
Current groundspeed or Mach ## Footnote The HUD transitions between displaying groundspeed and Mach number based on speed.
542
How long is the new display highlighted when transitioning between groundspeed and Mach number?
10 seconds ## Footnote This highlighting aids in pilot transition between different speed metrics.
543
What indicates the maximum manoeuvring speed on the HUD?
Bottom of the bar ## Footnote This indication is crucial for maintaining safe operational parameters during flight.
544
What is the significance of the maximum manoeuvring speed?
Provides 1.3 g manoeuvre capability to high speed buffet ## Footnote This is essential for flight safety and performance.
545
At what bank angle does the 1.3 g manoeuvre capability occur in level flight?
40° ## Footnote This detail is important for understanding aircraft performance limits.
546
What does the Selected Speed Bug represent on the HUD?
A reference for selected airspeed ## Footnote The speed bug helps pilots manage and maintain desired airspeeds.
547
Fill in the blank: The HUD displays the current airspeed, groundspeed, and _______.
Mach number ## Footnote This is part of the critical data presented to pilots for decision making.
548
True or False: The maximum manoeuvring speed is displayed only at low altitudes.
False ## Footnote It may be displayed at high altitude with relatively high gross weights.
549
What does HUD stand for?
Head-Up Display ## Footnote HUD provides critical flight information to the pilot without requiring them to look down at instruments.
550
What are Takeoff Reference Speeds used for?
To determine the appropriate airspeeds for takeoff ## Footnote These speeds ensure safe and efficient aircraft operation during takeoff.
551
What is the VNAV Speed Band?
A range of speeds for vertical navigation ## Footnote VNAV helps pilots maintain optimal climb and descent profiles.
552
What does the top of the bar in the HUD indicate?
Minimum manoeuvring speed ## Footnote This speed allows for safe aircraft maneuverability.
553
What is the minimum manoeuvring speed below 20,000 ft?
1.3 g manoeuvre capability to stick shaker ## Footnote This ensures the aircraft can safely maneuver without stalling.
554
What is the minimum manoeuvring speed above approximately 20,000 ft?
1.3 g manoeuvre capability to low speed buffet or alternative approved manoeuvre capability ## Footnote Maintenance can preset this capability for operational safety.
555
When is the minimum speed displayed in relation to flap retraction after takeoff?
Displayed with first flap retraction after takeoff ## Footnote This timing helps pilots manage speed during the critical phase of flight.
556
What does the term 'VREF Speed' refer to?
Landing flap and reference speed ## Footnote VREF is crucial for ensuring safe landing approaches.
557
What attitude indications are provided by the HUD?
FLT DIR, ITN, HOS ## Footnote These indications help pilots understand the aircraft's orientation and flight path.
558
What bank angle is associated with the 1.3 g manoeuvre capability?
40° of bank in level flight ## Footnote This bank angle ensures effective maneuvering at the specified speed.
559
What does the Bank Pointer indicate?
Indicates bank in reference to the bank scale ## Footnote Fills if bank angle is 35° or more.
560
What do Slip/Skid Indications display?
Displaces to indicate slip or skid ## Footnote Fills at full scale deflection.
561
When does the indicator below the flight path vector symbol appear?
During takeoff or low altitude go-around ## Footnote This indicator is specifically noted in the context provided.
562
What is the purpose of the Bank Scale?
Fixed reference for the bank pointer ## Footnote Scale marks are at 0°, 10°, 20°, 30°.
563
What additional scale marks are added to the Bank Scale?
Enhanced scale marks at 45° and 60° ## Footnote These are added if the airplane bank is within 10° of those bank angles.
564
What does the Angle of Attack Limit represent?
Referenced to the flight path vector symbol ## Footnote The distance between the AOA limit symbol and the flight path vector symbol represents the margin available to stick shaker.
565
When is the Angle of Attack Limit displayed?
Displayed during the following conditions: * angle-of-attack is within 5° of stick shaker * whenever stick shaker is active * whenever windshear guidance cue is displayed
566
What does the Bank Pointer indicate?
Indicates bank in reference to the bank scale ## Footnote Fills if bank angle is 35° or more.
567
What do Slip/Skid Indications display?
Displaces to indicate slip or skid ## Footnote Fills at full scale deflection.
568
When does the indicator below the flight path vector symbol appear?
During takeoff or low altitude go-around ## Footnote This indicator is specifically noted in the context provided.
569
What is the purpose of the Bank Scale?
Fixed reference for the bank pointer ## Footnote Scale marks are at 0°, 10°, 20°, 30°.
570
What additional scale marks are added to the Bank Scale?
Enhanced scale marks at 45° and 60° ## Footnote These are added if the airplane bank is within 10° of those bank angles.
571
What does the Angle of Attack Limit represent?
Referenced to the flight path vector symbol ## Footnote The distance between the AOA limit symbol and the flight path vector symbol represents the margin available to stick shaker.
572
When is the Angle of Attack Limit displayed?
Displayed during the following conditions: * angle-of-attack is within 5° of stick shaker * whenever stick shaker is active * whenever windshear guidance cue is displayed
573
What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) attitude indication fill at?
Full scale deflection ## Footnote This indicates the maximum extent of the display for attitude indications.
574
When does the indicator below the flight path vector symbol appear?
During takeoff or low altitude go-around ## Footnote This is a specific operational context for the HUD display.
575
What is the purpose of the bank scale in the HUD?
Fixed reference for the bank pointer ## Footnote The scale assists pilots in understanding the aircraft's bank angle.
576
What are the scale marks on the bank scale?
0°, 10°, 20°, 30° ## Footnote Enhanced marks at 45° and 60° appear when the bank is within 10° of these angles.
577
What does the angle of attack limit symbol reference?
Flight path vector symbol ## Footnote This symbol indicates the safety margin before stick shaker activation.
578
Under what conditions is the angle of attack limit displayed?
• Angle-of-attack is within 5° of stick shaker • Whenever stick shaker is active • Whenever windshear guidance cue is displayed ## Footnote These conditions help in maintaining safe flight operations.
579
What does the horizon line and pitch scale indicate?
IRS horizon and degrees of pitch ## Footnote The pitch scale displays increments of 5°.
580
What additional information is referenced for HUD steering indications?
• TCAS HUD Vertical Guidance, Chapter 15, Section 10 • Alerts Displayed on the HUD, Chapter 15, Section 10 ## Footnote These sections provide further details on HUD functionalities.
581
What does the HUD Steering Indication represent?
Indicates flight director pitch and roll steering commands ## Footnote Refer to Autopilot Flight Director Roll and Pitch Controls in Chapter 4, Section 10 for additional information.
582
What does the Flight Path Vector Symbol (FPV) display during flight?
Displays current flight path angle and drift angle ## Footnote Flight path angle is depicted by the flight path vector symbol position on the pitch scale. Drift angle is represented by the perpendicular distance from the line drawn through the center of the pitch scale to the center of the flight path vector symbol.
583
How is the drift angle represented in the FPV?
By the perpendicular distance from the line drawn through the center of the pitch scale to the center of the flight path vector symbol
584
When does the FPV show as dashed lines?
When limited laterally by other symbology or the display field-of-view
585
What does the Horizon Line Heading Scale display?
Displays current heading
586
How are the tie marks and labels arranged on the Horizon Line Heading Scale?
Tie marks every 5° and labels every 10° representing the heading value
587
Where is the current heading located on the Horizon Line?
At a point on the horizon line where a line drawn perpendicular to the horizon line goes through the center of the airplane symbol
588
Fill in the blank: The HUD displays the current heading with tie marks every ______.
5°
589
True or False: The Flight Path Vector Symbol shows solid lines at all times.
False
590
What does the HUD Steering Indication represent?
Indicates flight director pitch and roll steering commands ## Footnote Refer to Autopilot Flight Director Roll and Pitch Controls in Chapter 4, Section 10 for additional information.
591
What does the Flight Path Vector Symbol (FPV) display during flight?
Displays current flight path angle and drift angle ## Footnote Flight path angle is depicted by the flight path vector symbol position on the pitch scale. Drift angle is represented by the perpendicular distance from the line drawn through the center of the pitch scale to the center of the flight path vector symbol.
592
How is the drift angle represented in the FPV?
By the perpendicular distance from the line drawn through the center of the pitch scale to the center of the flight path vector symbol
593
When does the FPV show as dashed lines?
When limited laterally by other symbology or the display field-of-view
594
What does the Horizon Line Heading Scale display?
Displays current heading
595
How are the tie marks and labels arranged on the Horizon Line Heading Scale?
Tie marks every 5° and labels every 10° representing the heading value
596
Where is the current heading located on the Horizon Line?
At a point on the horizon line where a line drawn perpendicular to the horizon line goes through the center of the airplane symbol
597
Fill in the blank: The HUD displays the current heading with tie marks every ______.
5°
598
True or False: The Flight Path Vector Symbol shows solid lines at all times.
False
599
What does the HUD Radio Altitude indication maintain?
A set distance directly below the flight path vector symbol ## Footnote The radio altitude is displayed below 2,500 feet AGL.
600
At what altitude is the HUD Radio Altitude indication boxed for 10 seconds?
When descending through 2,500 feet AGL ## Footnote This indicates a critical transition in altitude.
601
When is the HUD Radio Altitude boxed and blinking?
When descending below radio altitude minimums ## Footnote The box blinks for 2 seconds, then becomes steady.
602
What is the primary purpose of HUD Navigation Performance Indications?
To show differences between the HUD and PFD ## Footnote Additional information can be found in Chapter 10, Section 10 regarding NPS and IAN.
603
What are the components displayed in HUD Navigation Performance Indications? (List at least three)
* SPD * LNAV * LOC * A/P * V * VNAV PTH * G/P ## Footnote These components indicate various navigation performance metrics.
604
Fill in the blank: The HUD displays radio altitude below _______ feet AGL.
2,500
605
True or False: The HUD Radio Altitude indication is steady when descending below radio altitude minimums.
True ## Footnote After blinking for 2 seconds, it becomes steady.
606
What is the significance of the flight path vector symbol in relation to HUD Radio Altitude?
It serves as the reference point for the radio altitude indication ## Footnote The HUD references the flight path vector for altitude data.
607
What does the HUD Radio Altitude indication maintain?
A set distance directly below the flight path vector symbol ## Footnote The radio altitude is displayed below 2,500 feet AGL.
608
At what altitude is the HUD Radio Altitude indication boxed for 10 seconds?
When descending through 2,500 feet AGL ## Footnote This indicates a critical transition in altitude.
609
When is the HUD Radio Altitude boxed and blinking?
When descending below radio altitude minimums ## Footnote The box blinks for 2 seconds, then becomes steady.
610
What is the primary purpose of HUD Navigation Performance Indications?
To show differences between the HUD and PFD ## Footnote Additional information can be found in Chapter 10, Section 10 regarding NPS and IAN.
611
What are the components displayed in HUD Navigation Performance Indications? (List at least three)
* SPD * LNAV * LOC * A/P * V * VNAV PTH * G/P ## Footnote These components indicate various navigation performance metrics.
612
Fill in the blank: The HUD displays radio altitude below _______ feet AGL.
2,500
613
True or False: The HUD Radio Altitude indication is steady when descending below radio altitude minimums.
True ## Footnote After blinking for 2 seconds, it becomes steady.
614
What is the significance of the flight path vector symbol in relation to HUD Radio Altitude?
It serves as the reference point for the radio altitude indication ## Footnote The HUD references the flight path vector for altitude data.
615
What does the Approach Deviation Pointer indicate when the LOC or G/S is not captured?
Unfilled diamond ## Footnote Represents the selected approach path relative to the airplane position
616
What does a filled triangle in the Approach Deviation Pointer signify?
FAC or G/P is captured (active FMA) ## Footnote Indicates that the flight management system is actively tracking the approach path
617
What does the NPS Deviation Pointer indicate when the airplane is parked at deflection limit?
Unfilled symbol ## Footnote Shows that the airplane is at the maximum allowable deflection limit
618
When is the NPS Deviation Pointer displayed on the vertical deviation scale?
Only in descent phase of flight ## Footnote Indicates that the pointer is relevant during the descent
619
What happens to the NPS Deviation Pointer if it migrates into the bar area for five seconds?
Flashes for ten seconds ## Footnote Alerts the crew to a potential deviation from the path
620
What do the outer tic marks on the Deviation Scale represent?
RNP ## Footnote Indicates the required navigation performance for the flight
621
What does the center tic mark on the Deviation Scale represent?
Airplane position ## Footnote Shows where the airplane is relative to the RNP
622
What do the bars on the vertical scale display?
Only during FMC descent phase of flight ## Footnote Indicates the available navigation performance during descent
623
If ANP equals or exceeds RNP, what does this indicate?
Potential navigation performance issue ## Footnote Indicates that the airplane may not meet required navigation performance criteria
624
What does a filled diamond in the Approach Deviation Pointer indicate?
LOC or G/S is captured (active FMA) ## Footnote Signifies that the aircraft is actively following the approach path
625
What do the bars on the deviation scale represent?
ANP ## Footnote Shows the actual navigation performance of the aircraft
626
What percentage of 4G is indicated?
78%
627
What does QRH stand for in aviation?
Quick Reference Handbook
628
What does FCOM stand for?
Flight Crew Operating Manual
629
What are the components of the B787 documentation mentioned?
* B787 QRH * B787 FCOM * B787 Weight and Balance Documents
630
What does HUD stand for?
Head-Up Display
631
What do the outer tic marks on the lateral and vertical scales of the HUD represent?
RNP (Required Navigation Performance)
632
What does the center tic mark represent in the HUD Navigation Performance Indications?
Airplane position
633
What do the bars on the lateral scale represent?
ANP (Actual Navigation Performance)
634
What indicates the margin available to remain within RNP criteria?
The area between the bars
635
When do the bars on the vertical scale display?
During FMC descent phase of flight
636
What happens if ANP equals or exceeds RNP?
* Solid bars meet in the middle * After five seconds, bars become hollow and blink for three seconds * NAV UNABLE RNP EICAS message is displayed
637
What indicates that RNP operations can no longer be maintained?
Bars and indices blink for three seconds
638
What occurs if the pointer migrates into the bar area for five seconds?
* Bars become hollow and blink for 3 seconds * Indices blink for 3 seconds * Pointer blinks for 10 seconds
639
What is displayed when the pointer blinks for ten seconds?
It then becomes steady
640
The HUD Instrument Landing System Indications are intended to show differences between which two systems?
HUD and PFD (Primary Flight Display)
641
What does the term 'G/S' refer to in the context of HUD indications?
Glide Slope
642
Fill in the blank: The HUD indicates _____ during the Instrument Landing System.
SPD, LOC, ROLLOUT, G/S, FLARE
643
What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) in the B787 show during an approach?
Displays the selected ILS/GLS identifier or frequency, approach front course, and ILS/GLS DME distance, and source annunciation ## Footnote The HUD provides critical information for pilots during instrument approaches.
644
What indicates a disagreement in the tuned ILS/GLS frequencies on the HUD?
The frequency displayed has a horizontal line through it ## Footnote This visual cue helps pilots identify potential navigation issues.
645
What does a filled diamond pointer indicate on the localizer scale?
Within 2 1/2 dots from the center ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is close to being on course for the localizer.
646
Under what conditions does the localizer pointer flash at low radio altitudes?
When the autopilot is engaged or flight director is on and there is excessive localizer deviation ## Footnote This alert aids pilots in correcting their approach to capture the localizer.
647
What happens to the glideslope pointer when the glideslope signal is received?
It appears as an unfilled diamond ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is receiving the necessary signals for vertical guidance.
648
What does a filled diamond on the glideslope scale signify?
Within 2 1/2 dots from the scale center ## Footnote This shows that the aircraft is approaching the correct vertical flight path.
649
What remains in view after the frequency is tuned if NPS are not shown?
The scale for localizer and glideslope indications ## Footnote This helps ensure that pilots have continuous visual reference to their navigation systems.
650
True or False: The localizer pointer remains in view only until localizer capture.
False ## Footnote The pointer remains in view with LNAV or VNAV active or armed until localizer capture.
651
Fill in the blank: The pointer indicates the glideslope position relative to the airplane and is an _______ when it appears.
unfilled diamond ## Footnote This is a standard indication for the glideslope in the HUD.
652
What visual indication occurs if the localizer is not captured at low altitudes with LNAV active?
The pointer flashes ## Footnote This alert is crucial for maintaining proper navigation during critical phases of flight.
653
What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) in the B787 show during an approach?
Displays the selected ILS/GLS identifier or frequency, approach front course, and ILS/GLS DME distance, and source annunciation ## Footnote The HUD provides critical information for pilots during instrument approaches.
654
What indicates a disagreement in the tuned ILS/GLS frequencies on the HUD?
The frequency displayed has a horizontal line through it ## Footnote This visual cue helps pilots identify potential navigation issues.
655
What does a filled diamond pointer indicate on the localizer scale?
Within 2 1/2 dots from the center ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is close to being on course for the localizer.
656
Under what conditions does the localizer pointer flash at low radio altitudes?
When the autopilot is engaged or flight director is on and there is excessive localizer deviation ## Footnote This alert aids pilots in correcting their approach to capture the localizer.
657
What happens to the glideslope pointer when the glideslope signal is received?
It appears as an unfilled diamond ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is receiving the necessary signals for vertical guidance.
658
What does a filled diamond on the glideslope scale signify?
Within 2 1/2 dots from the scale center ## Footnote This shows that the aircraft is approaching the correct vertical flight path.
659
What remains in view after the frequency is tuned if NPS are not shown?
The scale for localizer and glideslope indications ## Footnote This helps ensure that pilots have continuous visual reference to their navigation systems.
660
True or False: The localizer pointer remains in view only until localizer capture.
False ## Footnote The pointer remains in view with LNAV or VNAV active or armed until localizer capture.
661
Fill in the blank: The pointer indicates the glideslope position relative to the airplane and is an _______ when it appears.
unfilled diamond ## Footnote This is a standard indication for the glideslope in the HUD.
662
What visual indication occurs if the localizer is not captured at low altitudes with LNAV active?
The pointer flashes ## Footnote This alert is crucial for maintaining proper navigation during critical phases of flight.
663
What does the pointer indicate at low radio altitudes with the autopilot engaged or flight director on?
Flashes to indicate excessive glideslope deviation ## Footnote This is a critical safety feature in the Head-Up Display (HUD) system.
664
What does the Expanded Localizer Scale display when the autopilot or flight director is in LOC mode?
A more sensitive display when close to the runway center line ## Footnote This feature aids in precise navigation during approach.
665
What does a rectangle equal in the Expanded Localizer indications?
1/2 dot deviation ## Footnote This measurement helps pilots gauge their lateral position relative to the runway centerline.
666
During which operations do expanded localizer indications also display?
HUD takeoff operations ## Footnote This assists pilots during the critical phase of takeoff.
667
What is the purpose of the HUD Instrument Landing System?
To provide visual guidance during landing ## Footnote This system enhances situational awareness and precision for pilots.
668
Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM is part of the _____ documents.
Weight and Balance ## Footnote This documentation is essential for safe aircraft operation.
669
What does the pointer indicate at low radio altitudes with the autopilot engaged or flight director on?
Flashes to indicate excessive glideslope deviation ## Footnote This is a critical safety feature in the Head-Up Display (HUD) system.
670
What does the Expanded Localizer Scale display when the autopilot or flight director is in LOC mode?
A more sensitive display when close to the runway center line ## Footnote This feature aids in precise navigation during approach.
671
What does a rectangle equal in the Expanded Localizer indications?
1/2 dot deviation ## Footnote This measurement helps pilots gauge their lateral position relative to the runway centerline.
672
During which operations do expanded localizer indications also display?
HUD takeoff operations ## Footnote This assists pilots during the critical phase of takeoff.
673
What is the purpose of the HUD Instrument Landing System?
To provide visual guidance during landing ## Footnote This system enhances situational awareness and precision for pilots.
674
Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM is part of the _____ documents.
Weight and Balance ## Footnote This documentation is essential for safe aircraft operation.
675
What is the B787 QRH?
B787 Quick Reference Handbook ## Footnote A manual providing essential information for pilots to reference during flight operations.
676
What does FCOM stand for in the context of the B787?
Flight Crew Operating Manual ## Footnote A comprehensive guide outlining the operation of the aircraft for flight crew.
677
What is indicated by the HUD Altitude Indica in the Head-Up Display System?
Selected Altitude ## Footnote Displays the altitude set in the MCP altitude window.
678
What happens to the selected altitude display prior to reaching the selected altitude?
The selected altitude is boxed between 900 feet and 200 feet prior to reaching the selected altitude ## Footnote This visual cue helps pilots track their approach to the set altitude.
679
What does the Current Altitude display indicate?
Current ADRS altitude ## Footnote Shows the aircraft's current altitude as measured by the Air Data Reference System.
680
What occurs when the current altitude deviates beyond 200 feet from the selected altitude?
Boxed outline around current altitude flashes ## Footnote This alerts the crew to the significant deviation from the selected altitude.
681
When does the alerting terminate regarding altitude deviation?
If deviation continues beyond 900 feet from selected altitude ## Footnote The system stops alerting when the deviation becomes extreme.
682
What are the HUD Landing Altitude/Minimums Indications?
5000, 2400, 2200, 1800 ## Footnote These values represent the minimum altitude indications for safe landing.
683
Fill in the blank: The B787 Weight and Balance Documents provide essential information regarding _______.
weight distribution and balance of the aircraft ## Footnote Critical for ensuring the aircraft is within safe operational limits.
684
What does the hollow bar on the Head-Up Display (HUD) indicate?
Height above touchdown between 500 to 1000 feet ## Footnote The hollow bar represents the altitude range above the landing altitude.
685
What does the filled bar on the HUD indicate?
Height above touchdown between 0 to 500 feet ## Footnote The filled bar indicates the altitude range closer to the landing altitude.
686
What is represented by the triangular bug and line on the altitude scale?
BARO minimums displayed ## Footnote This visual cue indicates when the aircraft descends below the barometric minimums.
687
How long does the BARO minimums pointer flash when below minimums?
Flashes for 3 seconds, then steady ## Footnote This alerts the crew that the aircraft has descended below the set barometric minimums.
688
What does the EFIS control panel MINS reference selector set to BARO display?
Displays BARO minimums altitude in feet MSL ## Footnote MSL stands for Mean Sea Level.
689
What does the EFIS control panel MINS reference selector set to RADIO display?
Displays RADIO minimums altitude in feet AGL ## Footnote AGL stands for Above Ground Level.
690
What happens when the airplane descends below the selected minimum altitude?
