CH11 FLT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

Question 1

What does the Line Select Key do?

Answer 1

Moves data from scratchpad to selected line, moves data from selected line to scratchpad, selects page, procedure, or performance mode, deletes data from selected line when DELETE displays in scratchpad

Question 2

What are the conventions for using the Line Select Key?

Answer 2

Scratchpad must be blank for line select transfer, data cannot be transferred to a blank line, a blank scratchpad cannot be transferred to a line, not all data can be modified, message displays if inappropriate entries are attempted

Question 3

What is displayed in the scratchpad?

Answer 3

Crew entered data or crew line-selected data up to 24 characters may be entered

Question 4

How can data be transferred to and from the scratchpad?

Answer 4

By pushing the cursor select switch on the cursor control device, cursor control selector, or by pushing the ENTER key on the multifunction keypad

Question 5

What is the function of the CDU Help Window?

Answer 5

Displays error/help messages to the crew

Question 6

What does the Date Display show?

Answer 6

Current UTC date from the GPS

Question 7

Fill in the blank: The scratchpad can hold up to ______ characters at one time.

Answer 7

24 characters

Question 8

True or False: Data can be transferred to a blank line in the scratchpad.

Answer 8

False

Question 9

What happens if inappropriate entries are attempted in the Line Select Key?

Answer 9

A message displays

Question 10

What does the CDU function key ‘INIT REF’ do?

Answer 10

Displays page for data initialization or for reference data

This key is used to set up initial data for flight management.

Question 11

What is the purpose of the ‘RTE’ function key?

Answer 11

Displays page to input or change origin, destination, route and flight number

This key allows pilots to modify the flight plan.

Question 12

What does the ‘DEP ARR’ key allow the user to do?

Answer 12

Displays page to input or change departure and arrival procedures

Essential for adjusting the flight’s takeoff and landing processes.

Question 13

What is the function of the ‘ALTN’ key?

Answer 13

Displays page to modify destination and route for alternate diversion

This is crucial for flight safety in case of route changes.

Question 14

What information can be accessed using the ‘VNAV’ function key?

Answer 14

Displays page to view or change vertical navigation path data

Important for managing altitude and descent profiles.

Question 15

What does the ‘FIX’ function key do?

Answer 15

Displays page to create reference points on ND map

Helps in navigation by establishing waypoints.

Question 16

What does the ‘LEGS’ function key display?

Answer 16

Displays page to evaluate or modify lateral and vertical route data

Allows for adjustments to the planned route.

Question 17

What is the purpose of the ‘HOLD’ function key?

Answer 17

Displays page to create holding patterns and display holding pattern data, or to exit holding pattern

Used in situations where a flight must delay landing.

Question 18

What information is provided by the ‘FMC COMM’ function key?

Answer 18

Displays FMC datalink status page

Shows the communication status of the flight management system.

Question 19

What can be viewed on the ‘PROG’ page?

Answer 19

Displays dynamic flight and navigation data, including waypoint and destination ETAs, fuel remaining, and arrival estimates