Flashes for 3 seconds, then steady ## Footnote This indicates to the crew that the aircraft is below the minimum altitude set for the approach.
691
What are BARO minimums expressed in?
Feet MSL ## Footnote Mean Sea Level is used as a reference for barometric altitudes.
692
What are RADIO minimums expressed in?
Radio altitude feet AGL ## Footnote This is based on the aircraft's height above the ground.
693
What does the barometric setting indicate on the EFIS control panel?
The barometric setting selected on the EFIS control panel barometric selector.
694
What does 'STD' indicate on the EFIS control panel?
'STD' is displayed when STD is selected on the EFIS control panel barometric STD switch.
695
When is the display boxed regarding barometric settings?
If a barometric setting is set and altitude climbs above the transition altitude, or if STD is set and altitude descends below the transition flight level.
696
What does QFE indicate on the CDU APPROACH REF page?
Indicates QFE altitude reference selected.
697
How long is QFE boxed when selected?
QFE is boxed for 10 seconds when selected.
698
What happens when QNH is selected on the CDU?
QNH is displayed for 10 seconds, then blanks.
699
What does 'L' or 'R' indicate in the Autopilot/Flight Director Barometric Source?
'L' or 'R' indicates that the left or right EFIS control panel is the barometric setting reference.
700
When is the barometric source displayed on the HUD?
Displayed when a flight director switch is in the ON position or the autopilot is engaged.
701
What does F/D indicate when one is turned on and one is not?
Determines 'L' or 'R'.
702
What is indicated when both flight directors are on?
'L' is displayed.
703
How is the barometric setting determined when the autopilot is engaged?
The first one pushed on determines 'L' or 'R'.
704
What are the two types of barometric settings mentioned?
* QFE * QNH
705
Fill in the blank: The selected track bug and selected heading bug are not displayed at the same time. _______
[key learning term]
706
What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) indicate?
The current track and drift angle. ## Footnote The HUD provides critical flight information directly in the pilot's line of sight.
707
What is displayed when HDG (heading) is selected on the HUD?
SEL HDG. ## Footnote This indicates the selected heading reference on the HUD.
708
What is displayed when TRK (track) is selected on the HUD?
SEL TRK. ## Footnote This indicates the selected track reference on the HUD.
709
What happens if the selected heading/track exceeds the display range?
The bug parks on the side of the compass rose and horizon line heading scale. ## Footnote The direction of the bug indicates the shorter turn to the selected heading.
710
How is the selected heading/track represented when it cannot be displayed?
The symbol's outline is depicted with dashed lines. ## Footnote This indicates that the selected heading/track can no longer be displayed on the HUD.
711
What does the digital display on the HUD show?
The current heading and the selected heading or track bug. ## Footnote The digital heading corresponds to the heading on the horizon reference line.
712
What are the two types of heading/track references displayed?
* MAG (magnetic north) * TRU (true north) ## Footnote These references can be automatically or manually selected.
713
What does HUD stand for in aviation?
Head-Up Display ## Footnote The HUD provides critical flight information directly in the pilot's line of sight.
714
What does the TO/GA Reference Line indicate?
It indicates the flight director TO/GA mode is active ## Footnote TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go-Around.
715
Under what conditions is the TO/GA Reference Line displayed on the ground?
When flight director TO/GA mode is active and groundspeed is greater than 65 knots ## Footnote This ensures that the indication is relevant for takeoff scenarios.
716
When is the TO/GA Reference Line displayed in the air?
When flight director TO/GA mode is active ## Footnote This helps pilots maintain situational awareness during critical phases of flight.
717
What type of information does the HUD display that is unique compared to the PFD?
HUD-Unique Indications and Symbology ## Footnote These indications provide specific guidance and information relevant to the HUD's operational context.
718
Fill in the blank: The HUD does have some unique indications not found on the _______.
PFD ## Footnote PFD stands for Primary Flight Display.
719
What is the significance of Ground Deviation Indications on the HUD during takeoff?
They provide critical information for maintaining the correct flight path ## Footnote This is essential for safe takeoff and initial climb.
720
What does HUD stand for?
Head-Up Display ## Footnote HUD provides critical flight information while allowing the pilot to maintain situational awareness.
721
What is the purpose of the Ground Deviation Indications on the HUD during takeoff?
To display the aircraft's position relative to the intended flight path ## Footnote This helps pilots ensure they are on the correct takeoff trajectory.
722
What does the On Course Line indicate?
The aircraft is following the planned flight path ## Footnote It is important for maintaining proper navigation during flight.
723
What is indicated by the Right of Course Line on the HUD?
The aircraft is deviating to the right of the intended flight path ## Footnote This prompts the pilot to adjust course to return to the planned route.
724
What does the Flight Director Guidance Cue provide?
Guidance for the pilot to follow the desired flight path ## Footnote This cue assists in manual flying and enhances situational awareness.
725
What information is displayed by the Ground Roll Reference Symbol?
The aircraft's current ground roll status during takeoff ## Footnote This helps pilots monitor their speed and trajectory on the runway.
726
Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM is a _______.
[Flight Crew Operations Manual] ## Footnote The FCOM contains essential operational procedures and guidelines for pilots.
727
True or False: The HUD provides unique indications and symbology relevant to flight operations.
True ## Footnote These indications are critical for safe and efficient flight management.
728
What does VNAV stand for in aviation terminology?
[Vertical Navigation] ## Footnote VNAV is used to manage altitude changes during flight.
729
What is the significance of the HOLD indication on the HUD?
It indicates the aircraft should hold its current course or altitude ## Footnote This is often used in holding patterns or during approach.
730
What does the HUD Takeoff Ground Roll Reference Symbol display?
Displays airplane position relative to the localizer ## Footnote This symbol helps pilots understand their alignment with the runway during takeoff.
731
What does the Ground Excessive Deviation Symbol indicate?
Indicates excessive deviation (more than 23 feet) from localizer course line during takeoff roll ## Footnote The flashing triangle points in the direction of the runway centerline.
732
When does the Flight Director Guidance Cue appear during a normal takeoff?
At approximately 50 feet RA ## Footnote RA stands for Radio Altitude.
733
What happens to the Flight Director Guidance Cue during a HUD takeoff?
Appears with the flight path vector symbol during the ground to air transition ## Footnote This cue assists pilots in transitioning from ground operations to flight.
734
At what altitude is the Flight Director Guidance Cue removed from the HUD on approach?
Approximately 50 feet RA ## Footnote This indicates a critical phase of landing where manual control may be needed.
735
What does the Flight Path Vector Symbol display?
Displays actual flight path vector of the airplane as derived from IRS ## Footnote IRS stands for Inertial Reference System.
736
When does the Flight Path Vector Symbol appear?
Only in flight ## Footnote This symbol is crucial for pilots to understand their current flight trajectory.
737
What does the Flight Director Guidance Cue do during windshear alerting?
The cue fills (solid) during windshear alerting and when TO/GA pitch mode is active ## Footnote TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go-Around, indicating a critical operational mode.
738
What does the Flight Path Acceleration symbol indicate?
The inertial acceleration (or deceleration) of the airplane along the flight path. ## Footnote This symbol is removed from the display when low-level, decreasing performance windshear is detected below 400 feet AGL.
739
When is the Speed Error Tape displayed?
It is not displayed until first flap retraction. ## Footnote The Speed Error Tape shows the difference between the indicated airspeed and the selected airspeed.
740
What happens to the Speed Error Tape when the indicated airspeed is faster than the selected speed?
The Speed Error Tape rises above the wing. ## Footnote Conversely, if the airspeed is slower than the selected speed, the Speed Error Tape falls below the wing.
741
What does it mean if the Flight Path Acceleration symbol is above the flight path vector symbol?
The airplane is accelerating.
742
What does it mean if the Flight Path Acceleration symbol is below the flight path vector symbol?
The airplane is decelerating.
743
What does the Speed Error Tape display?
The difference between the indicated airspeed and the selected airspeed or flight management system commanded airspeed.
744
True or False: The Flight Path Acceleration symbol remains on the display during low-level windshear conditions.
False.
745
Fill in the blank: The Speed Error Tape is displayed only after _______.
first flap retraction.
746
What type of indications does the HUD provide?
Unique indications and symbology related to flight path acceleration and speed error.
747
What is the significance of the 4G 76% mentioned in the context of the B787?
It refers to the aircraft's performance capabilities, specifically in terms of acceleration.
748
What document provides operational information for the B787?
B787 FCOM ## Footnote FCOM stands for Flight Crew Operating Manual
749
What does the Slip/Skid Indicator reference during takeoff or low altitude go-around?
Flight path vector symbol ## Footnote It provides yaw reference in the event of engine failure
750
When is the Wind Speed and Direction displayed?
When wind speed exceeds 6 knots and the airplane is not on the ground ## Footnote This display indicates wind speed and direction with respect to display orientation
751
What does the Digital Heading display show?
Current heading corresponding to the horizon reference line
752
What are the components displayed on the Pitch Scale?
Pitch Scale Chevrons and Pitch Scale Compression
753
What type of indications are unique to the Head-Up Display System?
Slip/Skid Indicator and other HUD-specific symbology
754
Fill in the blank: The B787 Weight and Balance Documents are part of the _______.
B787 documentation
755
True or False: The Slip/Skid Indicator is displayed during cruise flight.
False
756
What flight conditions activate the display of the Slip/Skid Indicator?
During takeoff or low altitude go-around
757
What is indicated by the digital heading in the B787?
The current heading of the aircraft
758
What does B787 QRH stand for?
B787 Quick Reference Handbook
759
What is the purpose of the B787 FCOM?
B787 Flight Crew Operations Manual
760
What type of documents are included in B787 Weight and Balance?
Weight and Balance Documents
761
What does FAM stand for in the context of B787 documentation?
Flight Attendant Manual
762
What does the Head-Up Display (HUD) provide in the B787?
Unique Indications and Symbology
763
What happens to the pitch scale when the horizon reference line is parked at the limit of the display?
Pitch scale compresses due to excessive pitch angle
764
What does the Upper Pitch Scale Chevron indicate?
Apply pitch down
765
What does the Lower Pitch Scale Chevron indicate?
Apply pitch up
766
Fill in the blank: The pitch scale compresses if the horizon reference line or the flight path vector symbol are parked at the limit of the display because of excessive _______.
pitch angle
767
True or False: The Pitch Scale Chevron directs the pilot to apply pitch down at +30°.
True
768
True or False: The Pitch Scale Chevron directs the pilot to apply pitch up at +20°.
False
769
What is displayed when pitch is less than -20°?
Unusual Attitude (UA) symbology
770
What conditions trigger the display of Unusual Attitude (UA) symbology?
• Pitch is less than -20° • Pitch is greater than +35° • Roll exceeds 55° in either direction
771
Under what conditions does Unusual Attitude (UA) symbology stop displaying?
• Pitch angle is between -5° and 10° for 5 seconds • Roll angle is less than 10° for 5 seconds
772
Where is the Zenith Symbol displayed?
Center of HUD pitch scale at +90° pitch line
773
Where is the Nadir Symbol displayed?
Center of HUD pitch scale at -90° pitch line
774
What does the Runway Edge Lines and Glideslope Reference Line indicate?
4G 76%
775
Fill in the blank: Unusual Attitude symbology remains displayed until pitch angle is between _______ and _______ for 5 seconds.
-5°, 10°
776
True or False: Roll angle must be less than 5° for 5 seconds to stop displaying Unusual Attitude symbology.
False
777
What is the maximum roll angle that triggers Unusual Attitude symbology?
55° in either direction
778
What does the B787 FCOM include?
B787 QRH, B787 Weight and Balance Documents, B787 FCOM @ FAM ## Footnote FCOM stands for Flight Crew Operations Manual.
779
What unique indications does the Head-Up Display System (HUD) provide?
Displays HUD-Unique Indications and Symbology ## Footnote The HUD enhances situational awareness for pilots.
780
What is displayed when the VREF speed is selected during an approach?
Display of the glideslope or glidepath value for the active approach ## Footnote This information is crucial for maintaining the correct flight path.
781
At what height is the glideslope reference line removed from the HUD?
70 feet ## Footnote This is a standard procedure to minimize information overload during landing.
782
What is the default value for the digital glideslope angle if no approach is selected?
3° ## Footnote This ensures a standard approach angle is maintained when no specific angle is provided.
783
When is the runway symbol displayed in the HUD?
Only in decluttered mode ## Footnote This helps reduce visual clutter for pilots during critical phases of flight.
784
At what height is the runway symbol removed from the HUD?
60 feet ## Footnote This is part of the transition to visual references during landing.
785
What do the tick marks on runway edge lines correspond to?
Touchdown aiming point ## Footnote These marks assist pilots in aligning with the runway for landing.
786
What does the ground deceleration scale indicate?
Ground deceleration rates ## Footnote This information is vital for managing aircraft speed on the runway.
787
What does the vertical position of the Flight Path Acceleration symbol indicate?
The actual inertial deceleration rate of the airplane
788
What does the Ground Deceleration Scale display?
The actual deceleration rate being achieved ## Footnote It is provided by the corresponding autobrake setting (1, 2, 3, 4, MAX AUTO)
789
When is the Ground Deceleration Scale displayed during flight?
Displayed on landing and on takeoff if a deceleration is sensed with groundspeed above 50 knots and airplane is still on ground
790
Under what conditions is the Ground Deceleration Scale removed from the display?
When groundspeed decreases below 25 knots, airplane begins accelerating, or airplane lifts off
791
What does the B787 FCOM refer to?
B787 Flight Crew Operating Manual
792
What is indicated by the HUD-Unique Indications and Symbology section in the B787 FCOM?
Specific indications and symbology unique to the Head-Up Display system
793
Fill in the blank: The Ground Deceleration Scale is a _______ indexed scale and pointer.
vertical
794
What is the purpose of HUD Controls in the B787?
To manage and manipulate the Head-Up Display settings
795
What is the purpose of the Combiner in the B787 Head-Up Display System?
Combines the overhead unit projected flight symbology with the pilot's view through forward window ## Footnote This allows pilots to see critical flight information without looking down at instruments.
796
What does the Combiner Locking Lever do?
Locks and releases the combiner assembly for deployment ## Footnote The locking lever must be engaged to secure the combiner in its stowed position.
797
How is the Combiner Locking Lever released?
Push lock release to right to release combiner assembly for deployment ## Footnote This action allows the combiner to be folded down for use.
798
What should be ensured before operating the Combiner?
Ensure the combiner is fully raised and securely latched in the stowed position ## Footnote This is a precaution to prevent the possibility of injury.
799
True or False: The Combiner Locking Lever can be in a stowed position.
True ## Footnote The stowed position is shown when the lever is folded upward towards the overhead panel.
800
What are the five primary groups of information displayed to the flight crew?
* Primary Flight Display (PFD) with mini-map * Navigation Display (ND) * Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) * Auxiliary Display (AUX) * Multifunction Display (MFD)
801
What is the default configuration of displays after power-up with PFD/MFD selectors set to NORM?
* PFDs on the two outboard display units (DUs) * Normal-display ND on the left MFD of the captain inboard DU * Full-display ND on the First Officer inboard DU * EICAS in the right MFD window of the captain inboard DU * CDU in each MFD window of the lower DU
802
Fill in the blank: The flight instruments and displays supply information to the flight crew on five flat panel _______ units.
liquid crystal display
803
True or False: The Primary Flight Display (PFD) includes a mini-map.
True
804
What are the sections in the B787 FCOM that provide additional information about displays? List any three.
* Head-Up Display System - Displays, Chapter 10, Section 12 * Primary Flight Displays (PFDs), Chapter 10, Section 30 * Navigation Displays, Chapter 10, Section 40
805
How many flat panel liquid crystal display units are used to supply information to the flight crew?
Five
806
Fill in the blank: The Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System is abbreviated as _______.
EICAS
807
Which display shows a normal-display ND in the default configuration?
Left MFD of the captain inboard DU
808
What is displayed in the right MFD window of the captain inboard DU?
EICAS
809
In the default configuration, where is the CDU displayed?
In each MFD window of the lower DU
810
What are the typical configurations for the displays during normal operations in a B787?
PFDs on the two outboard DUs EICAS in either right MFD window of captain inboard DU or left MFD window of First Officer inboard DU Normal-display ND in MFD window on same inboard DU as EICAS Full-display ND on inboard DU without EICAS CDU in each MFD window of lower DU ## Footnote PFD stands for Primary Flight Display and ND stands for Navigation Display. EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System. CDU stands for Control Display Unit.
811
How many MFDs are available at any one time on the B787 flight deck?
Five MFDs ## Footnote MFD stands for Multifunction Display.
812
What are the three management options for additional instances of a display format in the B787?
* Synchronized * Independent * Blank ## Footnote Synchronized means a copy of an already displayed instance. Independent means not linked to any other instance. Blank occurs when the maximum number of instances is exceeded.
813
What happens when a third INFO instance is opened on the B787?
"SELECT MFD - INFO NOT AVAILABLE" shows, and no INFO function can show for that instance ## Footnote There is a limit of two functional instances for the INFO format.
814
What is the maximum number of instances that each format can show on the B787?
* SYS: 2 per side, independent * CDU: 1 per side, independent * INFO: 2 per side, independent * CHKL: 1 per side, synchronized * COMM: 1 per side, independent * ND: 1 per side, independent ## Footnote SYS refers to System Display, CDU is Control Display Unit, INFO refers to Information Display, CHKL refers to Checklist Display, COMM refers to Communication Display, and ND refers to Navigation Display.
815
True or False: Each MFD window can show multiple instances of the same format simultaneously.
False ## Footnote Only one instance of each format can be displayed at a time.
816
Fill in the blank: The message displayed when the selected display exceeds the maximum number of instances allowed is "_______".
"SELECT MFD." ## Footnote This message indicates that additional pilot selection is required to replace the blank display.
817
What is the maximum number of functional instances allowed in the SYS format?
Three functional instances ## Footnote If a fourth instance is opened, a message indicates that the SYS function is not available.
818
What does the EFIS control panel control?
Display options, mode, and range for PFDs and NDs ## Footnote Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) and Navigation Displays (NDs) are referenced in specific chapters.
819
What happens if an EFIS control panel fails?
Displays can be controlled through the backup EFIS/DSP display on the SYS page ## Footnote This backup capability is available at all times but inhibits inputs from the EFIS control panel.
820
How can pilots control the ND on the lower DU?
Both pilots have access to the lower DU; the first pilot to select an ND controls the full-display ND ## Footnote A single full-display ND is shown when each pilot selects an ND into a window.
821
What is the function of the Display Select Panel (DSP)?
Controls the MFDs for the on-side inboard DU ## Footnote Each pilot has a DSP on the glareshield.
822
What does the ENG switch do on the Display Select Panel?
Toggles the display of secondary engine information on the EICAS display ## Footnote EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.
823
What is the purpose of the EICAS transfer switch?
Transfers the EICAS display between the inboard half of the captain and first officer inboard DUs ## Footnote This allows for shared access to engine information.
824
What does the MASTER BRIGHTNESS control adjust?
Brightness for all displays and panel lighting simultaneously ## Footnote Each display unit also has an individual control for brightness adjustment.
825
Fill in the blank: The Multifunction Keypad (MFK) has _______ located on the top.
Lower Display Switches ## Footnote These switches provide control over the on-side MFD on the lower DU.
826
True or False: The DSP control is not available when the EFIS backup is enabled.
False ## Footnote DSP control remains active if the DSP is still functional.
827
What does the MASTER BRIGHTNESS control do?
Provides simultaneous brightness adjustment for all displays and panel lighting ## Footnote Individual controls exist for each display unit, offering limited range control when master brightness is on, and full range control when off.
828
How do the remote light sensors function?
Measure brightness in the forward field of view and adjust overall display brightness ## Footnote Located left and right on the top of the glareshield.
829
What is the purpose of the PFD/MFD selector?
Used to switch displays if there is undetected display unit failure
830
What happens when the PFD/MFD selector is in the inboard position (INBD DU)?
The outboard display unit is blanked and the inboard display unit shows cropped PFD and EICAS if previously displayed ## Footnote Otherwise, shows whichever display was shown instead of EICAS before the failure.
831
What occurs when the PFD/MFD selector is in the outboard position (OUTBD DU)?
The inboard display unit is blanked; outboard half shows cropped PFD, inboard half displays EICAS if previously shown ## Footnote Otherwise, shows whichever display was shown instead of EICAS before the failure.
832
What does the AIR DATA/ATT source selector control?
Controls the source of airspeed, altitude, and attitude information for the associated PFD and HUD
833
What is the effect of the AIR DATA/ATT source selector on the autoflight or navigation system?
It has no effect on the autoflight or navigation system
834
What does the non-normal (ALTN) position on the AIR DATA/ATT source selector allow?
Provides the capability for manual selection of PFD and HUD sources in case of undetected source failure
835
What is the default display configuration when the PFD/MFD DISPLAY selectors are set to NORM?
The inboard DUs display NDs and EICAS
836
Fill in the blank: The automatic display brightness control system also affects the brightness of _______.
[EFBs, mode control panel displays, standby flight instruments, aisle stand panel displays]
837
True or False: The display system automatically reconfigures to compensate for most faults.
True
838
What happens if an outboard DU fails?
The PFD automatically moves to the outboard MFD window of the inboard DU ## Footnote The PFD is cropped on both sides and the AUX display is removed.
839
Can the EICAS transfer switch function normally if an outboard DU fails?
Yes, the EICAS transfer switch on each EFIS control panel can still function normally.
840
What occurs when both outboard DUs fail?
The AUX display is not shown on any DU.
841
Fill in the blank: If an outboard DU fails, the _______ automatically moves to the outboard MFD window of the inboard DU.
[PFD]
842
True or False: The AUX display remains visible on at least one DU when both outboard DUs fail.
False
843
What happens if an inboard DU fails?
The EICAS display automatically moves to the other inboard DU.
844
What must be done to move the EICAS display if both inboard DUs fail?
The pilots must use the PFD/MFD selector to manually reconfigure the displays.
845
True or False: The EICAS transfer switch can move the EICAS display if the displays are not manually reconfigured.
False.
846
Fill in the blank: If both inboard DUs fail, the EICAS can __________.
not be displayed.
847
What is the role of the PFD/MFD selector in the event of a DU failure?
To manually reconfigure the displays for EICAS display.
848
What should be set on the PFD/MFD selector if an outboard DU fails?
INBD DU
849
What happens to the PFD when it moves to the outboard MFD window of the inboard DU?
The PFD is cropped on both sides and the AUX display is removed
850
Can the EICAS transfer switch on each EFIS control panel function normally after an outboard DU failure?
Yes
851
What are the three display types mentioned in the context of manual switching?
* PFD * MFD * EICAS
852
Fill in the blank: If an outboard DU fails, the appropriate PFD/MFD selector is set to _______.
INBD DU
853
True or False: The AUX display remains visible when the PFD moves to the outboard MFD window of the inboard DU.
False
854
What happens if an inboard DU fails?
The EICAS display automatically moves to the other inboard DU.
855
How do you place EICAS on the outboard DU of either side?
Set the PFD/MFD selector to OUTBD DU.
856
What does the acronym EICAS stand for?
Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.
857
What are the components involved in the B787 display selection?
* HUD * AUX * PFD * EICAS * MFD
858
Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM stands for _______.
[Flight Crew Operating Manual]
859
True or False: The B787 QRH includes weight and balance documents.
True
860
What are the two types of display units mentioned for the B787?
* Inboard DU * Outboard DU
861
What does the PFD/MFD selector control in the B787?
The selection of display units for EICAS and other information.
862
What does HUD stand for?
Heads-Up Display.
863
List the display options available in the B787.
* PFD * MFD * EICAS * AUX * HUD
864
What is the purpose of the EICAS transfer switches?
To toggle the EICAS display between the captain inboard DU and the first officer inboard DU ## Footnote EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System, which is crucial for displaying engine and system information.
865
What does EICAS stand for?
Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System ## Footnote EICAS is vital for providing real-time data about engine performance and alerts to the flight crew.
866
Fill in the blank: The EICAS transfer switches toggle the EICAS display between the captain inboard DU and the _______.
first officer inboard DU
867
Identify two components related to B787 systems.
* B787 QRH * B787 FCOM
868
What does FCOM stand for in the context of B787?
Flight Crew Operating Manual ## Footnote FCOM provides detailed information and procedures for the operation of the aircraft.
869
What type of documents are included in B787 Weight and Balance?
Flight Instruments, Displays ## Footnote These documents ensure that the aircraft is within safe weight limits for flight.
870
What systems can be controlled by the EICAS transfer switches?
* SYS * CHKL * MFD * CDU * INFO * COMM * ENG
871
True or False: The EICAS display can be switched to the MFD using the transfer switches.
True
872
What does MFD stand for?
Multi-Function Display ## Footnote MFDs are used to present various types of flight information and data to the pilots.
873
Fill in the blank: The EICAS transfer switches allow toggling between the EICAS display and the _______.
MFD
874
List the display options available for the EICAS system.
* AUX * PFD * MFD
875
What are the Cursor Control Devices (CCD) used for?
To control the display cursor in the flight deck ## Footnote The CCD, Multifunction Keypads (MFK), and EFIS control panels provide this functionality.
876
How does the on-side cursor behave when a display is deselected?
The cursor is not pulled to the default display ## Footnote The cursor is only pulled to a display if the pilot requests it.
877
What happens when a finger is lifted off the touch pad of the CCD?
The cursor does not move unless the finger is in contact with the touch pad ## Footnote Only finger motion while in contact with the touch pad moves the cursor.
878
What are the functions of tapping in the corner areas of the touch pad?
Immediately places the cursor in the corresponding corner of the display ## Footnote This feature helps pilots quickly locate the cursor.
879
What do the cursor location switches on the CCD do?
They move the cursor to the on-side EFB or MFD ## Footnote They can position the cursor to specific locations like upper left or soft keys.
880
What indicates where the cursor appears when a cursor location switch is used?
An annunciator light illuminates ## Footnote This light shows the location of the cursor on the display.
881
Fill in the blank: The Cursor Control Device (CCD) uses a _______.
touch pad
882
What is the primary purpose of the B787 Weight and Balance Documents?
To provide weight and balance information for the aircraft ## Footnote This is critical for flight safety and performance.
883
True or False: Each pilot in the B787 has different controls for their respective sides of the flight deck.
False ## Footnote Each pilot has an identical set of controls.
884
What chapters contain additional information about MFD Communications Functions?
Chapter S, Section 40 ## Footnote This chapter provides detailed information on MFD functionalities.
885
What feature allows pilots to quickly access selections at the corners of the display?
Tapping on the corners of the touch pad ## Footnote This action positions the cursor quickly for faster access.
886
What does the Multifunction Keypad (MFK) include?
The MFK includes the rotary Cursor Control Selector and the Cursor Select Switch ## Footnote The MFK is used to navigate and select options on displays.
887
How do you move the cursor between active areas in a display using the MFK?
Rotate the Cursor Control Selector ## Footnote This allows navigation through various selectable options.
888
What is the primary function of the EFIS control panel?
Provides cursor control of any on-side ND ## Footnote ND stands for Navigation Display.
889
What does the ND Mode Selector do?
Moves the highlight between MAP and PLAN modes for the ND ## Footnote It allows the user to switch between different display modes.
890
What items are highlighted with the ND Mode Selector?
Items on the ND drop-down menu ## Footnote This facilitates selection of options from the menu.
891
What must be highlighted to exit the drop-down menu on the ND?
MENU or EXIT keys ## Footnote These keys must be selected to close the menu.
892
What are the two components of the standby flight instruments?
* Integrated standby flight display * Standby magnetic compass ## Footnote These instruments provide essential flight information in case of primary instrument failure.
893
What information does the Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD) show?
* Attitude * Airspeed * Altitude * ILS * GLS * Heading ## Footnote The ISFD is critical for maintaining flight awareness.
894
From where does the ISFD receive airspeed and altitude data?
From the center pitot and static air data modules ## Footnote These modules are crucial for accurate air data measurement.
895
What provides the attitude information for the ISFD?
Internal inertial sensors ## Footnote These sensors detect changes in orientation.
896
What happens if the ISFD detects a momentary out-of-limit condition?
The attitude display may blank and a WAIT ATT or ATT: RST message may display ## Footnote This indicates a need for recalibration or reset.
897
What must be done to reset the attitude display in flight?
Push the Attitude Reset switch while in wings level, non-accelerated flight ## Footnote This ensures a stable environment for accurate reset.
898
What does the ATT 10s message indicate during an attitude reset?
It indicates that the airplane must maintain straight and level flight for 10 seconds ## Footnote Failure to do so results in an ATT:RST message.
899
What happens if the attitude reset is unsuccessful?
The ATT:RST message remains displayed and the attitude is not displayed ## Footnote This indicates a failure in the reset process.
900
What type of compass is provided as a standby magnetic compass?
A standard liquid-damped magnetic standby compass ## Footnote This design helps reduce oscillations and provides stable readings.
901
What does the card located near the standby magnetic compass provide?
Heading correction factors ## Footnote This helps in adjusting the compass for accurate readings.
902
What does the radio altimeter measure?
Airplane altitude above terrain ## Footnote Radio altitude is displayed on both the PFD and HUD.
903
How many radio altimeter systems are there?
Two: left and right ## Footnote If both systems are inoperative or degraded, an EICAS advisory message displays.
904
What happens if both RA systems are inoperative?
EICAS advisory message RADIO ALTIMETER L+R displays ## Footnote 'RA' is also displayed on both PFD and HUD.
905
What systems receive data from the radio altimeter?
* Autopilot system * Autothrottle * GPWS * TCAS * Weather radar * Primary flight control system ## Footnote These systems rely on radio altitude data for operation.
906
What are the two distinct areas of the AUX display?
* Clock/flight information * ATC datalink block ## Footnote The AUX area outboard of each PFD consists of these two areas.
907
What information is included in the clock/flight information area of the AUX display?
* Flight number * MIC readout * Transponder code * SELCAL * Airplane tail number * UTC time * Date * Elapsed flight time * Chrono dial and readout ## Footnote This information is located in the upper part of the AUX display.
908
What does the ATC datalink block display?
Uplinked messages, COMM system generated messages, and flight information messages ## Footnote Refer to ATC Messages in Chapter 5, Section 40, for additional information.
909
What is the function of the clocks on the AUX display?
* Derives UTC time and date from GPS data * Provides elapsed time * Provides chronograph functions ## Footnote Each clock operates independently.
910
When does the elapsed flight time timer start?
Automatically at weight off wheels ## Footnote It ends at weight on wheels plus 30 seconds.
911
What happens to the timer when v-speeds are entered into the CDU?
Timer resets to 00:00 ## Footnote The PFD 'NO VSPD' flag disappears.
912
True or False: The clocks on the AUX display are synchronized between the two pilot stations.
False ## Footnote The pilots have independent control of the chrono displays.
913
What is the primary source for attitude and inertial navigation position information in the B787?
Inertial Reference System (IRS) ## Footnote Major components include two inertial reference units (IRU) and two attitude heading reference units (AHRU).
914
What are the major components of the Inertial Reference System (IRS)?
* Two inertial reference units (IRU) * Two attitude heading reference units (AHRU) ## Footnote The IRS is crucial for providing navigation information.
915
What does the Inertial Reference Unit (IRU) process?
Information from internal gyros, accelerometers, and GPS inputs ## Footnote The IRU is the primary source for independent inertial navigation position information.
916
What is the function of the Attitude Heading Reference Units (AHRU)?
Provide attitude and heading information ## Footnote AHRUs are essential for navigation and aircraft control.
917
What does the Air Data Reference System (ADRS) provide?
Primary, secondary, and standby air data ## Footnote The ADRS is integral for accurate flight data.
918
List the major components of the Air Data Reference System (ADRS).
* Six air data modules * Six static ports * Three pitot probes * Two angle-of-attack sensors * One total air temperature probe ## Footnote These components work together to measure air data.
919
Where are the static ports located on the B787?
Three on the left side and three on the right side ## Footnote Static ports are paired through pneumatic tubing to the air data modules.
920
How do air data modules utilize static air pressure?
Convert static air pressure to a digital output ## Footnote This output is used by other systems for navigation and control.
921
Where are the pitot probes mounted on the B787?
* Right forward section (two probes) * Left forward section (one probe) ## Footnote Pitot probes measure dynamic air pressure.
922
True or False: The B787 has two angle-of-attack sensors.
True ## Footnote Angle-of-attack sensors are part of the Air Data Reference System.
923
Fill in the blank: The IRS is the primary source for _______ and inertial navigation position information.
attitude ## Footnote Attitude is crucial for navigation and aircraft stability.
924
What are the two components that measure airplane angle-of-attack?
Two angle-of-attack sensors located on each side of the forward fuselage
925
What does Angle-of-Attack Speed (AOA SPD) provide when air data is erroneous?
Backup airspeed indication based on angle of attack and inertial system inputs
926
What happens to AOA SPD indications during configuration changes or speedbrake use?
Subject to indication variations
927
What is the impact of AOA SPD showing due to air data anomalies?
Simplified flight control laws are used, increasing pitch control sensitivity
928
What is the reduced maximum speed indication due to AOA SPD accuracy limitations?
Reduced from 360K/.90M to 300K/.85M
929
What alerts are reduced when AOA SPD is automatically displayed?
OVERSPEED warning alerts
930
What is the function of the total air temperature probe on the airplane?
Sense air mass temperature
931
How many total air temperature inputs does the ADRS use?
Six inputs from total air temperature and EEC TAT sensors
932
What temperature is displayed on the CDU PROGRESS page?
Static air temperature
933
How does the ADRS compute total air temperature?
Using the total air temperature probe and weighted averages of sensor inputs
934
What is the purpose of the head-up displays (HUD) in the airplane?
Project flight data symbology onto a transparent glass combiner screen
935
True or False: The head-up displays operate independently from each other.
True
936
Fill in the blank: The AOA SPD is based on angle of attack and _______.
inertial system inputs
937
What occurs when both pilots select the AIR DATA / ATT source selector to the ALTN position?
AOA SPD is automatically displayed
938
What temperature data do sensors in CAC inlets provide when on the ground at less than 50 kts CAS?
ADRS TAT
939
What are the two components that measure airplane angle-of-attack?
Two angle-of-attack sensors located on each side of the forward fuselage
940
What does Angle-of-Attack Speed (AOA SPD) provide when air data is erroneous?
Backup airspeed indication based on angle of attack and inertial system inputs
941
What happens to AOA SPD indications during configuration changes or speedbrake use?
Subject to indication variations
942
What is the impact of AOA SPD showing due to air data anomalies?
Simplified flight control laws are used, increasing pitch control sensitivity
943
What is the reduced maximum speed indication due to AOA SPD accuracy limitations?
Reduced from 360K/.90M to 300K/.85M
944
What alerts are reduced when AOA SPD is automatically displayed?
OVERSPEED warning alerts
945
What is the function of the total air temperature probe on the airplane?
Sense air mass temperature
946
How many total air temperature inputs does the ADRS use?
Six inputs from total air temperature and EEC TAT sensors
947
What temperature is displayed on the CDU PROGRESS page?
Static air temperature
948
How does the ADRS compute total air temperature?
Using the total air temperature probe and weighted averages of sensor inputs
949
What is the purpose of the head-up displays (HUD) in the airplane?
Project flight data symbology onto a transparent glass combiner screen
950
True or False: The head-up displays operate independently from each other.
True
951
Fill in the blank: The AOA SPD is based on angle of attack and _______.
inertial system inputs
952
What occurs when both pilots select the AIR DATA / ATT source selector to the ALTN position?
AOA SPD is automatically displayed
953
What temperature data do sensors in CAC inlets provide when on the ground at less than 50 kts CAS?
ADRS TAT
954
What does the HUD and PFD receive flight data from?
The same sources ## Footnote HUD indications match PFD indications, though data format and symbology may differ.
955
Where are the overhead units located in the B787?
Above the head of each pilot
956
What type of projector is used in the HUD?
Monochromatic (green)
957
What are the only dedicated HUD controls?
Symbology and brightness controls
958
Does the HUD system have an ON/OFF switch?
No
959
What determines the data output on both the HUD and PFD?
Manipulation of the FMS, EFIS, and MCP controls
960
What is the function of the symbology control switches?
Allow the pilot to alternate between the two display modes
961
What does pulling out the brightness control allow for?
Manual adjustment of display brightness and contrast level
962
What happens when the brightness control is pushed in?
The HUD system automatically adjusts brightness to maintain constant display contrast
963
What is the purpose of the glass combiner?
To display flight data symbology onto the combiner glass
964
How is the combiner release accomplished?
By sliding the locking lever to the right
965
What message is shown if the combiner is not properly aligned?
ALIGN HUD message
966
What must be done to ensure the combiner is positioned correctly?
Position it at the stop to remove the ALIGN HUD message
967
What does the HUD and PFD receive flight data from?
The same sources ## Footnote HUD indications match PFD indications, though data format and symbology may differ.
968
Where are the overhead units located in the B787?
Above the head of each pilot
969
What type of projector is used in the HUD?
Monochromatic (green)
970
What are the only dedicated HUD controls?
Symbology and brightness controls
971
Does the HUD system have an ON/OFF switch?
No
972
What determines the data output on both the HUD and PFD?
Manipulation of the FMS, EFIS, and MCP controls
973
What is the function of the symbology control switches?
Allow the pilot to alternate between the two display modes
974
What does pulling out the brightness control allow for?
Manual adjustment of display brightness and contrast level
975
What happens when the brightness control is pushed in?
The HUD system automatically adjusts brightness to maintain constant display contrast
976
What is the purpose of the glass combiner?
To display flight data symbology onto the combiner glass
977
How is the combiner release accomplished?
By sliding the locking lever to the right
978
What message is shown if the combiner is not properly aligned?
ALIGN HUD message
979
What must be done to ensure the combiner is positioned correctly?
Position it at the stop to remove the ALIGN HUD message
980
What is the primary function of the combiner in the HUD system?
To prevent the pilot's head from impacting the combiner during sudden deceleration ## Footnote The combiner rotates forward and locks in a breakaway position.
981
What are the two alternate symbology modes displayed on the HUD?
* Full-symbology mode * Decluttered mode
982
How does the full-symbology mode differ from the decluttered mode?
Full-symbology displays speed and altitude tapes, while decluttered mode shows only digital values.
983
What common elements are included in the full-symbology HUD display?
* Speed and altitude tapes * Lateral and vertical navigation performance scales * Bank angle indicator * Flight mode annunciations (FMA) * Partial compass rose
984
True or False: The partial compass rose is displayed in full symbology mode during ground operations.
False
985
What alerting functions are affected by the monochromatic limitation of the HUD display?
Many alerting functions that use color symbology on the PFD may use flashing, shape filling/blanking, and highlight box symbology on the HUD.
986
What does the HUD pitch scale normally display?
5° lined increments above and below the horizon reference line.
987
What happens to the HUD pitch scale at higher altitudes?
The HUD horizon reference line may appear slightly above the actual horizon due to curvature of the earth.
988
What occurs when the HUD cannot show the horizon reference line due to excessive pitch?
The pitch scale compresses to display 10° increments.
989
What do the chevrons on the HUD indicate?
They direct the pilot to pitch the airplane back toward the horizon.
990
What pitch angle triggers the Unusual Attitude (UA) symbology?
When airplane pitch angle exceeds -20° or +35°.
991
What roll angle triggers the UA symbology?
When roll exceeds 55° in either direction.
992
What is displayed when the UA symbology is active?
Only the symbology necessary to help recover from the situation.
993
What replaces the full or decluttered symbology when UA is displayed?
The UA symbology replaces it.
994
What is the UA symbology in the HUD?
The UA symbology includes a zenith symbol centered on the +90° pitch scale line, and a nadir symbol centered on the -90° pitch scale line.
995
Under what conditions does the UA symbology remain displayed?
Until the airplane pitch angle is between -5° and +10° for 5 seconds and roll angle is less than 10° for 5 seconds.
996
What does the digital heading display show?
A numerical digital heading value that corresponds to the heading on the horizon reference line of the pitch scale.
997
What indications are included during a HUD takeoff?
Ground roll reference symbol, flight director guidance cue, and ILS/GLS localizer deviation pointer.
998
What triggers the flashing triangle during a HUD takeoff?
If the airplane deviates more than seven meters (23 feet) right or left from the runway centerline.
999
What is the function of the TO/GA reference line?
To depict flight director vertical guidance as a horizontal dashed line across the HUD pitch scale.
1000
When does the TO/GA reference line become visible during takeoff?
When groundspeed is greater than 65 knots.
1001
What does the flight path vector symbol indicate?
Where the airplane is going, derived from inertial sources.
1002
What is the angle of the flight path vector symbol's 'gull wing' wing roots?
30° to the horizontal.
1003
What happens when the TO/GA reference line is positioned above the airplane reference symbol?
A flight director pitch up command is displayed.
1004
Fill in the blank: The flight path angle is indicated by the position of the center of the flight path circle relative to the _______.
[pitch scale]
1005
True or False: The ground deviation indications during a HUD takeoff become active regardless of the airplane's heading.
False
1006
What is the maximum heading deviation allowed for the HUD takeoff guidance to be active?
45° of the runway heading.
1007
What is displayed when the TO/GA reference line is positioned below the airplane reference symbol?
A pitch down command.
1008
What condition must be met for the HUD takeoff guidance to be activated?
The plane must be within 2º of the center of the ILS localizer beam or 75 feet of the GLS localizer centerline.
1009
What is displayed in flight with priority over all other symbols except the guidance cue?
The flight path vector symbol ## Footnote The flight path vector symbol indicates the aircraft's intended flight path.
1010
What happens if another symbol is positioned inside the circle of the flight path vector symbol?
That portion of the other symbol is not displayed ## Footnote This helps to prioritize the flight path vector symbol for better situational awareness.
1011
What does the flight path vector symbol indicate when limited laterally by other symbology?
It has a dashed outline instead of a solid outline ## Footnote A dashed outline indicates that the current drift angle cannot be displayed.
1012
What does the guidance cue represent?
Flight director guidance ## Footnote The guidance cue appears when the flight directors are activated.
1013
When does the guidance cue appear during takeoff?
At 50 feet RA ## Footnote The guidance cue appears simultaneously with the flight path vector if a HUD takeoff is selected.
1014
What changes in the guidance cue during a windshear alert condition?
Changes from hollow to solid (filled) ## Footnote This change indicates an alert condition to the pilots.
1015
What does the angle-of-attack (AOA) limit symbol depict on the HUD?
The airplane's angle-of-attack limit ## Footnote This symbol provides critical information about the aircraft's performance and safety margins.
1016
What does the distance between the AOA limit symbol and the flight path vector symbol represent?
The margin available before stick shaker occurs ## Footnote This helps pilots maintain safe flight parameters.
1017
When is the AOA limit symbol displayed?
During any of the following: * angle of attack is within 5° of stick shaker * stick shaker is active * windshear alerting with solid guidance cue displayed ## Footnote These conditions indicate critical flight situations.
1018
What is the pitch limit indicator (PLI) displayed relative to on the PFD?
The airplane reference symbol ## Footnote The PLI provides similar information as the AOA limit symbol but is referenced differently.
1019
What are the two symbols that make up the Slip/Skid symbology?
The roll scale slip/skid indicator and the flight path slip/skid indicator ## Footnote These indicators help pilots assess the aircraft's lateral control and stability.
1020
What is the function of the flight path slip/skid indicator?
Displayed during takeoff or low-altitude go-around to provide additional yaw reference in case of engine failure ## Footnote The sensitivity of the slip/skid indicators is enhanced at low altitude to increase awareness.
1021
What does the 'fly-to box' indicate on the HUD?
Where the flight path vector symbol should be positioned to obtain vertical separation from traffic ## Footnote It's a double-lined box that directs an evasive maneuver.
1022
What does the speed error tape show?
The difference between the indicated airspeed and the selected airspeed on the mode control panel ## Footnote Selected airspeed on takeoff is V2, and flight director guidance airspeed is V2 + 15.
1023
When is the speed error tape displayed?
Not displayed until the first flap retraction ## Footnote This prevents incorrect interpretation of the speed error tape.
1024
How does the position of the speed error tape indicate airspeed status?
Rises above the wing if indicated airspeed is faster than selected speed, falls below if slower ## Footnote Each 1° length of tape represents approximately 5 knots of airspeed error, limited to a 15 knot error indication.
1025
What does the flight path acceleration symbol '›' indicate?
The inertial acceleration or deceleration of the airplane along the flight path ## Footnote It reflects the total sum of all forces affecting the airplane.
1026
Where is the flight path acceleration symbol positioned when the airplane is accelerating?
Above the wing of the flight path vector symbol ## Footnote If below, the airplane is decelerating; if directly left, it's in steady state.
1027
What happens to the flight path acceleration symbol during low-level windshear detection?
Removed from the display when a low-level, decreasing performance windshear is detected below 400 feet AGL ## Footnote This avoids confusion in controlling airplane thrust.
1028
What does the glideslope reference line depict during approach?
The projected glideslope angle of the active approach ## Footnote A horizontal dashed line across the HUD pitch scale with a numerical value displayed adjacent to it.
1029
What is the purpose of the glideslope reference line during visual approaches?
To maintain a precise descent angle to the runway by overlaying the reference line on the runway touchdown zone
1030
What do runway edge lines represent in the HUD?
A projection of an 8,000 foot long, 200 foot wide runway, displaying the calculated position of the runway
1031
How is the runway centerline for the HUD runway edge lines determined?
Based on the localizer course, not the geographic orientation of the runway
1032
When are runway edge lines displayed in decluttered mode?
Enabled at a radio altimeter altitude of 300 feet and removed at 60 feet
1033
What happens if radio altitude is not available for the runway edge lines?
The system will use barometric altitude above touchdown
1034
What inputs are necessary for the calculations of runway edge lines?
* Selected course for ILS and GLS approach procedures * Pitch * Roll * Heading * Barometric altitude * Radio altimeter * Localizer deviation * Glideslope deviation * Glideslope angle and elevation from the FMS
1035
What is the purpose of the ground deceleration rate scale?
To indicate the actual deceleration rate being achieved during landing or takeoff
1036
When is the ground deceleration rate scale displayed?
Displayed when a deceleration is sensed on takeoff and groundspeed is above 50 knots
1037
What happens to the ground deceleration rate scale when groundspeed decreases below 25 knots?
The scale is removed when groundspeed decreases below 25 knots, the airplane begins accelerating, or the airplane lifts off
1038
What information do Primary Flight Displays (PFDs) provide?
* Flight mode annunciation * Airspeed * Altitude * Vertical speed * Attitude * Radio altitude * Instrument landing system display * Approach minimums * Heading/track indications * Engine fail, GPWS, and PWS alerts
1039
What is displayed on the mini-maps in the B787 cockpit?
* Flight path * Flight plan waypoints with ID and constraints * Altitude profile points * Alternate airports * Runway information * TCAS targets * Terrain depiction and alert patterns * Weather radar return patterns * Heading/track indications ## Footnote Mini-maps provide immediate target and threat information and are placed below the PFDs directly in front of each pilot.
1040
What information is NOT displayed on the mini-maps?
* Untuned navaids * Background waypoints * Background airports ## Footnote For additional information, refer to ND Symbology in Chapter 10, Section 40.
1041
What happens to displayed information during airplane system failures?
Displayed information is removed or replaced by dashes if no valid information is available to the display system. ## Footnote Displays are removed when a source fails or when no system source information is available.
1042
How is airspeed displayed on the PFD of the B787?
* On a tape * In a digital window on the left side of the PFD * Current Mach number digitally displayed below the speed tape (if > 0.40) * Airspeed trend vector indicates predicted airspeed in 10 seconds * Selected airspeed displayed above the speed tape * Takeoff and landing reference speeds shown along the right edge * Maximum and minimum airspeeds also displayed along the right edge ## Footnote Caution: Reduced manoeuvre capability exists when operating within the amber regions below the minimum manoeuvring speed or above the maximum manoeuvring speed.
1043
What does an altitude trend vector indicate on the B787 PFD?
Predicted altitude in six seconds. ## Footnote Altitude is displayed on an altitude tape along the right side of the PFD and digitally in a window in the middle of the tape.
1044
Fill in the blank: The mini-maps in the B787 provide immediate target and threat information and are placed below the __________ directly in front of each pilot.
[PFDs]
1045
True or False: The B787 mini-maps display information about background airports.
False ## Footnote Mini-maps do not display untuned navaids, background waypoints, or background airports.
1046
What does PFD stand for in aviation?
Primary Flight Display ## Footnote The PFD provides essential flight data to pilots.
1047
How quickly can the B787 display current altitude?
In six seconds ## Footnote This rapid display helps pilots maintain situational awareness.
1048
What is displayed above the altitude window when meters is selected on the EFIS control panel?
Current altitude in meters ## Footnote This provides a clear indication of altitude in the metric system.
1049
What indicates the selected altitude on the altitude tape?
A boxed display and a bug ## Footnote The boxed display appears when approaching the selected altitude.
1050
What is indicated by the triangular pointer and green line on the altitude tape?
Selected barometric approach minimum ## Footnote This helps pilots identify the minimum altitude for safe landing.
1051
What does the landing altitude reference bar indicate?
Height above touchdown ## Footnote This aids in landing planning and execution.
1052
What colors are used for the reference bar above landing altitude?
White and amber ## Footnote White from 1000 to 500 feet, amber from 500 feet to landing altitude.
1053
Where is the current barometric reference displayed?
Below the altitude tape ## Footnote This provides pilots with the current setting for altitude calculations.
1054
What does QNH signify in the context of landing reference?
Normal operating mode ## Footnote QNH is used for altitude settings under standard atmospheric pressure.
1055
What happens when QFE is selected for landing reference?
Destination landing altitude indication is set to zero altitude ## Footnote This allows pilots to manage landing altitude more effectively.
1056
What background color does the altitude tape change to when QFE is selected?
Green ## Footnote This visual cue helps pilots recognize the change in altitude reference.
1057
What is displayed to the right of the altitude tape?
Vertical speed ## Footnote Vertical speed helps pilots monitor their rate of climb or descent.
1058
How is vertical speed displayed when greater than 400 feet per minute?
Digitally above or below the vertical speed display ## Footnote Positive vertical speed is shown above, while negative is below.
1059
What does the attitude indication display?
Airplane pitch and roll attitude referenced to the horizon ## Footnote This is crucial for maintaining controlled flight.
1060
What increments are used for pitch attitude display?
2.5° increments ## Footnote This provides precise information on the aircraft's pitch.
1061
What indicates bank angle in the attitude display?
Pointer and single marks ## Footnote The pointer indicates increments of 10°, 20°, and 30°, with single marks for 45° and 60°.
1062
What is indicated when the flaps are up at low speeds?
Pitch limit indication ## Footnote This serves as a warning to prevent stalling.
1063
What is displayed when the flight director switch is on?
Flight director steering indications ## Footnote The flight director steering indications help pilots navigate by providing guidance on flight path adjustments.
1064
Where are TCAS resolution advisories displayed?
In the attitude indication area ## Footnote TCAS stands for Traffic Collision Avoidance System, which helps prevent mid-air collisions.
1065
What does the flight path vector (FPV) symbol represent?
Airplane flight path angle vertically and drift angle laterally ## Footnote The FPV is a critical indicator for pilots to understand their current flight trajectory.
1066
When is the flight path vector displayed on the PFD?
When the EFIS control panel FPV switch is selected on or the MCP FPA reference switch is selected on ## Footnote EFIS stands for Electronic Flight Instrument System, and MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.
1067
What does the flight path angle (FPA) symbol show?
Selected flight path angle ## Footnote The FPA is essential for maintaining the desired altitude and angle of descent or climb.
1068
How do the FPV and FPA symbols differ in display size and brightness?
Large, bright symbols when flight director is off; small, dim symbols when flight director is on ## Footnote This differentiation helps pilots quickly identify the status of the flight director.
1069
Where is the current radio altitude displayed?
In the bottom center of the attitude indication area when below 2,500 feet AGL ## Footnote AGL stands for Above Ground Level, which is important for terrain clearance.
1070
What do navigation performance scales and pointers display?
Real-time display of the location of the LNAV and VNAV path relative to the airplane ## Footnote LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation, and VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.
1071
What does the center index on navigation performance scales represent?
The airplane position ## Footnote This helps pilots determine their current location relative to the desired navigation path.
1072
What happens if the deviation pointer moves into an ANP bar for 5 continuous seconds?
ANP bars and scale turn amber and the pointer flashes for 10 seconds ## Footnote ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance, indicating potential navigation issues.
1073
What indicates that the ANP equals or exceeds RNP?
The ANP bars touch at the center of the scale, turning amber, and the deviation pointer flashes for 10 seconds ## Footnote RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance, which is a standard for navigation accuracy.
1074
Fill in the blank: The deviation represented by the distance from the center index to the outer index is equal to the _______.
RNP value in the FMC ## Footnote FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, which calculates navigation performance.
1075
What is displayed when the flight director switch is on?
Flight director steering indications ## Footnote The flight director steering indications help pilots navigate by providing guidance on flight path adjustments.
1076
Where are TCAS resolution advisories displayed?
In the attitude indication area ## Footnote TCAS stands for Traffic Collision Avoidance System, which helps prevent mid-air collisions.
1077
What does the flight path vector (FPV) symbol represent?
Airplane flight path angle vertically and drift angle laterally ## Footnote The FPV is a critical indicator for pilots to understand their current flight trajectory.
1078
When is the flight path vector displayed on the PFD?
When the EFIS control panel FPV switch is selected on or the MCP FPA reference switch is selected on ## Footnote EFIS stands for Electronic Flight Instrument System, and MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.
1079
What does the flight path angle (FPA) symbol show?
Selected flight path angle ## Footnote The FPA is essential for maintaining the desired altitude and angle of descent or climb.
1080
How do the FPV and FPA symbols differ in display size and brightness?
Large, bright symbols when flight director is off; small, dim symbols when flight director is on ## Footnote This differentiation helps pilots quickly identify the status of the flight director.
1081
Where is the current radio altitude displayed?
In the bottom center of the attitude indication area when below 2,500 feet AGL ## Footnote AGL stands for Above Ground Level, which is important for terrain clearance.
1082
What do navigation performance scales and pointers display?
Real-time display of the location of the LNAV and VNAV path relative to the airplane ## Footnote LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation, and VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.
1083
What does the center index on navigation performance scales represent?
The airplane position ## Footnote This helps pilots determine their current location relative to the desired navigation path.
1084
What happens if the deviation pointer moves into an ANP bar for 5 continuous seconds?
ANP bars and scale turn amber and the pointer flashes for 10 seconds ## Footnote ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance, indicating potential navigation issues.
1085
What indicates that the ANP equals or exceeds RNP?
The ANP bars touch at the center of the scale, turning amber, and the deviation pointer flashes for 10 seconds ## Footnote RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance, which is a standard for navigation accuracy.
1086
Fill in the blank: The deviation represented by the distance from the center index to the outer index is equal to the _______.
RNP value in the FMC ## Footnote FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, which calculates navigation performance.
1087
What does ILS stand for?
Instrument Landing System
1088
What type of deviations does the ILS provide indications for?
Glideslope and localizer deviation
1089
Where does the approach reference information appear on the PFD?
Above and to the left of the attitude display
1090
What is displayed in the upper right corner of the attitude display area?
Marker beacon indication (OM, IM, MM)
1091
What information does the glideslope pointer and scale provide?
Glideslope deviation indications
1092
What does IAN stand for?
Integrated Approach Navigation
1093
What information does the FMC provide in IAN mode?
Glidepath and FAC deviation, approach identifier, distance, and course
1094
What happens when a valid IAN approach procedure is selected?
IAN glidepath and FAC deviation indications and alerts are displayed
1095
What are approach minimums shown near on the altitude display?
Radio altitude or barometric approach minimums
1096
Where is the selected heading/track information displayed on the PFD?
In the bottom section of the mini-map
1097
What does the MCP selected heading bug indicate?
The selected heading on the compass rose
1098
What is displayed under the pointer at the top of the compass rose?
Current track
1099
What type of alerts are displayed in large capital letters on the PFD?
Engine fail, GPWS, and PWS alerts
1100
Fill in the blank: The IAN approach procedure deviations are not available with _______ selected in the FMC.
QFE
1101
True or False: The current heading/track reference can be shown as MAG or TRU.
True
1102
What does GPWS stand for?
Ground Proximity Warning System
1103
What does PWS stand for?
Predictive Wind Shear
1104
What is the function of the heading or track display based on?
The position of the MCP HDG/TRK reference switch
1105
What visual representation depicts the current airplane track on the PFD?
A line drawn perpendicular to the edge of the compass rose
1106
What does PFD stand for in aviation?
Primary Flight Display ## Footnote The PFD provides essential flight information to pilots.
1107
Where are engine fail, GPWS, and PWS alerts displayed?
In large capital letters between the attitude display and the heading/track compass rose ## Footnote GPWS stands for Ground Proximity Warning System, and PWS stands for Predictive Wind Shear.
1108
What are the typical phases of flight where PFD configurations are used?
* Climb * Cruise * Descent * Approach * Landing ## Footnote The autopilot is engaged with LNAV and VNAV active during these phases.
1109
What modes are used during approach and landing on the PFD?
AFDS approach mode ## Footnote AFDS stands for Autopilot Flight Director System.
1110
What does LNAV stand for?
Lateral Navigation ## Footnote LNAV assists in lateral flight path management.
1111
What does VNAV stand for?
Vertical Navigation ## Footnote VNAV assists in vertical flight path management.
1112
Fill in the blank: Alerts displayed on the PFD include _______ alerts.
engine fail, GPWS, and PWS ## Footnote Alerts are critical for pilot awareness and safety.
1113
True or False: The autopilot is not engaged during the approach phase.
False ## Footnote The autopilot is typically engaged during the approach phase.
1114
What is the function of the attitude display on the PFD?
Displays the aircraft's orientation relative to the horizon ## Footnote This is vital for maintaining controlled flight.
1115
What are the two primary modes of the Navigation Displays (NDs) in the B787?
MAP and PLAN modes ## Footnote The MAP mode is primarily recommended for most phases of flight.
1116
What information is displayed in the MAP mode of the Navigation Displays?
* Selected and current track * Selected and current heading * Position trend vector * Range to selected altitude * Map range scale * Groundspeed * True airspeed * Wind direction and speed * Next waypoint distance * Waypoint estimated time of arrival * Selected navigation data points ## Footnote The MAP mode shows airplane position relative to the route of flight against a moving map background.
1117
In which orientation is the MAP mode displayed?
Track-up ## Footnote This orientation shows the airplane's position relative to the route.
1118
How can the MAP mode be switched in the B787?
Between expanded mode and centered mode ## Footnote Expanded mode includes a partial compass rose, while centered mode features a full compass rose.
1119
What is the orientation of the PLAN mode in the Navigation Displays?
True north up ## Footnote This mode allows viewing the active route using the STEP prompt on the CDU LEGS pages.
1120
What additional navigation facilities can be displayed on the ND?
* Center map modes * Additional navigation facility (STA) * Waypoint (WPT) * Airport (ARPT) * Route progress (DATA) * Position (POS) data ## Footnote These can be shown in both expanded and PLAN modes.
1121
What is the purpose of the Navigation Displays (NDs) in the B787?
To provide a mode-selectable color flight progress display ## Footnote This display aids pilots in navigation and situational awareness.
1122
Fill in the blank: The MAP mode can be switched between an expanded mode with a partial compass rose and a ______ mode with a full compass rose.
centered ## Footnote This functionality enhances the pilot's situational awareness during flight.
1123
What are the two primary modes of the Navigation Displays (NDs) in the B787?
MAP and PLAN modes ## Footnote The MAP mode is primarily recommended for most phases of flight.
1124
What information is displayed in the MAP mode of the Navigation Displays?
* Selected and current track * Selected and current heading * Position trend vector * Range to selected altitude * Map range scale * Groundspeed * True airspeed * Wind direction and speed * Next waypoint distance * Waypoint estimated time of arrival * Selected navigation data points ## Footnote The MAP mode shows airplane position relative to the route of flight against a moving map background.
1125
In which orientation is the MAP mode displayed?
Track-up ## Footnote This orientation shows the airplane's position relative to the route.
1126
How can the MAP mode be switched in the B787?
Between expanded mode and centered mode ## Footnote Expanded mode includes a partial compass rose, while centered mode features a full compass rose.
1127
What is the orientation of the PLAN mode in the Navigation Displays?
True north up ## Footnote This mode allows viewing the active route using the STEP prompt on the CDU LEGS pages.
1128
What additional navigation facilities can be displayed on the ND?
* Center map modes * Additional navigation facility (STA) * Waypoint (WPT) * Airport (ARPT) * Route progress (DATA) * Position (POS) data ## Footnote These can be shown in both expanded and PLAN modes.
1129
What is the purpose of the Navigation Displays (NDs) in the B787?
To provide a mode-selectable color flight progress display ## Footnote This display aids pilots in navigation and situational awareness.
1130
Fill in the blank: The MAP mode can be switched between an expanded mode with a partial compass rose and a ______ mode with a full compass rose.
centered ## Footnote This functionality enhances the pilot's situational awareness during flight.
1131
What is supplied by the FMC or IRS for the Heading on the Navigation Display?
Heading ## Footnote The HEADING REF switch is used to manually select magnetic or true reference.
1132
How can the ND compass rose be referenced?
To magnetic north or true north ## Footnote The compass display is automatically referenced to true north when the airplane enters the polar regions.
1133
What information is supplied by the FMC during normal operation for Track?
Track ## Footnote In alternative navigation, Track is supplied by the IRS.
1134
What system provides traffic information that can be displayed on the ND?
TCAS ## Footnote Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) is referenced for additional information.
1135
What type of information can the Weather Radar display on the ND?
Weather radar information ## Footnote Refer to Weather Radar in Chapter 11, Section 20 for additional information.
1136
What does the Airport Map integrated with the ND consist of?
Runways, taxiways, aprons, and buildings ## Footnote The FMC provides the position of the airplane.
1137
Under what conditions is the Airport Map automatically displayed?
* The airport is either the ORIGIN or DESTINATION airport * The airport is in the Airport Map database * The ND range is 5 NM or less * The ANP value is 0.02 NM or less
1138
In which modes can the Airport Map be displayed?
Track-up mode (MAP) or north-up mode (PLAN) ## Footnote The Airport Map may be displayed at various ranges including 5 NM, 2 NM, 1 NM, and 0.5 NM.
1139
What happens to the Airport Map display when weather radar is selected?
Only runways and taxiways are shown with associated identifiers and markers ## Footnote This occurs even if there are no radar returns.
1140
What does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) present?
A profile view of the airplane and its environment
1141
How is information shown within the VSD's enroute corridor depicted?
In profile on the VSD
1142
How does a pilot select the VSD display?
From the map information selections on the MAP mode drop-down menu
1143
What type of information does the VSD depict?
Terrain and waypoint information within the enroute corridor on the ND
1144
What is the relationship between the VSD range and the ND range?
The VSD range is a function of the ND range, depicted on the horizontal reference scale
1145
What is the normal-display VSD range compared to the ND?
It has the same range as the ND except when the ND range is less than 5 NM
1146
What is the full-display VSD range?
Twice the range of the ND, from 10 NM to 2560 NM
1147
What is the altitude reference scale linked to?
The VSD range and is not independently adjustable
1148
What glidepath does the VSD depict up to an 80NM range?
A consistent 3° glidepath
1149
What altitude is shown on the VSD?
The same as the selected altitude shown on the on-side PFD
1150
What do failure flags indicate?
System failures or invalid information
1151
What happens to indications when source system information is not available?
Indications are removed or replaced by dashes
1152
What message is displayed if the amount of information sent to the ND exceeds the display capability?
EXCESS DATA
1153
How does the primary display system respond when the EXCESS DATA message appears?
It removes information from the center of the display outward
1154
What remains displayed when EXCESS DATA occurs?
Information near the outer selected range area
1155
What actions can remove the EXCESS DATA message?
["* Reducing the amount of map information", "* Reducing range", "* Deselecting one or more map information selections (STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA, POS)"]
1156
What does WXR stand for in typical ND map displays?
Weather radar
1157
What does the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) present?
A profile view of the airplane and its environment
1158
How is information shown within the VSD's enroute corridor depicted?
In profile on the VSD
1159
How does a pilot select the VSD display?
From the map information selections on the MAP mode drop-down menu
1160
What type of information does the VSD depict?
Terrain and waypoint information within the enroute corridor on the ND
1161
What is the relationship between the VSD range and the ND range?
The VSD range is a function of the ND range, depicted on the horizontal reference scale
1162
What is the normal-display VSD range compared to the ND?
It has the same range as the ND except when the ND range is less than 5 NM
1163
What is the full-display VSD range?
Twice the range of the ND, from 10 NM to 2560 NM
1164
What is the altitude reference scale linked to?
The VSD range and is not independently adjustable
1165
What glidepath does the VSD depict up to an 80NM range?
A consistent 3° glidepath
1166
What altitude is shown on the VSD?
The same as the selected altitude shown on the on-side PFD
1167
What do failure flags indicate?
System failures or invalid information
1168
What happens to indications when source system information is not available?
Indications are removed or replaced by dashes
1169
What message is displayed if the amount of information sent to the ND exceeds the display capability?
EXCESS DATA
1170
How does the primary display system respond when the EXCESS DATA message appears?
It removes information from the center of the display outward
1171
What remains displayed when EXCESS DATA occurs?
Information near the outer selected range area
1172
What actions can remove the EXCESS DATA message?
["* Reducing the amount of map information", "* Reducing range", "* Deselecting one or more map information selections (STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA, POS)"]
1173
What does WXR stand for in typical ND map displays?
Weather radar
1174
What color indicates present status and range scales on the ND?
W (white) ## Footnote Indicates current operational status and the range scales being used.
1175
What does the color green (G) represent on the ND?
Dynamic conditions ## Footnote Reflects real-time changes in flight conditions.
1176
What information does the color magenta (M) convey on the ND?
Command information, pointers, symbols, fly-to condition ## Footnote Used for navigation commands and guidance.
1177
What does cyan (C) represent in ND symbology?
Nonactive or background information ## Footnote Indicates data that is not currently active.
1178
What do amber (A) symbols indicate on the ND?
Cautions, faults, flags ## Footnote Alerts the crew to potential issues that require attention.
1179
What does the color red (R) signify on the ND?
Warnings ## Footnote Indicates critical issues that require immediate action.
1180
In ND symbology, what does the track orientation indicate?
G (current track), W (track reference) ## Footnote Displays the current flight path and its reference.
1181
What does the selected heading/track symbol represent?
M (selected heading/track), G (heading/track reference) ## Footnote Shows the pilot's selected navigation course.
1182
What does the mini-map display in MAP and MAP CTR modes?
TRK as orientation, current track, MAG or TRU as reference ## Footnote Provides a smaller scale view of the current track.
1183
What is displayed when above 70° latitude on the ND?
GRID heading ## Footnote Indicates the heading reference system used in extreme latitudes.
1184
Fill in the blank: On the ND, W indicates _______.
present status, range scales
1185
True or False: The color red on the ND indicates dynamic conditions.
False ## Footnote Red indicates warnings, not dynamic conditions.
1186
What color indicates present status and range scales on the ND?
W (white) ## Footnote Indicates current operational status and the range scales being used.
1187
What does the color green (G) represent on the ND?
Dynamic conditions ## Footnote Reflects real-time changes in flight conditions.
1188
What information does the color magenta (M) convey on the ND?
Command information, pointers, symbols, fly-to condition ## Footnote Used for navigation commands and guidance.
1189
What does cyan (C) represent in ND symbology?
Nonactive or background information ## Footnote Indicates data that is not currently active.
1190
What do amber (A) symbols indicate on the ND?
Cautions, faults, flags ## Footnote Alerts the crew to potential issues that require attention.
1191
What does the color red (R) signify on the ND?
Warnings ## Footnote Indicates critical issues that require immediate action.
1192
In ND symbology, what does the track orientation indicate?
G (current track), W (track reference) ## Footnote Displays the current flight path and its reference.
1193
What does the selected heading/track symbol represent?
M (selected heading/track), G (heading/track reference) ## Footnote Shows the pilot's selected navigation course.
1194
What does the mini-map display in MAP and MAP CTR modes?
TRK as orientation, current track, MAG or TRU as reference ## Footnote Provides a smaller scale view of the current track.
1195
What is displayed when above 70° latitude on the ND?
GRID heading ## Footnote Indicates the heading reference system used in extreme latitudes.
1196
Fill in the blank: On the ND, W indicates _______.
present status, range scales
1197
True or False: The color red on the ND indicates dynamic conditions.
False ## Footnote Red indicates warnings, not dynamic conditions.
1198
What does the 'Time to align' indicator show?
Indicates time remaining for IRU alignment. ## Footnote Replaces wind direction/speed and wind arrow, on the ground, during alignment.
1199
What does the selected heading bug indicate?
Displays the MCP-selected heading. ## Footnote A dashed line may extend from the marker to the airplane symbol.
1200
What happens to the dashed line in MAP mode with LNAV, LOC, or ROLLOUT active when the selected heading bug is moved?
The dashed line is removed 10 seconds after the selected heading bug is moved.
1201
What does the selected track bug indicate?
Displays the MCP-selected track. ## Footnote A dashed line may extend from the marker to the airplane symbol.
1202
What does the track line and range scale display?
Indicates current track and number indicates range.
1203
What does the heading/track reference box indicate?
Indicates heading/track is referenced to magnetic north or true north. ## Footnote Switching from TRU to MAG displays a box around MAG for 10 seconds.
1204
What does the current heading pointer show?
Points to current heading on the compass rose.
1205
What does the ground speed indicator display?
Current groundspeed.
1206
What does the true airspeed indicator show above 100 knots?
Current true airspeed.
1207
Fill in the blank: The _______ indicates the time remaining for IRU alignment.
Time to align
1208
True or False: The current true airspeed is displayed below 100 knots.
False ## Footnote The true airspeed is displayed above 100 knots.
1209
What does TAS stand for in the context of navigation displays?
True airspeed ## Footnote True airspeed is crucial for understanding an aircraft's actual speed relative to the air mass.
1210
What information does the wind direction/speed arrow indicate?
Wind bearing, speed, and direction ## Footnote This information is displayed with respect to the navigation display's orientation and heading/track reference.
1211
In which display mode is the wind arrow not shown?
PLAN mode ## Footnote The PLAN mode focuses on route planning rather than real-time navigation data.
1212
What is indicated by the left and right VOR pointer heads and tails?
Bearing to or from the tuned station ## Footnote This is relevant when the VOR is selected on the respective MAP or MAP CTR drop-down menu.
1213
Which navigation aids are displayed when the STA key is selected?
VOR, DME/TACAN, VORTAC ## Footnote These aids help pilots navigate by providing distance and radial information.
1214
What color are tuned VHF navaids displayed in?
Green ## Footnote This color coding helps pilots quickly identify active navigation aids.
1215
What does the MAP mode display?
Current true airspeed above 100 knots ## Footnote This information is essential for pilots to manage speed during flight.
1216
Fill in the blank: The VOR/DME raw data shows radial and _______.
Distance ## Footnote This data is critical for determining the aircraft's position relative to the navigation aid.
1217
Where is the VOR L, R indicator located on the navigation display?
Lower left or right corner ## Footnote The positioning helps pilots quickly reference navigation information.
1218
True or False: The selected course and reciprocal are displayed when a navaid is manually tuned.
True ## Footnote This feature assists the pilot in navigating accurately to or from a specific point.
1219
What does the ND Mode MAP CTR refer to?
Centered map display mode ## Footnote This mode emphasizes the current position of the aircraft on the map.
1220
What does TAS stand for in the context of navigation displays?
True airspeed ## Footnote True airspeed is crucial for understanding an aircraft's actual speed relative to the air mass.
1221
What information does the wind direction/speed arrow indicate?
Wind bearing, speed, and direction ## Footnote This information is displayed with respect to the navigation display's orientation and heading/track reference.
1222
In which display mode is the wind arrow not shown?
PLAN mode ## Footnote The PLAN mode focuses on route planning rather than real-time navigation data.
1223
What is indicated by the left and right VOR pointer heads and tails?
Bearing to or from the tuned station ## Footnote This is relevant when the VOR is selected on the respective MAP or MAP CTR drop-down menu.
1224
Which navigation aids are displayed when the STA key is selected?
VOR, DME/TACAN, VORTAC ## Footnote These aids help pilots navigate by providing distance and radial information.
1225
What color are tuned VHF navaids displayed in?
Green ## Footnote This color coding helps pilots quickly identify active navigation aids.
1226
What does the MAP mode display?
Current true airspeed above 100 knots ## Footnote This information is essential for pilots to manage speed during flight.
1227
Fill in the blank: The VOR/DME raw data shows radial and _______.
Distance ## Footnote This data is critical for determining the aircraft's position relative to the navigation aid.
1228
Where is the VOR L, R indicator located on the navigation display?
Lower left or right corner ## Footnote The positioning helps pilots quickly reference navigation information.
1229
True or False: The selected course and reciprocal are displayed when a navaid is manually tuned.
True ## Footnote This feature assists the pilot in navigating accurately to or from a specific point.
1230
What does the ND Mode MAP CTR refer to?
Centered map display mode ## Footnote This mode emphasizes the current position of the aircraft on the map.
1231
What is displayed before the identifier in the VOR frequency on the navigation display?
Frequency ## Footnote Frequency is displayed before the identifier, which is then decoded.
1232
What does a small 'sta' character indicate on the navigation display?
Only DME information is being received ## Footnote DME stands for Distance Measuring Equipment.
1233
What does DME distance indicate on the navigation display?
Distance to the referenced navaid ## Footnote 'navaid' refers to navigational aid.
1234
What does the airplane symbol represent on the navigation display?
Current airplane position ## Footnote The airplane position is represented at the apex of the triangle.
1235
What color is displayed when ANP exceeds RNP on the navigation display?
Amber ## Footnote ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance, while RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.
1236
What does the position trend vector on the navigation display predict?
Position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals ## Footnote The trend vector is represented by a dashed line.
1237
What determines the number of segments displayed in the position trend vector?
Selected range ## Footnote The segments are based on bank angle and groundspeed.
1238
How many segments are shown when the range is greater than 20 NM?
3 segments ## Footnote For a range of 20 NM, 2 segments are displayed, and for 10 NM, 1 segment is shown.
1239
What is unique about the mini-map in relation to the trend vector segments?
Always shows 3 segments even though range is always 20 NM ## Footnote The mini-map maintains a constant display of segments.
1240
What do the lateral path deviation values indicate on the navigation display?
Lateral path deviation distance ## Footnote Values are displayed for both ANP and RNP.
1241
What is displayed before the identifier in the VOR frequency on the navigation display?
Frequency ## Footnote Frequency is displayed before the identifier, which is then decoded.
1242
What does a small 'sta' character indicate on the navigation display?
Only DME information is being received ## Footnote DME stands for Distance Measuring Equipment.
1243
What does DME distance indicate on the navigation display?
Distance to the referenced navaid ## Footnote 'navaid' refers to navigational aid.
1244
What does the airplane symbol represent on the navigation display?
Current airplane position ## Footnote The airplane position is represented at the apex of the triangle.
1245
What color is displayed when ANP exceeds RNP on the navigation display?
Amber ## Footnote ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance, while RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.
1246
What does the position trend vector on the navigation display predict?
Position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals ## Footnote The trend vector is represented by a dashed line.
1247
What determines the number of segments displayed in the position trend vector?
Selected range ## Footnote The segments are based on bank angle and groundspeed.
1248
How many segments are shown when the range is greater than 20 NM?
3 segments ## Footnote For a range of 20 NM, 2 segments are displayed, and for 10 NM, 1 segment is shown.
1249
What is unique about the mini-map in relation to the trend vector segments?
Always shows 3 segments even though range is always 20 NM ## Footnote The mini-map maintains a constant display of segments.
1250
What do the lateral path deviation values indicate on the navigation display?
Lateral path deviation distance ## Footnote Values are displayed for both ANP and RNP.
1251
What does the airplane symbol (W) indicate in the navigation display?
Indicates actual position and track along the flight plan route. ## Footnote Symbol changes to a circle north of 82N latitude and south of 82S latitude.
1252
What do the symbols 'active (M)' and 'inactive (W)' represent in the navigation display?
Active (M) represents the waypoint the airplane is currently navigating to, while inactive (W) represents the waypoints on the active route.
1253
What happens when the PICK WPT key is selected on the navigation display?
The letters 'LAT' and 'LONG' are removed when the cursor highlights a waypoint, airport, or navaid.
1254
What is displayed when a visible route waypoint is passed over by the cursor?
Displayed waypoint name if visible, otherwise displays latitude and longitude.
1255
What does the abbreviation 'LAT' stand for in the context of the navigation display?
Latitude.
1256
What does the abbreviation 'LONG' stand for in the context of the navigation display?
Longitude.
1257
When is the latitude and longitude displayed in the navigation display?
Displayed after a waypoint is selected when PICK WPT cursor is active and if the waypoint, airport, or navigation aid is not selected.
1258
Fill in the blank: The navigation display shows the airplane's actual position and track along the flight plan route using an _______.
airplane symbol (W).
1259
True or False: The airplane symbol changes to a circle at latitudes above 82N and below 82S.
True.
1260
What does the cursor indicate when it highlights a waypoint in the navigation display?
It indicates the selected waypoint name or displays latitude and longitude if not visible.
1261
What does the cursor shape indicate in Center on Cursor mode?
Displayed when Center on CURSOR key is selected ## Footnote Refers to the visual representation when the cursor is activated on the navigation display.
1262
What does the term 'Off route waypoint' signify?
Waypoints not on the selected route displayed in ND ranges of 10, 20, or 40 ## Footnote Indicates waypoints that are available but not part of the current flight plan.
1263
How is the active flight plan route represented on the navigation display?
Displayed with a continuous line (M) between waypoints ## Footnote The continuous line visually indicates the current active route in the flight plan.
1264
What does a modified route look like on the navigation display?
Displayed with short dashes (W) between waypoints ## Footnote Indicates that the route has been altered but is still in use.
1265
What visual representation indicates an inactive route?
Displayed with long dashes (C) between waypoints ## Footnote Shows routes that are not currently active in the flight plan.
1266
What is the purpose of the offset path and identifier on the navigation display?
Presents a dashed line parallel to and offset from the active or modified route ## Footnote This feature helps pilots visualize alternate paths or deviations from the current route.
1267
What route data is shown when the DATA key is selected?
Entered or procedural altitude and ETAs for route waypoints ## Footnote This data assists in flight planning and monitoring progress.
1268
Fill in the blank: The active route modifications are displayed with _______ between waypoints.
short dashes (W) ## Footnote Indicates changes made to the active route during flight.
1269
True or False: Inactive routes are displayed with a continuous line on the navigation display.
False ## Footnote Inactive routes are represented with long dashes, not continuous lines.
1270
What does the active waypoint identifier (M) indicate?
The active waypoint identifier in the navigation display indicates the next waypoint on the route of flight. ## Footnote It is displayed on line IL. of the FMC-CDU ACT RTE LEGS page 1.
1271
What information does the active waypoint data block provide?
The active waypoint data block provides: * Active waypoint identifier (M) * Distance to active waypoint (W) * Active waypoint ETA (W) ## Footnote The ETA is based on distance to go and ground speed.
1272
Fill in the blank: When the DATA key is selected, entered or procedural altitude and ETAs for route waypoints are displayed based on _______.
[distance to go and ground speed]
1273
True or False: The ETA times displayed on the navigation system consider FMC performance predictions.
False ## Footnote The times do not consider FMC performance predictions and may differ from other FMC ETAs.
1274
What does the altitude range arc (G) indicate on the navigation display?
The altitude range arc indicates the approximate map position where the MCP altitude will be reached. ## Footnote MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.
1275
What is the significance of the T/C and T/D points displayed on the navigation map?
T/C (top-of-climb) and T/D (top-of-descent) points indicate the approximate map position of these calculated altitude change points. ## Footnote These points are calculated by the FMC.
1276
What does the range readout (W) show?
The range readout shows the current selected range on the navigation display. ## Footnote This is crucial for situational awareness during flight.
1277
What are deceleration points on the navigation display?
Deceleration points indicate the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings without an identifier. ## Footnote These points help pilots manage speed during descent.
1278
What is the purpose of the speed profile point and settings (G) on the navigation display?
The speed profile point and settings indicate the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings. ## Footnote These settings are calculated to ensure the aircraft remains on speed.
1279
What do predicted altitude/ETA points display when entered on the FIX page?
Predicted altitude/ETA points display the altitude/ETA along with the profile point. ## Footnote This information aids in altitude management during flight.
1280
What does the active waypoint identifier (M) indicate?
The active waypoint identifier in the navigation display indicates the next waypoint on the route of flight. ## Footnote It is displayed on line IL. of the FMC-CDU ACT RTE LEGS page 1.
1281
What information does the active waypoint data block provide?
The active waypoint data block provides: * Active waypoint identifier (M) * Distance to active waypoint (W) * Active waypoint ETA (W) ## Footnote The ETA is based on distance to go and ground speed.
1282
Fill in the blank: When the DATA key is selected, entered or procedural altitude and ETAs for route waypoints are displayed based on _______.
[distance to go and ground speed]
1283
True or False: The ETA times displayed on the navigation system consider FMC performance predictions.
False ## Footnote The times do not consider FMC performance predictions and may differ from other FMC ETAs.
1284
What does the altitude range arc (G) indicate on the navigation display?
The altitude range arc indicates the approximate map position where the MCP altitude will be reached. ## Footnote MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.
1285
What is the significance of the T/C and T/D points displayed on the navigation map?
T/C (top-of-climb) and T/D (top-of-descent) points indicate the approximate map position of these calculated altitude change points. ## Footnote These points are calculated by the FMC.
1286
What does the range readout (W) show?
The range readout shows the current selected range on the navigation display. ## Footnote This is crucial for situational awareness during flight.
1287
What are deceleration points on the navigation display?
Deceleration points indicate the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings without an identifier. ## Footnote These points help pilots manage speed during descent.
1288
What is the purpose of the speed profile point and settings (G) on the navigation display?
The speed profile point and settings indicate the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings. ## Footnote These settings are calculated to ensure the aircraft remains on speed.
1289
What do predicted altitude/ETA points display when entered on the FIX page?
Predicted altitude/ETA points display the altitude/ETA along with the profile point. ## Footnote This information aids in altitude management during flight.
1290
What does the ND symbology indicate regarding the speed profile point and settings?
Indicates the approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings ## Footnote Position and settings are calculated to be on speed, on path, and on time at the final approach fix.
1291
What flap settings are indicated on the ND symbology?
Flap settings for flaps 1, 5, and 20 ## Footnote Position and settings are calculated to be on speed, on path, and on time at the final approach fix.
1292
What does the ATC conditional clearance point symbolize on the ND?
Indicates the FMC calculated map position where the airplane should comply with an ATC conditional clearance ## Footnote Symbol is removed when the conditional clearance is met.
1293
During which flight phase is the vertical deviation from the selected VNAV PATH displayed?
FMC descent phase of flight ## Footnote Scale indicates # 400 feet deviation.
1294
What does the path deviation band represent on the ND?
Represents vertical RNP ## Footnote Path deviation band is symmetric about the pointer.
1295
What happens when ANP exceeds RNP on the ND?
The ANP/RNP labels and values are displayed in amber ## Footnote Displayed only during FMC descent phase of flight.
1296
When is the airport and runway information displayed on the ND?
When selected as the origin or destination ## Footnote Displayed on MAP, MAP CTR, PLAN.
1297
Fill in the blank: The VNAV path pointer indicates _______.
[M] and deviation scale [W].
1298
True or False: The flap speed profile point and settings are indicated for all flap settings.
False ## Footnote Flap setting is indicated only for flaps 1, 5, and 20.
1299
What does the digital display on the ND indicate during descent?
Provided when the pointer indicates more than # 20 feet ## Footnote Displays vertical deviation from selected VNAV PATH.
1300
What are the types of displays used in the B787 Navigation Displays?
MAP, MAP CTR, PLAN ## Footnote These displays are utilized to show various navigation information.
1301
What information is displayed when the ARPT key is selected?
Origin and destination airports ## Footnote This information is always displayed regardless of map switch selection.
1302
What do the energy management circles indicate in the B787 Navigation Displays?
Clean (C) and speedbrake (W) energy management circles ## Footnote These circles are defined on the CDU OFFPATH DES page.
1303
What does the FMC position update status indicate?
The system providing FMC position update ## Footnote It can include systems like GPS, DME-DME, VOR-DME, LOC, and INERTIAL.
1304
What is displayed when a reference point is selected on the CDU FIX page?
Bearing and/or distance from the fix ## Footnote This information is displayed with dashes.
1305
Fill in the blank: The B787 Navigation Displays show energy management circles as defined on the _______ page.
[CDU OFFPATH DES] ## Footnote This page contains information related to the flight path and energy management.
1306
True or False: The dashed runway centerlines extend 14.2 NM in the B787 Navigation Displays.
True ## Footnote This information aids in runway awareness during approach.
1307
What ND range options display the selected reference point and bearing distance information?
80, 160, 320, or 640 NM ## Footnote This is applicable when selected as the origin or destination.
1308
What are the main components of the B787 FCOM mentioned in the text?
Weight and Balance Documents, Systems Description ## Footnote These components provide essential information for the operation of the aircraft.
1309
What does the POS key indicate when selected?
GPS position relative to FMC position ## Footnote The POS key is used to display the aircraft's GPS position on the navigation display.
1310
What does the star indicate when the POS key is selected?
IRU position relative to FMC position ## Footnote The Inertial Reference Unit (IRU) position is shown in relation to the Flight Management Computer (FMC) position.
1311
How are weather radar returns displayed in terms of intensity?
Red, amber, green, magenta ## Footnote The most intense weather is displayed in red, lesser intensity in amber, and the lowest intensity in green. Turbulence is shown in magenta.
1312
What information does the MAP menu provide?
Selected map options ## Footnote The MAP menu allows the pilot to choose various map display options.
1313
What does the North up arrow indicate?
Map background oriented to true north ## Footnote It shows that the map is aligned with true north for navigation purposes.
1314
What does a holding pattern on the display depict?
Entry path until entry completed ## Footnote A holding pattern is shown when it is part of the flight plan, indicating the route to enter the hold.
1315
What is displayed when a procedure turn is in the flight plan?
Increases in size upon entering the procedure turn ## Footnote The procedure turn representation changes as the aircraft enters the maneuver.
1316
What does the PLAN display show regarding alternate airports?
Displays up to four alternate airports at all times ## Footnote The PLAN view continuously shows potential alternate airports for the flight.
1317
What does the MAP display show when the ARPT key is selected?
Displays up to four alternate airports ## Footnote This allows for quick access to alternate airport information during flight.
1318
What do offscale airports indicate?
Directional arrow relative to airplane position ## Footnote Offscale airports are shown with directional arrows to indicate their position relative to the aircraft's current location.
1319
What is displayed at ranges 2, 1, and 0.5 NM?
Airport beacon (W) ## Footnote This is part of the ND symbology in the B787 flight instruments.
1320
What does the ICAO ID represent in the ND symbology?
Airport ICAO Identifier in GRID Heading box ## Footnote It is displayed at all ranges except when in GRID Heading.
1321
When is the LOAD message displayed in the ND symbology?
Displayed at all ranges during delay between execution of flight plan and display of airport map ## Footnote This occurs when the flight plan is executed but the airport map is not yet visible.
1322
What happens when the active cycle of Airport Map database is expired?
Displayed at all ranges when active cycle of Airport Map database is expired or out of range ## Footnote This indicates that the database needs updating.
1323
What indicates that the WXR switch is selected?
WXR ON message ## Footnote This message appears in the ND symbology when weather radar is active.
1324
At what ranges is the concourse displayed in the ND symbology?
2, 1, and 0.5 NM ## Footnote Concourse information is essential for airport navigation.
1325
At what range are gates displayed in the ND symbology?
0.5 NM ## Footnote This allows pilots to identify gate locations as they approach.
1326
At what ranges are runways displayed in the ND symbology?
5, 2, 1, and 0.5 NM ## Footnote This ensures pilots have adequate visual information for approach and landing.
1327
What modes are referenced in the ND symbology?
MAP, MAP CTR, PLAN ## Footnote These modes provide different levels of detail and orientation for navigation.
1328
What is displayed at ranges 2, 1, and 0.5 NM?
Airport beacon (W) ## Footnote This is part of the ND symbology in the B787 flight instruments.
1329
What does the ICAO ID represent in the ND symbology?
Airport ICAO Identifier in GRID Heading box ## Footnote It is displayed at all ranges except when in GRID Heading.
1330
When is the LOAD message displayed in the ND symbology?
Displayed at all ranges during delay between execution of flight plan and display of airport map ## Footnote This occurs when the flight plan is executed but the airport map is not yet visible.
1331
What happens when the active cycle of Airport Map database is expired?
Displayed at all ranges when active cycle of Airport Map database is expired or out of range ## Footnote This indicates that the database needs updating.
1332
What indicates that the WXR switch is selected?
WXR ON message ## Footnote This message appears in the ND symbology when weather radar is active.
1333
At what ranges is the concourse displayed in the ND symbology?
2, 1, and 0.5 NM ## Footnote Concourse information is essential for airport navigation.
1334
At what range are gates displayed in the ND symbology?
0.5 NM ## Footnote This allows pilots to identify gate locations as they approach.
1335
At what ranges are runways displayed in the ND symbology?
5, 2, 1, and 0.5 NM ## Footnote This ensures pilots have adequate visual information for approach and landing.
1336
What modes are referenced in the ND symbology?
MAP, MAP CTR, PLAN ## Footnote These modes provide different levels of detail and orientation for navigation.
1337
What does B787 FCOM stand for?
B787 Flight Crew Operating Manual ## Footnote The FCOM contains essential operational information for the B787 aircraft.
1338
What is the purpose of the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) in the B787?
To provide information on the airplane's altitude and lateral position relative to terrain ## Footnote The VSD displays critical navigation and situational awareness data for pilots.
1339
What does the symbol 'W' represent on the Navigation Display (ND)?
Airplane symbol ## Footnote The airplane symbol indicates the current position of the aircraft on the ND.
1340
What does the dashed line in the Enroute corridor (C) signify on the ND?
It represents the area of the map shown on the VSD ## Footnote The dashed line is crucial for understanding navigation corridors during flight.
1341
What does the selected altitude bug indicate on the ND?
The altitude set in the MCP altitude window ## Footnote The bug's position changes based on the selected altitude by the flight crew.
1342
When the selected altitude is off scale, where does the bug park?
At the top or bottom, with only one half visible ## Footnote The bug's parking indicates that the selected altitude is outside the displayed range.
1343
What happens to the pointer and line when the airplane descends below the selected minimum altitude?
They turn amber ## Footnote This visual cue alerts the crew that they are below the set minimum altitude.
1344
The BARO minimums pointer on the ND indicates what?
The barometric minimums selected on the EFIS control panel ## Footnote This pointer helps pilots maintain awareness of minimum altitude requirements.
1345
Fill in the blank: The Navigation Display (ND) shows the current airplane altitude at the _______.
bottom of the triangle ## Footnote This triangle is part of the VSD symbology.
1346
True or False: The VSD is displayed only during specific flight modes.
False ## Footnote The VSD is displayed full time when selected.
1347
What does B787 FCOM stand for?
B787 Flight Crew Operating Manual ## Footnote The FCOM contains essential operational information for the B787 aircraft.
1348
What is the purpose of the Vertical Situation Display (VSD) in the B787?
To provide information on the airplane's altitude and lateral position relative to terrain ## Footnote The VSD displays critical navigation and situational awareness data for pilots.
1349
What does the symbol 'W' represent on the Navigation Display (ND)?
Airplane symbol ## Footnote The airplane symbol indicates the current position of the aircraft on the ND.
1350
What does the dashed line in the Enroute corridor (C) signify on the ND?
It represents the area of the map shown on the VSD ## Footnote The dashed line is crucial for understanding navigation corridors during flight.
1351
What does the selected altitude bug indicate on the ND?
The altitude set in the MCP altitude window ## Footnote The bug's position changes based on the selected altitude by the flight crew.
1352
When the selected altitude is off scale, where does the bug park?
At the top or bottom, with only one half visible ## Footnote The bug's parking indicates that the selected altitude is outside the displayed range.
1353
What happens to the pointer and line when the airplane descends below the selected minimum altitude?
They turn amber ## Footnote This visual cue alerts the crew that they are below the set minimum altitude.
1354
The BARO minimums pointer on the ND indicates what?
The barometric minimums selected on the EFIS control panel ## Footnote This pointer helps pilots maintain awareness of minimum altitude requirements.
1355
Fill in the blank: The Navigation Display (ND) shows the current airplane altitude at the _______.
bottom of the triangle ## Footnote This triangle is part of the VSD symbology.
1356
True or False: The VSD is displayed only during specific flight modes.
False ## Footnote The VSD is displayed full time when selected.
1357
What are decision gates in the context of flight instruments?
Suggested points where the airplane should be path and speed stable on approach ## Footnote Decision gates are placed on the Reference Line or FMC Approach Glidepath Angle Line at specified altitudes.
1358
At what altitudes are decision gates placed above field elevation?
* 1000 feet (W) * 500 feet (A) ## Footnote Decision gates that are below the missed approach waypoint altitude are not displayed.
1359
What does the flight path vector indicate?
MCP selected vertical speed vector or flight path angle (M) ## Footnote The flight path vector helps pilots understand the aircraft's current flight trajectory.
1360
What does the fixed length line on the navigation display represent?
Current flight path angle and rotates about the point of the triangle ## Footnote The angle of the line is dependent on the vertical speed and groundspeed of the airplane.
1361
What does the dashed line on the navigation display indicate?
Selected vertical speed as a target angle when MCP V/S mode is selected ## Footnote It indicates selected flight path angle when MCP FPA mode is selected.
1362
What happens to the target speed dot when the airplane is within 5 knots of target speed?
The dot blanks ## Footnote If the airplane increases 5 knots or more faster than target speed, the dot reappears.
1363
How is the target speed displayed when it will not be achieved within the vector length?
Displayed at the end of the Flight Path Vector as an unfilled dot ## Footnote This indicates a failure to reach the target speed within the calculated flight path.
1364
Fill in the blank: Decision gates are placed at _______ feet and _______ feet above field elevation.
1000 feet, 500 feet
1365
True or False: Decision gates are displayed even if they are below the missed approach waypoint altitude.
False
1366
What does T/D stand for in aviation terminology?
Top-of-descent ## Footnote T/D indicates the point at which an aircraft begins its descent.
1367
What is indicated by the symbol for ATC conditional clearance point?
Approximate map position where the airplane should comply with ATC clearance ## Footnote The symbol is removed when the conditional clearance is met.
1368
What are the types of navigation display symbology mentioned?
* MAP * MAP CTR * PLAN ## Footnote These represent different modes of navigation display on the aircraft.
1369
What altitude profile points are calculated by the FMC?
* T/C (top-of-climb) * T/D (top-of-descent) * S/C (step climb) * E/D (end of descent) ## Footnote These points are crucial for flight planning and management.
1370
What does the altitude/ETA display on the FIX page indicate?
Predicted altitude/ETA along with profile point ## Footnote This helps in managing the flight's vertical profile.
1371
What flap settings are indicated on the navigation display?
* Flaps 1 * Flaps 5 * Flaps 20 ## Footnote Only these specific flap settings are shown on the display.
1372
What does the deceleration points symbol indicate?
No identifier ## Footnote Deceleration points do not have a specific marker on the display.
1373
What is the purpose of the speed profile point on the navigation display?
Indicates approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings ## Footnote It helps ensure the aircraft is on speed, on path, and on time at the final approach fix.
1374
What does the waypoint altitude constraint signify?
* Active (M) * Inactive ## Footnote This indicates whether the altitude constraint for a waypoint is currently in effect.
1375
What does T/D stand for in aviation terminology?
Top-of-descent ## Footnote T/D indicates the point at which an aircraft begins its descent.
1376
What is indicated by the symbol for ATC conditional clearance point?
Approximate map position where the airplane should comply with ATC clearance ## Footnote The symbol is removed when the conditional clearance is met.
1377
What are the types of navigation display symbology mentioned?
* MAP * MAP CTR * PLAN ## Footnote These represent different modes of navigation display on the aircraft.
1378
What altitude profile points are calculated by the FMC?
* T/C (top-of-climb) * T/D (top-of-descent) * S/C (step climb) * E/D (end of descent) ## Footnote These points are crucial for flight planning and management.
1379
What does the altitude/ETA display on the FIX page indicate?
Predicted altitude/ETA along with profile point ## Footnote This helps in managing the flight's vertical profile.
1380
What flap settings are indicated on the navigation display?
* Flaps 1 * Flaps 5 * Flaps 20 ## Footnote Only these specific flap settings are shown on the display.
1381
What does the deceleration points symbol indicate?
No identifier ## Footnote Deceleration points do not have a specific marker on the display.
1382
What is the purpose of the speed profile point on the navigation display?
Indicates approximate map position for FMC calculated speed settings ## Footnote It helps ensure the aircraft is on speed, on path, and on time at the final approach fix.
1383
What does the waypoint altitude constraint signify?
* Active (M) * Inactive ## Footnote This indicates whether the altitude constraint for a waypoint is currently in effect.
1384
What does ND stand for in the context of flight instruments?
Navigation Display
1385
What is indicated by the waypoint altitude constraint with an active symbol?
M (active)
1386
What does the inactive waypoint altitude constraint symbol represent?
W (inactive)
1387
In the context of waypoint altitude constraints, what does 'At or Above Altitude' signify?
Example of altitude constraint
1388
In the context of waypoint altitude constraints, what does 'At or Below Altitude' signify?
Example of altitude constraint
1389
What is the significance of the block altitude example in navigation displays?
Represents altitude constraints
1390
What does the HOLD symbol indicate in navigation displays?
Active hold waypoint
1391
Where is the hold symbol displayed in relation to the hold waypoint?
Centered between the first and second instance of the hold waypoint
1392
What does MAP CTR refer to in navigation displays?
Map Center
1393
Fill in the blank: The waypoint altitude constraint is shown as _______ when inactive.
W
1394
Fill in the blank: The waypoint altitude constraint is shown as _______ when active.
M
1395
What does ND stand for in the context of flight instruments?
Navigation Display
1396
What is indicated by the waypoint altitude constraint with an active symbol?
M (active)
1397
What does the inactive waypoint altitude constraint symbol represent?
W (inactive)
1398
In the context of waypoint altitude constraints, what does 'At or Above Altitude' signify?
Example of altitude constraint
1399
In the context of waypoint altitude constraints, what does 'At or Below Altitude' signify?
Example of altitude constraint
1400
What is the significance of the block altitude example in navigation displays?
Represents altitude constraints
1401
What does the HOLD symbol indicate in navigation displays?
Active hold waypoint
1402
Where is the hold symbol displayed in relation to the hold waypoint?
Centered between the first and second instance of the hold waypoint
1403
What does MAP CTR refer to in navigation displays?
Map Center
1404
Fill in the blank: The waypoint altitude constraint is shown as _______ when inactive.
W
1405
Fill in the blank: The waypoint altitude constraint is shown as _______ when active.
M
1406
What does TCAS stand for?
Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System ## Footnote TCAS is a system designed to reduce the risk of mid-air collisions between aircraft.
1407
What does the hold return symbol (M) indicate?
Shown during holding entry and when in holding ## Footnote The symbol is displayed to the left of the second hold waypoint.
1408
What is indicated by the TCAS resolution advisory (RA) symbol?
Relative altitude (R) ## Footnote The RA symbol is displayed in the ND mode MAP, MAP CTR, and mini-map.
1409
What does the TCAS traffic advisory (TA) symbol indicate?
Relative altitude (A) ## Footnote The TA symbol is displayed in the ND mode MAP, MAP CTR, and mini-map.
1410
How is traffic altitude displayed in TCAS?
The number indicates altitude in hundreds of feet relative to the airplane ## Footnote The number is below the traffic symbol when the traffic is below and above when the traffic is above the airplane.
1411
What does the absence of the altitude number imply in TCAS?
Altitude unknown ## Footnote This indicates that the system cannot determine the altitude of the traffic.
1412
What does the arrow in the TCAS symbol indicate?
Traffic climbing or descending at a rate greater than or equal to 500 fpm ## Footnote If the rate is less than 500 fpm, the arrow is not displayed.
1413
What information does the TCAS traffic alert message provide?
Traffic type, range in NM, altitude, and vertical direction ## Footnote This message is displayed whenever a TCAS RA or TA is active.
1414
True or False: The EFIS control panel TFC switch must be selected on for TCAS alerts to be displayed.
False ## Footnote TCAS alerts are displayed regardless of the TFC switch setting.
1415
Fill in the blank: The TCAS no bearing message indicates _____ for RA-R and TA-A.
No bearing information ## Footnote This message indicates that there is no directional information available for the traffic.
1416
What does TCAS stand for?
Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System ## Footnote TCAS is a system designed to reduce the risk of mid-air collisions.
1417
What is indicated by the TCAS off scale message?
RA-R. TA A ## Footnote This message appears when traffic is outside the area covered by the ND range.
1418
What does TCAS mode (C) indicate?
ND TCAS display is active ## Footnote Mode (C) shows that the TCAS system is actively monitoring traffic.
1419
What does TCAS mode (A) indicate?
TCAS computer is not computing RAs ## Footnote This is displayed regardless of the TFC switch status.
1420
What does TCAS TEST mode indicate?
TCAS is operating in the test mode ## Footnote Displayed whether the EFIS control panel TFC switch is selected on or off.
1421
When is TCAS FAIL displayed?
When TCAS is failed ## Footnote It is shown if the TCAS/ATC mode switch is not set to TA ONLY or TA/RA.
1422
What does TCAS ADS-B resolution advisory (RA) indicate?
Relative altitude (R) ## Footnote This is shown on the ND in relation to the aircraft's altitude.
1423
What does the arrow in TCAS indicate?
Traffic climbing or descending at a rate greater than or equal to 500 fpm ## Footnote If the rate is less than 500 fpm, the arrow is not displayed.
1424
Fill in the blank: The number and associated signs in TCAS indicate the altitude of traffic in _______.
hundreds of feet relative to the airplane ## Footnote This information helps pilots understand the vertical position of nearby traffic.
1425
What types of displays are mentioned for TCAS information?
MAP, MAP CTR, mini-map ## Footnote These displays provide visual information on traffic advisories.
1426
True or False: TCAS mode (C) is displayed only when the EFIS control panel TFC switch is selected on.
False ## Footnote Mode (C) is displayed regardless of the switch status.
1427
What does TCAS stand for?
Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System ## Footnote TCAS is a system designed to reduce the risk of mid-air collisions.
1428
What is indicated by the TCAS off scale message?
RA-R. TA A ## Footnote This message appears when traffic is outside the area covered by the ND range.
1429
What does TCAS mode (C) indicate?
ND TCAS display is active ## Footnote Mode (C) shows that the TCAS system is actively monitoring traffic.
1430
What does TCAS mode (A) indicate?
TCAS computer is not computing RAs ## Footnote This is displayed regardless of the TFC switch status.
1431
What does TCAS TEST mode indicate?
TCAS is operating in the test mode ## Footnote Displayed whether the EFIS control panel TFC switch is selected on or off.
1432
When is TCAS FAIL displayed?
When TCAS is failed ## Footnote It is shown if the TCAS/ATC mode switch is not set to TA ONLY or TA/RA.
1433
What does TCAS ADS-B resolution advisory (RA) indicate?
Relative altitude (R) ## Footnote This is shown on the ND in relation to the aircraft's altitude.
1434
What does the arrow in TCAS indicate?
Traffic climbing or descending at a rate greater than or equal to 500 fpm ## Footnote If the rate is less than 500 fpm, the arrow is not displayed.
1435
Fill in the blank: The number and associated signs in TCAS indicate the altitude of traffic in _______.
hundreds of feet relative to the airplane ## Footnote This information helps pilots understand the vertical position of nearby traffic.
1436
What types of displays are mentioned for TCAS information?
MAP, MAP CTR, mini-map ## Footnote These displays provide visual information on traffic advisories.
1437
True or False: TCAS mode (C) is displayed only when the EFIS control panel TFC switch is selected on.
False ## Footnote Mode (C) is displayed regardless of the switch status.
1438
What does TCAS stand for?
Traffic Collision Avoidance System ## Footnote TCAS is designed to prevent mid-air collisions between aircraft.
1439
What information does the TCAS ADS-B traffic symbol provide?
Relative altitude, ground speed, flight number ## Footnote This information helps pilots assess the proximity of other aircraft.
1440
What does the absence of a number indicate in TCAS ADS-B traffic?
Altitude unknown ## Footnote This implies that the system cannot determine the altitude of the other aircraft.
1441
In the context of the B787 navigation displays, what does a green traffic symbol represent?
Selected ADS-B traffic ## Footnote This indicates that the traffic has been selected by the flight crew for monitoring.
1442
What occurs when the CCD select button is used on the B787?
Traffic List is updated ## Footnote The display changes from white to green to indicate selected traffic.
1443
What does the hollow green chevron represent on the navigation display?
ITP reference traffic ## Footnote ITP stands for In-Trail Procedure, indicating a specific traffic reference.
1444
What does the OFFSCALE message indicate?
Selected ITP traffic is outside the traffic area covered by the ND ## Footnote This message alerts the crew that the selected traffic is not visible on the display.
1445
What is indicated by the cursor-over ADS-B traffic feature?
Altitude, ground speed, flight number ## Footnote This feature allows pilots to get detailed information about specific traffic when hovered over.
1446
Fill in the blank: The _______ ring may be added from the Traffic List.
Range ## Footnote This allows pilots to visually assess the distance of selected traffic.
1447
What does the symbol 'TFC-ALL' indicate?
Displays all traffic including ADS-B data ## Footnote TFC-ALL mode shows all traffic information available.
1448
What does 'ADS-B IN' refer to?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance–Broadcast In ## Footnote ADS-B IN is a surveillance technology that allows aircraft to determine their position via satellite navigation and periodically broadcast it.
1449
What does the 'WXR' symbol represent?
Weather radar (WXR) ## Footnote The weather radar provides information about precipitation and turbulence.
1450
What does 'WXR precipitation only mode (C)' indicate?
Weather radar is set to display only precipitation ## Footnote This mode focuses solely on detecting and displaying precipitation data.
1451
What does 'WXR and turbulence mode (C)' signify?
Weather radar displays both precipitation and turbulence ## Footnote This mode allows pilots to see both weather phenomena simultaneously.
1452
What is indicated by 'TCAS ADS-B mode (C)'?
TCAS with ADS-B option enabled and functional ## Footnote This mode actively displays traffic using both TCAS and ADS-B information.
1453
What does 'TCAS ADS-B Traffic Off (A)' mean?
ADS-B traffic symbols are not shown ## Footnote This occurs when the ADS-B functionality is disabled due to transponder settings.
1454
Fill in the blank: The 'MAP CTR' mode displays _______.
[key learning term] ## Footnote MAP CTR is a mode that provides a centered map view on the navigation display.
1455
What does 'Indicates degraded GPS position of ownship or surrounding traffic' mean?
GPS position is not reliable, affecting displayed traffic ## Footnote This indication can occur if the aircraft is near an airport without available map data.
1456
What does the 'WXR receiver gain (C)' control?
Adjusts the sensitivity of the weather radar ## Footnote This setting helps improve the accuracy of weather detection.
1457
What does 'TFC OFF' indicate?
Traffic symbols are not displayed ## Footnote This mode may be due to the transponder being set to standby or altitude reporting off.
1458
What does the predictive windshear symbol indicate?
It displays windshear location and approximate geometric size (width and depth) ## Footnote The symbol can show different states: R for warning and A for caution.
1459
What do the amber radials extending from the predictive windshear symbol help identify?
They help identify the location of the windshear event ## Footnote Amber radials provide visual cues for pilots to assess windshear.
1460
What does the WINDSHEAR annunciation indicate when it is active?
It indicates that predictive windshear caution (A) or warning (R) is active ## Footnote R stands for warning, indicating a more severe situation.
1461
What type of displays are used in the B787 for electronic checklists?
Electronic Checklist Displays ## Footnote These displays may not be current or applicable to the specific aircraft/simulator.
1462
In the context of the B787, what does the NORMAL MENU include?
It includes options like PREFLIGHTA and NON-NORMAL MENU ## Footnote These options are part of the checklists and procedures.
1463
What is included in the NORMAL CHECKLIST of the B787?
It includes resets and tests, such as for oxygen ## Footnote The checklist is for reference and may not reflect current procedures.
1464
What are the two main types of menu options in the B787 electronic checklist system?
NORMAL MENU and NON-NORMAL MENU ## Footnote These menus guide pilots through standard and emergency procedures.
1465
Fill in the blank: The predictive windshear symbol has states indicated by _______.
[R, A]
1466
True or False: The checklists shown in the electronic checklist displays are always current and applicable.
False ## Footnote The displays may not represent the latest information or procedures.
1467
What does the predictive windshear symbol indicate?
It displays windshear location and approximate geometric size (width and depth) ## Footnote The symbol can show different states: R for warning and A for caution.
1468
What do the amber radials extending from the predictive windshear symbol help identify?
They help identify the location of the windshear event ## Footnote Amber radials provide visual cues for pilots to assess windshear.
1469
What does the WINDSHEAR annunciation indicate when it is active?
It indicates that predictive windshear caution (A) or warning (R) is active ## Footnote R stands for warning, indicating a more severe situation.
1470
What type of displays are used in the B787 for electronic checklists?
Electronic Checklist Displays ## Footnote These displays may not be current or applicable to the specific aircraft/simulator.
1471
In the context of the B787, what does the NORMAL MENU include?
It includes options like PREFLIGHTA and NON-NORMAL MENU ## Footnote These options are part of the checklists and procedures.
1472
What is included in the NORMAL CHECKLIST of the B787?
It includes resets and tests, such as for oxygen ## Footnote The checklist is for reference and may not reflect current procedures.
1473
What are the two main types of menu options in the B787 electronic checklist system?
NORMAL MENU and NON-NORMAL MENU ## Footnote These menus guide pilots through standard and emergency procedures.
1474
Fill in the blank: The predictive windshear symbol has states indicated by _______.
[R, A]
1475
True or False: The checklists shown in the electronic checklist displays are always current and applicable.
False ## Footnote The displays may not represent the latest information or procedures.
1476
What does the Open Loop Indicator indicate?
Indicates the line item is an open loop action item. Requires flight crew confirmation to become complete.
1477
What does the Complete Indicator signify?
Indicates the line item is complete.
1478
What is the function of the Normal Checklist (NORMAL) Key?
Select - shows the next incomplete normal checklist and shows normal checklists menu page when all normal checklists are complete.
1479
What does the Line Item Override (ITEM OVRD) Key do?
Select - overrides the line item in the current line item box. Item shows cyan.
1480
What color indicates that an action item is incomplete?
White.
1481
What color indicates that an action item is complete?
Green.
1482
What color indicates that an action item is inactive or overridden?
Cyan.
1483
What does the Current Line Item Box highlight?
Highlights the current incomplete line item.
1484
What happens when the Checklist Reset (CHKL RESET) Key is selected?
Starts the current checklist from the beginning. All line items become incomplete and the current line item box, the cursor selection box, and the cursor move to the first incomplete line item.
1485
Fill in the blank: The cursor selection area is highlighted by the _______.
Cursor Selection Box.
1486
What does the Select key do in the Non-Normal Checklist?
Shows the previous checklist page ## Footnote This key allows the user to navigate back to the prior checklist page.
1487
What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Non-Normal Checklist?
The previous page is available ## Footnote This signifies that there is a prior page that can be accessed.
1488
What does it indicate when the Shows key is cyan in the Non-Normal Checklist?
The key is inactive ## Footnote This means that the first page of the checklist is currently being displayed.
1489
What does the Select key do in the Checklist Page Key?
Shows the checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key ## Footnote This key is utilized to access specific checklist pages.
1490
What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Checklist Page Key?
The checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key is currently displayed ## Footnote This shows the active checklist page.
1491
What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Checklist Page Key?
The checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key is not currently displayed ## Footnote This indicates that the specified checklist page is not active.
1492
What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Checklist Page Number?
The checklist page is incomplete ## Footnote This highlights that the current checklist page has not been fully completed.
1493
What does it indicate when the Shows key is green in the Checklist Page Number?
The checklist page is complete ## Footnote This signifies that all items on the checklist page have been addressed.
1494
What does the Select key do in the Next Page Key?
Shows the next checklist page ## Footnote This allows the user to move forward to the subsequent page of the checklist.
1495
What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Next Page Key?
The next page is available ## Footnote This means that there is another page that can be accessed.
1496
What does it indicate when the Shows key is cyan in the Next Page Key?
The key is inactive ## Footnote This indicates that the last page of the checklist is currently being displayed.
1497
What does the Non-Normal Checklist (NON-NORMAL) Key show when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists?
Shows when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue ## Footnote This informs the user about the status of the non-normal checklist queue.
1498
What does the Select key do when there is one incomplete non-normal checklist in the checklist queue?
Shows the next incomplete non-normal checklist ## Footnote This allows access to the next item in the queue.
1499
What does the Select key do when there are multiple incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue?
Shows the non-normal checklist queue ## Footnote This provides an overview of all incomplete items in the queue.
1500
What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Non-Normal Checklist Key?
An incomplete non-normal checklist has not been shown ## Footnote This means there are pending items that need to be addressed.
1501
What does the Select key do in the Non-Normal Checklist?
Shows the previous checklist page ## Footnote This key allows the user to navigate back to the prior checklist page.
1502
What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Non-Normal Checklist?
The previous page is available ## Footnote This signifies that there is a prior page that can be accessed.
1503
What does it indicate when the Shows key is cyan in the Non-Normal Checklist?
The key is inactive ## Footnote This means that the first page of the checklist is currently being displayed.
1504
What does the Select key do in the Checklist Page Key?
Shows the checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key ## Footnote This key is utilized to access specific checklist pages.
1505
What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Checklist Page Key?
The checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key is currently displayed ## Footnote This shows the active checklist page.
1506
What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Checklist Page Key?
The checklist page corresponding to the page number on the key is not currently displayed ## Footnote This indicates that the specified checklist page is not active.
1507
What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Checklist Page Number?
The checklist page is incomplete ## Footnote This highlights that the current checklist page has not been fully completed.
1508
What does it indicate when the Shows key is green in the Checklist Page Number?
The checklist page is complete ## Footnote This signifies that all items on the checklist page have been addressed.
1509
What does the Select key do in the Next Page Key?
Shows the next checklist page ## Footnote This allows the user to move forward to the subsequent page of the checklist.
1510
What does it indicate when the Shows key is gray in the Next Page Key?
The next page is available ## Footnote This means that there is another page that can be accessed.
1511
What does it indicate when the Shows key is cyan in the Next Page Key?
The key is inactive ## Footnote This indicates that the last page of the checklist is currently being displayed.
1512
What does the Non-Normal Checklist (NON-NORMAL) Key show when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists?
Shows when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue ## Footnote This informs the user about the status of the non-normal checklist queue.
1513
What does the Select key do when there is one incomplete non-normal checklist in the checklist queue?
Shows the next incomplete non-normal checklist ## Footnote This allows access to the next item in the queue.
1514
What does the Select key do when there are multiple incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue?
Shows the non-normal checklist queue ## Footnote This provides an overview of all incomplete items in the queue.
1515
What does it indicate when the Shows key is white in the Non-Normal Checklist Key?
An incomplete non-normal checklist has not been shown ## Footnote This means there are pending items that need to be addressed.
1516
What does the Non-Normal Checklist (NON-NORMAL) Key indicate?
Shows when there are additional incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue.
1517
What happens when there is one incomplete non-normal checklist in the checklist queue?
Select - shows the next incomplete non-normal checklist.
1518
What happens when there are more than one incomplete non-normal checklists in the checklist queue?
Select - shows the non-normal checklist queue.
1519
What does a white display indicate in the Non-Normal Checklist?
An incomplete non-normal checklist has not been shown.
1520
What does an amber display indicate in the Non-Normal Checklist?
An incomplete non-normal checklist has been shown but is not currently shown.
1521
What is the purpose of the Checklist Timer?
Not specified in the provided content.
1522
What is the first step when the right pack shutdown occurs?
Wait 2 minutes to allow time for any overheat condition to cool.
1523
How many resets should be attempted after a right pack shutdown?
Attempt only one reset.
1524
What action should be taken with the AIR COND RESET switch?
Push and hold for 1 second.
1525
What should be done with the PACK switch after a reset attempt?
Leave PACK switch ON even if the pack shuts down again.
1526
What type of checklist displays operational notes?
Non-normal checklist
1527
What does the CHECKLIST COMPLETE Indicator show?
When all line items are complete, inactive, or overridden, and all pages have been shown
1528
What does the Operational Notes (NOTES) key do?
Shows the operational notes page
1529
What are the types of menus mentioned for the Operational Notes Page?
* Normal Menu * Resets * Non-Normal Menu
1530
When can the autothrottle be re-engaged according to TAT Probe Icing?
* Reference/target N1 and reference N1 are shown * TAT is not near 0 degrees C
1531
What might indicate TAT probe icing?
* Autothrottle disconnects * V
1532
Fill in the blank: The Operational Notes page can be accessed through the _______ key.
[NOTES]
1533
True or False: The information shown in the non-normal checklist is required for checklist completion.
False
1534
What type of checklist displays operational notes?
Non-normal checklist
1535
What does the CHECKLIST COMPLETE Indicator show?
When all line items are complete, inactive, or overridden, and all pages have been shown
1536
What does the Operational Notes (NOTES) key do?
Shows the operational notes page
1537
What are the types of menus mentioned for the Operational Notes Page?
* Normal Menu * Resets * Non-Normal Menu
1538
When can the autothrottle be re-engaged according to TAT Probe Icing?
* Reference/target N1 and reference N1 are shown * TAT is not near 0 degrees C
1539
What might indicate TAT probe icing?
* Autothrottle disconnects * V
1540
Fill in the blank: The Operational Notes page can be accessed through the _______ key.
[NOTES]
1541
True or False: The information shown in the non-normal checklist is required for checklist completion.
False
1542
What does a white display indicate for a conditional line item?
The conditional line item is incomplete. ## Footnote This indicates that the task or check has not been fully addressed.
1543
What does a cyan display indicate for a conditional line item?
The conditional line item is sensed false. ## Footnote All line items indented below become inactive and show cyan.
1544
What does a green display indicate for a conditional line item?
The conditional line item is sensed true. ## Footnote The cursor and selection box move to the next incomplete line item.
1545
What is the recommended flap setting for landing if performance allows?
Flaps 30. ## Footnote Use VREF 30 for landing with flaps 30.
1546
What is the recommended flap setting for go-around?
Flaps 5. ## Footnote This is specified for optimal performance during a go-around maneuver.
1547
What is the purpose of the GPWS key?
To activate the Ground Proximity Warning System. ## Footnote This system helps prevent controlled flight into terrain.
1548
Fill in the blank: The conditional line item shows _______ when it is sensed false.
cyan
1549
True or False: The cursor skips inactive items when selecting line items.
True
1550
What does the term 'Closed Loop' refer to in the context of conditional line items?
A system where the status of conditional line items is actively monitored and displayed. ## Footnote This contrasts with 'Open Loop', where no feedback is provided.
1551
What is the significance of using VREF 20 for landing?
It is the reference speed for landing with flaps 20. ## Footnote This ensures safe landing performance.
1552
What does a white conditional line item indicate in the electronic checklist?
The conditional line item is incomplete. ## Footnote Indicates that the item requires attention or action before proceeding.
1553
What does a cyan conditional line item indicate in the electronic checklist?
The conditional line item is selected NO. ## Footnote All line items indented below become inactive and show cyan.
1554
What happens to the cursor when a cyan conditional line item is selected?
The cursor skips inactive items and moves to the next incomplete line item. ## Footnote This ensures efficient navigation through the checklist.
1555
What does a green conditional line item indicate in the electronic checklist?
The conditional line item is selected YES. ## Footnote The current line item box, cursor selection box, and cursor move to the next incomplete line item.
1556
What is the maximum flap setting allowed in alternate mode during landing?
Flaps 20. ## Footnote Use VREF 20 for landing.
1557
What should be monitored during the extension of alternate flaps?
Airspeed. ## Footnote This is crucial to ensure safe operation.
1558
Fill in the blank: The alternate flaps selector is set to _______ for extending flaps.
EXT. ## Footnote This initiates the flap extension process.
1559
What is the purpose of the non-normal checklist?
To manage deferred line items and specific abnormal procedures. ## Footnote Essential for handling non-standard situations.
1560
What is indicated by deferred line items in the checklist?
Items that require attention but are not immediately actionable. ## Footnote Important for tracking unresolved issues.
1561
What is the role of the FLAP/SLAT CONTROL 4 in the checklist?
To manage flap and slat settings during flight. ## Footnote Ensures correct configuration for various flight phases.
1562
What does the Checklist Override (CHKL OVRD) Key do?
Overrides the current checklist
1563
What condition is indicated by the HYD PRESS DEM L message?
The left demand pump pressure is low when commanded on
1564
What should be done if the HYD PRESS DEM L message is displayed?
Set L ELEC DEMAND pump selector to ON
1565
What happens when the L ELEC DEMAND pump selector is switched OFF after the HYD PRESS DEM L message?
The HYD PRESS DEM L message stays shown
1566
What note is associated with the left thrust reverser deployment?
Deployment may be slower than normal
1567
Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM includes _______ for Flight Instruments and Displays.
[Systems Description]
1568
What is the purpose of the B787 Weight and Balance Documents?
[Weight and balance management for the aircraft]
1569
What is the function of the NORMAL MENU in the B787 FCOM?
[Standard operational checklists]
1570
What does the NON-NORMAL MENU in the B787 FCOM include?
[Procedures for abnormal situations]
1571
What does the Checklist Override (CHKL OVRD) Key do?
Overrides the current checklist
1572
What condition is indicated by the HYD PRESS DEM L message?
The left demand pump pressure is low when commanded on
1573
What should be done if the HYD PRESS DEM L message is displayed?
Set L ELEC DEMAND pump selector to ON
1574
What happens when the L ELEC DEMAND pump selector is switched OFF after the HYD PRESS DEM L message?
The HYD PRESS DEM L message stays shown
1575
What note is associated with the left thrust reverser deployment?
Deployment may be slower than normal
1576
Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM includes _______ for Flight Instruments and Displays.
[Systems Description]
1577
What is the purpose of the B787 Weight and Balance Documents?
[Weight and balance management for the aircraft]
1578
What is the function of the NORMAL MENU in the B787 FCOM?
[Standard operational checklists]
1579
What does the NON-NORMAL MENU in the B787 FCOM include?
[Procedures for abnormal situations]
1580
What does the CHECKLIST OVERRIDDEN Indicator signify?
It shows when the checklist is overridden. All the line items show cyan.
1581
What is the purpose of the MULTIFUNCTION DISPLAY?
It serves multiple functions in the system.
1582
What is the meaning of the term 'CALISI'?
It is a specific term used in the context of the system.
1583
What does the NORMAL setting refer to?
It indicates the standard operational mode.
1584
What does the CHIL setting represent?
It is a specific operational mode related to cooling.
1585
What is the function of the RESET option?
It restores the system to its initial state.
1586
Fill in the blank: The __________ Menu Page provides access to various checklists.
Checklists
1587
What does the Resets Menu Key do in the B787?
Shows the checklist resets page ## Footnote The Resets Menu Key allows pilots to access the resets page for checklists.
1588
What does the Database Selection Key do when selected?
Activates associated checklist database ## Footnote The selection is only available on the ground and when both engines are off.
1589
What does a white indicator on the Database Selection Key signify?
The database is available for selection ## Footnote This indicates that the checklist database can be activated.
1590
What does a cyan indicator on the Database Selection Key indicate?
The key is inactive ## Footnote This means the database is inhibited from selection or invalid.
1591
What happens when the Reset Key is selected?
Resets checklists corresponding to the title on the key ## Footnote All affected checklists become incomplete after this action.
1592
What does a green indicator on Active Database Indicators mean?
The database is active ## Footnote This shows that the checklist database is currently in use.
1593
What does a gray indicator on Active Database Indicators signify?
The database is inactive ## Footnote This indicates that the checklist database is not currently in use.
1594
What is the function of the Exit Menu Key?
Exits page for access to normal and non-normal checklist keys ## Footnote This key allows pilots to navigate away from the current menu.
1595
What does the electronic checklist (ECL) system display?
Normal and non-normal checklists on a multifunction display (MFD) ## Footnote The ECL system is designed to enhance situational awareness for pilots.
1596
Is the electronic checklist system required for dispatch?
No, it is not required ## Footnote A paper checklist or other approved backup checklist must be available on the flight deck.
1597
What is the primary function of the checklist display switch on the display select panel?
Opens the electronic checklist ## Footnote The display select panel allows the flight crew to access various checklists.
1598
How does the flight crew operate the electronic checklist?
Using cursor control devices (CCDs) ## Footnote CCDs are used along with MFD selection as described in the System Description section.
1599
What are the three types of checklists that can be displayed?
* Normal * Non-normal for an EICAS message (annunciated) * Non-normal for a condition without an EICAS message (unannounced) ## Footnote These categories help in managing different operational scenarios.
1600
What happens after each normal checklist is completed?
Pushing the checklist display switch twice or selecting the normal key shows the next normal checklist in sequence ## Footnote This allows for a systematic flow of checklists during flight operations.
1601
How are some checklist steps checked off as complete?
Some must be checked off by the flight crew; others are automatically checked off ## Footnote Automatic checks occur based on sensed flight deck control positions, airplane system status, or EICAS messages.
1602
What indicates that a checklist can have more than one page?
Page keys show on the right side of the page ## Footnote This feature is essential for longer checklists that require multiple pages.
1603
What does 'CONTINUED' indicate at the bottom of a checklist page?
It indicates that there are more pages to the checklist ## Footnote This helps the crew understand that they need to navigate to the next page.
1604
What does the checklist complete indicator signify?
All line items are either complete, inactive, or overridden ## Footnote The indicator appears at the bottom of all checklist pages when criteria are met.
1605
What can the flight crew do if they choose not to complete a line item?
Override the line item with the line item override key ## Footnote The text changes color to cyan when overridden, signaling non-completion.
1606
What occurs when a checklist is completed and there are no additional checklists in the non-normal queue?
The cursor automatically moves to the normal checklist key ## Footnote This facilitates a seamless transition to the next normal checklist.
1607
True or False: Only one checklist can be displayed at a time.
True ## Footnote This ensures that the flight crew can focus on one checklist without confusion.
1608
What is the primary function of the checklist display switch on the display select panel?
Opens the electronic checklist ## Footnote The display select panel allows the flight crew to access various checklists.
1609
How does the flight crew operate the electronic checklist?
Using cursor control devices (CCDs) ## Footnote CCDs are used along with MFD selection as described in the System Description section.
1610
What are the three types of checklists that can be displayed?
* Normal * Non-normal for an EICAS message (annunciated) * Non-normal for a condition without an EICAS message (unannounced) ## Footnote These categories help in managing different operational scenarios.
1611
What happens after each normal checklist is completed?
Pushing the checklist display switch twice or selecting the normal key shows the next normal checklist in sequence ## Footnote This allows for a systematic flow of checklists during flight operations.
1612
How are some checklist steps checked off as complete?
Some must be checked off by the flight crew; others are automatically checked off ## Footnote Automatic checks occur based on sensed flight deck control positions, airplane system status, or EICAS messages.
1613
What indicates that a checklist can have more than one page?
Page keys show on the right side of the page ## Footnote This feature is essential for longer checklists that require multiple pages.
1614
What does 'CONTINUED' indicate at the bottom of a checklist page?
It indicates that there are more pages to the checklist ## Footnote This helps the crew understand that they need to navigate to the next page.
1615
What does the checklist complete indicator signify?
All line items are either complete, inactive, or overridden ## Footnote The indicator appears at the bottom of all checklist pages when criteria are met.
1616
What can the flight crew do if they choose not to complete a line item?
Override the line item with the line item override key ## Footnote The text changes color to cyan when overridden, signaling non-completion.
1617
What occurs when a checklist is completed and there are no additional checklists in the non-normal queue?
The cursor automatically moves to the normal checklist key ## Footnote This facilitates a seamless transition to the next normal checklist.
1618
True or False: Only one checklist can be displayed at a time.
True ## Footnote This ensures that the flight crew can focus on one checklist without confusion.
1619
What does the checklist complete indicator show?
It shows when all line items are either complete, inactive, or overridden, and every page has been shown.
1620
How can a flight crew override a line item?
By using the line item override key at the bottom of the page.
1621
What happens to the text when a line item is overridden?
The text changes color to cyan and the current line item box moves down to the next incomplete line item.
1622
What is the effect of overriding a checklist?
The text of the entire checklist changes color to cyan, and the checklist overridden indicator shows at the bottom of all pages.
1623
List the types of line items in a checklist
* free text * action item * operational note * conditional * inhibit checklist
1624
What color indicates incomplete line items?
White text.
1625
What color indicates complete line items?
Green text with a complete indicator (a green check mark).
1626
What color indicates overridden and inactive line items?
Cyan text.
1627
What happens when the checklist is opened?
The current line item box moves to the first incomplete line item.
1628
What are action items in a checklist?
Steps that require a flight crew action.
1629
What are the two types of action items?
* closed loop * open loop
1630
What do closed loop action items do?
They continuously monitor the position of a flight deck switch, lever, or selector.
1631
What happens to the action item color when the control is in the required position?
The action item color changes to green.
1632
What indicates that a closed loop action item is complete?
A complete indicator shows to the left of the action item.
1633
What does the checklist complete indicator show?
It shows when all line items are either complete, inactive, or overridden, and every page has been shown.
1634
How can a flight crew override a line item?
By using the line item override key at the bottom of the page.
1635
What happens to the text when a line item is overridden?
The text changes color to cyan and the current line item box moves down to the next incomplete line item.
1636
What is the effect of overriding a checklist?
The text of the entire checklist changes color to cyan, and the checklist overridden indicator shows at the bottom of all pages.
1637
List the types of line items in a checklist
* free text * action item * operational note * conditional * inhibit checklist
1638
What color indicates incomplete line items?
White text.
1639
What color indicates complete line items?
Green text with a complete indicator (a green check mark).
1640
What color indicates overridden and inactive line items?
Cyan text.
1641
What happens when the checklist is opened?
The current line item box moves to the first incomplete line item.
1642
What are action items in a checklist?
Steps that require a flight crew action.
1643
What are the two types of action items?
* closed loop * open loop
1644
What do closed loop action items do?
They continuously monitor the position of a flight deck switch, lever, or selector.
1645
What happens to the action item color when the control is in the required position?
The action item color changes to green.
1646
What indicates that a closed loop action item is complete?
A complete indicator shows to the left of the action item.
1647
What are open loop action items?
Open loop action items require the flight crew to manually confirm completion with the CCD and do not monitor control position or system state. ## Footnote Open loop action items have an open loop indicator, a gray box to the left of the line item.
1648
How do open loop action items visually indicate their status?
They have an open loop indicator, a gray box to the left of the line item. ## Footnote When the cursor is within the current line item box or the open loop indicator, the action item color changes from white to green upon confirmation.
1649
What are operational notes used for?
Operational notes are for the ongoing consequences of a non-normal condition, such as inoperative equipment or operational limitations. ## Footnote The flight crew should read all operational notes, but the current line item box does not stop on an operational note because no immediate action is required.
1650
What color is the text for operational notes?
White, unless inactive or overridden. ## Footnote Active operational notes are stored on the operational notes page for easy access.
1651
How can flight crews access the operational notes page?
By using the operational notes key at the bottom of the checklist page. ## Footnote Active operational notes have a checklist reference with the title of the checklist from which they came.
1652
What determines the status of an operational note?
The status of the operational note is based on the status of the EICAS message for the checklist with the note. ## Footnote If the EICAS message blanks, unneeded notes can also blank from the notes page.
1653
What are conditional line items in a checklist?
Conditional line items control the path through a complex checklist, stepping through or skipping line items based on a condition. ## Footnote There are two types of conditional line items: open loop and closed loop.
1654
What happens when a flight crew selects YES on an open loop conditional line item?
The line item indented below the conditional line item becomes active, and the current line item box moves to the first incomplete line item. ## Footnote This allows the checklist to progress based on the crew's input.
1655
What happens when a flight crew selects NO on an open loop conditional line item?
The line items indented below become inactive and change color to cyan, and the current line item box skips the inactive items. ## Footnote Inactive operational notes are also removed from the operational notes page.
1656
What are the two types of conditional line items?
Open loop and closed loop. ## Footnote Each type has different methods for managing the checklist flow.
1657
Fill in the blank: Open loop conditional line items have choices labeled ______ and ______.
YES, NO
1658
True or False: Inactive deferred line items have no effect on the checklist.
True
1659
What happens to inactive operational notes?
Removed from the operational notes page.
1660
What effect do inactive deferred line items have on checklists?
Removed from their normal checklist.
1661
What are the options available for the flight crew after making a selection?
The YES - NO choices remain available.
1662
What occurs when a flight crew selects YES on an open loop conditional line item within an exclusive set?
All other items are automatically set to NO.
1663
True or False: If all but one item in a mutually exclusive set is selected NO, the last item is automatically set to YES.
False.
1664
How does a closed loop conditional line item determine its selection?
Automatically based on monitored flight deck control, EICAS message, or airplane system state.
1665
What color does a conditional line item change to if the condition is true?
Green.
1666
What happens to the line items indented below a closed loop conditional line item if the condition is false?
Become inactive and change color to cyan.
1667
What is the purpose of an inhibit checklist line item?
To remove unneeded non-normal checklists from the checklist queue.
1668
Give an example of a primary EICAS alert message and its consequential message.
AUTO SPEEDBRAKE due to HYD PRESS SYS C condition.
1669
What is indicated when an inhibit checklist line item is active?
The message for the primary condition shows.
1670
Fill in the blank: An inhibit checklist line item shows as 'Do not accomplish the following _______.
[checklist].
1671
What happens to the checklist icon of a consequential EICAS message when inhibited?
The checklist icon is removed.
1672
What is included in the primary checklist if a consequential checklist has necessary steps for the primary failure condition?
Steps, notes, and information needed.
1673
What happens to the operational notes from a consequential checklist when inhibited?
Removed from the operational notes page.
1674
What does the flight crew do concerning consequential EICAS alert messages?
Should do the checklist for the primary message.
1675
What is the effect of an inhibit checklist line item on deferred line items?
Removed from the normal checklists.
1676
What are deferred line items?
Items that are part of a non-normal checklist, but must be done later in the flight, usually during approach. ## Footnote Deferred line items are automatically added to the end of a normal checklist when a non-normal checklist is opened.
1677
When is a non-normal checklist with deferred items considered complete?
When all line items before the deferred line items are complete. ## Footnote The checklist complete except deferred items indicator shows at the bottom of the page.
1678
What happens if a non-normal condition occurs after the normal checklist is completed?
The non-normal checklist is complete when all line items, including the deferred line items, are complete.
1679
What is the purpose of timers in checklists?
Timers help the flight crew keep track of time delays that are part of checklists.
1680
Where is the timer displayed on the checklist page?
In the upper right hand corner of the checklist page.
1681
What type of timers are used in the checklists?
Countdown timers.
1682
When does a timer on a line item start?
When the line item just before it is complete.
1683
What happens to the timer color when the timer is done?
It changes to amber.
1684
What does the current line item box do when a timer is running?
It does not move to the next incomplete line item until the line item with the timer is complete and the timer is done.
1685
Is the flight crew required to read additional information shown at the end of some non-normal checklists?
No.
1686
What is precautionary text?
Critical information shown above a line item that the flight crew should read before doing the line item action.
1687
How does the flight crew usually select checklists?
Using the checklist display switch on the display select panel and the normal and non-normal keys.
1688
What key is used to exit the menu page to access normal and non-normal checklist keys?
Exit menu key.
1689
Fill in the blank: Timers run in the background, allowing the flight crew to leave the checklist to accomplish other tasks and then return to the checklist. Timers are ______ when they are running.
white
1690
True or False: The checklist menu operation can only be performed using physical keys.
False.
1691
What are the two main types of menus in the Electronic Checklist (ECL)?
Normal Menu and Non-Normal Menu ## Footnote Normal checklists are presented in sequence for a normal flight, while non-normal checklists are organized by airplane system.
1692
How are non-normal checklists organized?
By airplane system with submenus ## Footnote If a system has too many checklists, additional submenus group them by name.
1693
What does the resets page display?
Checklist database part number, revision information, and manual resets ## Footnote Manual resets include RESET NORMAL, RESET NON-NORMAL, and RESET ALL.
1694
What is the purpose of the RESET NORMAL, RESET NON-NORMAL, and RESET ALL functions?
Intended for ground use only ## Footnote Using these in flight can reset completed non-normal checklists and cause loss of operational notes.
1695
What does the dual database feature allow?
Two ECL databases to be available ## Footnote The flight crew can select either database on the RESETS menu when the airplane is on the ground and both engines are off.
1696
What indicates the active database in the dual database feature?
A green diamond ## Footnote The database selection keys are inhibited in flight.
1697
What happens when the active ECL database is changed?
All checklists are reset ## Footnote This action occurs when the database is switched.
1698
What factors determine checklist priority?
Air/ground logic, fuel control switch, start selector position, EICAS message level ## Footnote These factors influence which checklists are displayed first when the checklist display switch is pushed.
1699
On the ground, what is the priority order for checklists when both fuel control switches are in CUTOFF?
1. EICAS warning messages 2. NORMAL checklists ## Footnote This order applies when both engine start selectors are in NORM.
1700
What are the two main types of menus in the Electronic Checklist (ECL)?
Normal Menu and Non-Normal Menu ## Footnote Normal checklists are presented in sequence for a normal flight, while non-normal checklists are organized by airplane system.
1701
How are non-normal checklists organized?
By airplane system with submenus ## Footnote If a system has too many checklists, additional submenus group them by name.
1702
What does the resets page display?
Checklist database part number, revision information, and manual resets ## Footnote Manual resets include RESET NORMAL, RESET NON-NORMAL, and RESET ALL.
1703
What is the purpose of the RESET NORMAL, RESET NON-NORMAL, and RESET ALL functions?
Intended for ground use only ## Footnote Using these in flight can reset completed non-normal checklists and cause loss of operational notes.
1704
What does the dual database feature allow?
Two ECL databases to be available ## Footnote The flight crew can select either database on the RESETS menu when the airplane is on the ground and both engines are off.
1705
What indicates the active database in the dual database feature?
A green diamond ## Footnote The database selection keys are inhibited in flight.
1706
What happens when the active ECL database is changed?
All checklists are reset ## Footnote This action occurs when the database is switched.
1707
What factors determine checklist priority?
Air/ground logic, fuel control switch, start selector position, EICAS message level ## Footnote These factors influence which checklists are displayed first when the checklist display switch is pushed.
1708
On the ground, what is the priority order for checklists when both fuel control switches are in CUTOFF?
1. EICAS warning messages 2. NORMAL checklists ## Footnote This order applies when both engine start selectors are in NORM.
1709
What is the priority for checklists when on the ground with fuel control switches in RUN?
• Checklists for any EICAS alert messages that have icons • Incomplete unannunciated checklists • NORMAL checklists ## Footnote EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System, which provides alerts to the flight crew.
1710
How are normal electronic checklists used by the flight crew?
The flight crew does the normal procedures from memory, then they read the checklist to confirm the actions. ## Footnote Normal checklists serve as a verification mechanism for the crew.
1711
List the sequence of normal checklists.
• PREFLIGHT • BEFORE START • BEFORE TAXI • BEFORE TAKEOFF • AFTER TAKEOFF • DESCENT • APPROACH • LANDING • SHUTDOWN • SECURE ## Footnote This sequence helps ensure all necessary procedures are followed in order.
1712
What happens when a completed normal checklist is opened from the menu?
It is reset. ## Footnote This allows the flight crew to start the checklist process anew.
1713
True or False: Normal checklists can only be accessed in a specific order.
False ## Footnote The flight crew can open any normal checklist from the normal menu at any time.
1714
What is the priority for checklists when on the ground with fuel control switches in RUN?
• Checklists for any EICAS alert messages that have icons • Incomplete unannunciated checklists • NORMAL checklists ## Footnote EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System, which provides alerts to the flight crew.
1715
How are normal electronic checklists used by the flight crew?
The flight crew does the normal procedures from memory, then they read the checklist to confirm the actions. ## Footnote Normal checklists serve as a verification mechanism for the crew.
1716
List the sequence of normal checklists.
• PREFLIGHT • BEFORE START • BEFORE TAXI • BEFORE TAKEOFF • AFTER TAKEOFF • DESCENT • APPROACH • LANDING • SHUTDOWN • SECURE ## Footnote This sequence helps ensure all necessary procedures are followed in order.
1717
What happens when a completed normal checklist is opened from the menu?
It is reset. ## Footnote This allows the flight crew to start the checklist process anew.
1718
True or False: Normal checklists can only be accessed in a specific order.
False ## Footnote The flight crew can open any normal checklist from the normal menu at any time.
1719
What indicates that a normal checklist is complete?
Checklist complete indicator (white text on a green background) shows at the bottom of the checklist page
1720
What does the checklist overridden indicator look like?
White text on a cyan background shows at the bottom of the checklist page
1721
What EICAS message alerts the crew about an incomplete normal checklist?
CHKL INCOMPLETE NORM
1722
What color does the normal checklist key change to when one or more normal checklists are incomplete?
Amber
1723
What are the critical flight phases that trigger incomplete normal checklist alerts?
Before taxi phase, before takeoff phase, approach phase, landing phase
1724
When does the before taxi phase occur?
Occurs when the airplane is moved under its own power
1725
When does the before takeoff phase occur?
Occurs when the airplane is on the FMC takeoff runway and aligned for takeoff
1726
When does the approach phase occur?
Occurs when the airplane descends through the FMC transition altitude, and the flap handle is not in UP
1727
When does the landing phase occur?
Occurs when the airplane descends below 500 feet above the FMC landing altitude
1728
What happens to the CHKL INCOMPLETE NORM message when the normal checklist is complete or overridden?
The message shows until the normal checklist is complete or overridden
1729
How are non-normal checklists used?
Used the same way as paper checklists and done by read-and-do
1730
What should the flight crew do if a checklist has memory steps?
The flight crew does those steps before opening the checklist
1731
How does the flight crew usually open annunciated non-normal checklists?
By pushing the checklist display switch
1732
What determines which non-normal checklist shows automatically?
EICAS messages
1733
What does it mean if an EICAS alert message has an icon?
The checklist for that message is incomplete or has not been opened
1734
What happens if an EICAS alert message has no icon?
The checklist is complete, there is no checklist for the message, or another checklist inhibits the icon
1735
What does pushing the checklist display switch do when an EICAS alert message with an icon shows?
Shows the checklist for that message
1736
What happens if there are more than ten checklists in the non-normal checklist queue?
The queue has more than one page
1737
What is the purpose of the checklist queue in the B787?
To display non-normal checklists in the same order as messages show on EICAS.
1738
How does an EICAS alert message affect the checklist queue?
When an EICAS alert message shows, its checklist automatically goes into the queue.
1739
What happens to the checklist queue when a checklist is completed?
The checklist is removed from the queue.
1740
What occurs when a checklist is inhibited by another active checklist?
The inhibited checklist is removed from the queue.
1741
How does the flight crew access checklists from the queue?
Using the CCD to select a checklist from the queue.
1742
What happens to the non-normal checklist key when a checklist is open?
It returns to the queue if there are other non-normal checklists in the queue.
1743
True or False: The checklist queue automatically updates with new EICAS messages.
False.
1744
What are unannunciated checklists?
Checklists for conditions that do not have EICAS messages.
1745
How can unannunciated checklists be accessed?
Only from menus.
1746
What is the first submenu item on the non-normal menu?
UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS.
1747
What happens to an unannunciated checklist when it is opened?
It remains in the checklist queue until it is complete.
1748
What must the flight crew do if they choose not to complete an unannunciated checklist?
The checklist must be overridden.
1749
What indicates that a checklist is complete?
Checklist complete indicator (white text on a green background).
1750
What does the checklist complete except deferred items indicator signify?
All line items in a checklist are complete or inactive, except for deferred items.
1751
What does the checklist overridden indicator show?
Checklist overridden indicator (white text on a cyan background).
1752
What color does the non-normal checklist key change to if a checklist is opened and not completed?
Amber.
1753
What does the EICAS advisory message CHKL NON-NORMAL indicate?
There is a non-normal checklist in the queue, its EICAS message is blank, and ECL is not open.
1754
What action must the flight crew take when the CHKL NON-NORMAL message is displayed?
Open ECL and complete the checklist.
1755
What condition usually causes the hidden checklist alerting?
Completing checklist memory items that cause the EICAS message to blank.
1756
Fill in the blank: When an unannunciated checklist is partially completed, the _______ is closed.
ECL.
1757
What is the purpose of the checklist queue in the B787?
To display non-normal checklists in the same order as messages show on EICAS.
1758
How does an EICAS alert message affect the checklist queue?
When an EICAS alert message shows, its checklist automatically goes into the queue.
1759
What happens to the checklist queue when a checklist is completed?
The checklist is removed from the queue.
1760
What occurs when a checklist is inhibited by another active checklist?
The inhibited checklist is removed from the queue.
1761
How does the flight crew access checklists from the queue?
Using the CCD to select a checklist from the queue.
1762
What happens to the non-normal checklist key when a checklist is open?
It returns to the queue if there are other non-normal checklists in the queue.
1763
True or False: The checklist queue automatically updates with new EICAS messages.
False.
1764
What are unannunciated checklists?
Checklists for conditions that do not have EICAS messages.
1765
How can unannunciated checklists be accessed?
Only from menus.
1766
What is the first submenu item on the non-normal menu?
UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLISTS.
1767
What happens to an unannunciated checklist when it is opened?
It remains in the checklist queue until it is complete.
1768
What must the flight crew do if they choose not to complete an unannunciated checklist?
The checklist must be overridden.
1769
What indicates that a checklist is complete?
Checklist complete indicator (white text on a green background).
1770
What does the checklist complete except deferred items indicator signify?
All line items in a checklist are complete or inactive, except for deferred items.
1771
What does the checklist overridden indicator show?
Checklist overridden indicator (white text on a cyan background).
1772
What color does the non-normal checklist key change to if a checklist is opened and not completed?
Amber.
1773
What does the EICAS advisory message CHKL NON-NORMAL indicate?
There is a non-normal checklist in the queue, its EICAS message is blank, and ECL is not open.
1774
What action must the flight crew take when the CHKL NON-NORMAL message is displayed?
Open ECL and complete the checklist.
1775
What condition usually causes the hidden checklist alerting?
Completing checklist memory items that cause the EICAS message to blank.
1776
Fill in the blank: When an unannunciated checklist is partially completed, the _______ is closed.
ECL.
1777
What is a hidden non-normal checklist condition?
Occurs when checklist memory items are completed, causing the EICAS message to blank, but a checklist is still in the queue ## Footnote This can also occur when an unannunciated checklist is partially completed and the ECL is closed.
1778
What does the checklist icon indicate when it shows with the CHKL NON-NORMAL message?
Alerts the flight crew to open the checklist, but there is no non-normal checklist for this BICAS message ## Footnote This indicates the need to check a checklist that may not be visible.
1779
What are latched non-normal checklists?
Checklists that stay in effect for the rest of the flight, even if the associated EICAS message blanks ## Footnote Used for conditions like FIRE ENG, where effects last until the flight is completed.
1780
How does a checklist become latched?
When the checklist icon shows with the EICAS message or when the checklist is opened from the menu without the message ## Footnote All unannunciated checklists are latched, while only some annunciated checklists are.
1781
What happens when a checklist is reset?
All action items and conditionals become incomplete, and the current line item box moves to the first incomplete line item ## Footnote This allows the flight crew to start the checklist over.
1782
What conditions lead to automatic resets of normal checklists?
1. Go-around 2. Touch-and-go 3. Normal menu selection ## Footnote These conditions trigger resets for checklists beginning with the AFTER TAKEOFF checklist.
1783
What is the function of the RESET NORMAL key?
Resets all normal checklists, allowing the flight sequence to begin again ## Footnote This is a manual reset option available to the flight crew.
1784
What is an individual checklist reset?
Resets the current checklist so it can be started again ## Footnote This is done using the checklist reset key at the bottom of a checklist page.
1785
True or False: Latched checklists can have their effects canceled during the flight.
False ## Footnote Latched checklists remain in effect for the entire flight.
1786
Fill in the blank: Automatic checklist resets occur for conditions such as _______.
go-around, touch-and-go, normal menu selection ## Footnote These conditions automatically reset all normal checklists starting with AFTER TAKEOFF.
1787
What does the RESET NON-NORMAL key do?
Resets all non-normal checklists and shows icons on any active EICAS messages with previously completed checklists ## Footnote Use in flight is not recommended.
1788
What is the function of the individual checklist reset key?
Resets the current checklist allowing it to be started again ## Footnote Located at the bottom of a checklist page.
1789
What does the RESET ALL key do?
Resets all normal and non-normal checklists, beginning the flight sequence again for normal checklists ## Footnote Use in flight is not recommended.
1790
What are the two types of override functions?
Item override and checklist override ## Footnote Each serves different purposes during checklist management.
1791
When does the flight crew use item override?
When they choose not to complete an action item despite it being done ## Footnote Allows the checklist to be marked complete.
1792
What happens when an item is overridden?
The color of the item changes to cyan ## Footnote Applies to both closed loop and open loop action items.
1793
Which action items cannot be overridden?
Conditional line items cannot be overridden ## Footnote Action items indented below a conditional line item can be overridden.
1794
What does checklist override do?
Overrides the current checklist and changes all line items to cyan ## Footnote Also removes operational notes for non-normal checklists.
1795
What is indicated when a checklist is overridden?
A checklist overridden indicator shows at the bottom of the page ## Footnote This helps the crew track which checklists have been modified.
1796
What happens to deferred line items when a non-normal checklist is overridden?
Deferred line items are removed from their normal checklists ## Footnote This maintains clarity in the checklist management process.
1797
Fill in the blank: The flight crew can override the current checklist using the _______.
[checklist override key]
1798
True or False: The use of the RESET ALL function in flight is recommended.
False ## Footnote It is not recommended to use this function during flight.
1799
What message appears on the MFD if the electronic checklist system is inoperative?
CHECKLIST NOT AVAILABLE ## Footnote This indicates that the checklist display switch has been pushed but the system is not operational.
1800
What message is displayed on the MFD if the electronic checklist system has been disabled by maintenance?
CHECKLIST DISABLED ## Footnote This message indicates that maintenance has intentionally disabled the electronic checklist system.
1801
What happens to checklist icons when the electronic checklist system is inoperative or disabled?
Checklist icons do not show with any EICAS messages. ## Footnote This implies that the system's functionality is limited when it is not operational.
1802
What is the primary purpose of the Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)?
Assist flight crew with routine tasks, enhance security, and reduce reliance on paper documents. ## Footnote The EFB is designed to streamline operations and improve efficiency in the cockpit.
1803
Where are the EFB display units located in the aircraft?
In the left and right side panels. ## Footnote These units operate independently but can share information.
1804
What types of user interactions are primarily used with the EFB display units?
Manipulating bezel keys or using the touch screen. ## Footnote Pilots can also use a cursor control device or an optional keyboard.
1805
How can the suite of applications available on the EFB be modified?
By the airline, which can revise application names and define the order of applications. ## Footnote Customization allows airlines to tailor the EFB to their operations.
1806
What is the main interface between the flight crew and the EFB?
The display unit. ## Footnote It incorporates a touch screen and multiple keys for user interaction.
1807
How many line select keys are located on the display unit?
16 vertically located line select keys. ## Footnote These keys are arranged 8 on both sides for navigation.
1808
Fill in the blank: The EFB can display information from the _______ unit.
off-side ## Footnote This feature allows for better information sharing between display units.
1809
True or False: The EFB is intended to provide a complete description of each function within its applications.
False ## Footnote The EFB documentation assumes users understand basic operations.
1810
What types of applications can be installed on the EFB?
Third party applications may also be installed. ## Footnote This expands the functionality of the EFB beyond standard offerings.
1811
What is the first step in initializing a flight on the B787?
The flight is initialized during the CDU/EFB Preflight Procedure
1812
What information is collected from the airplane systems during flight initialization?
* flight deck date and time * GPS latitude, longitude, date, and time * true and magnetic heading * origin and destination airports * flight number * airplane tail number * several performance data points * departure runway * outside air temperature * altimeter setting * gross weight (if zero fuel weight entered)
1813
What happens to applications during flight initialization?
All applications are reset to the start-up default settings
1814
How do you select to initialize the flight from the EFB?
Select INITIALIZE FLIGHT from the MAIN MENU page
1815
What indicates that certain application soft keys are unavailable during initialization?
Certain application soft keys turn cyan
1816
What must be done before initializing a new flight if the INITIALIZE FLIGHT soft key is not available?
The current flight must be closed
1817
What action should be taken at the end of the flight regarding the EFB?
Select CLOSE FLIGHT from the MAIN MENU page
1818
What does closing a flight do to the EFB application data?
It effectively deletes all flight-specific information from memory
1819
What is the effect of a complete power down of the EFB?
It accomplishes a similar function for non-persistent application data
1820
Fill in the blank: To initialize a flight, select _______ from the MAIN MENU page.
[INITIALIZE FLIGHT]
1821
True or False: The flight initialization process retains all information from the previous flight crew.
False
1822
What is the first step in initializing a flight on the B787?
The flight is initialized during the CDU/EFB Preflight Procedure
1823
What information is collected from the airplane systems during flight initialization?
* flight deck date and time * GPS latitude, longitude, date, and time * true and magnetic heading * origin and destination airports * flight number * airplane tail number * several performance data points * departure runway * outside air temperature * altimeter setting * gross weight (if zero fuel weight entered)
1824
What happens to applications during flight initialization?
All applications are reset to the start-up default settings
1825
How do you select to initialize the flight from the EFB?
Select INITIALIZE FLIGHT from the MAIN MENU page
1826
What indicates that certain application soft keys are unavailable during initialization?
Certain application soft keys turn cyan
1827
What must be done before initializing a new flight if the INITIALIZE FLIGHT soft key is not available?
The current flight must be closed
1828
What action should be taken at the end of the flight regarding the EFB?
Select CLOSE FLIGHT from the MAIN MENU page
1829
What does closing a flight do to the EFB application data?
It effectively deletes all flight-specific information from memory
1830
What is the effect of a complete power down of the EFB?
It accomplishes a similar function for non-persistent application data
1831
Fill in the blank: To initialize a flight, select _______ from the MAIN MENU page.
[INITIALIZE FLIGHT]
1832
True or False: The flight initialization process retains all information from the previous flight crew.
False
1833
What does the video surveillance application on the EFB provide?
Immediate real-time video surveillance of the area outside the flight deck entrance ## Footnote Expanded video surveillance is available for other parts of the airplane if installed.
1834
How do you start the video surveillance application on the EFB?
Select VIDEO from the EFB MAIN MENU page
1835
What does the VIDEO SURVEILLANCE page display?
The default view set by the administrator when the application is started
1836
What happens when the flight deck IFE/PASS SEATS power switch is turned OFF?
Disables the video surveillance cameras
1837
How many video images are displayed on the Video Surveillance page?
Four video images
1838
What is the primary image on the Video Surveillance page?
An enlarged duplicate view of the currently selected thumbnail image
1839
What indicates that the current thumbnail and primary image are selected and operating?
Both are bordered in green
1840
How can you select a different thumbnail to display in the primary image area?
Touch the thumbnail view on the screen or use the cursor device to highlight and select the thumbnail
1841
What does the FREEZE soft key do?
Stops the video and displays a still image
1842
What visual change occurs when the FREEZE function is activated?
The image border changes from green to cyan
1843
What happens when the UNFREEZE soft key is selected?
Returns to live video
1844
What additional options become available when selecting the SHOW MENU soft key?
Options for changing the display
1845
What does the BRIGHT + soft key do?
Increases the brightness of the image
1846
What does the BRIGHT - soft key do?
Decreases the brightness of the image
1847
What does the HIDE MENU soft key do?
Returns to the thumbnail Video Surveillance page
1848
Fill in the blank: Selecting the _____ soft key stops the video and displays a still image.
FREEZE
1849
True or False: The primary image and the currently selected thumbnail image are always different.
False

787 (39 decks)

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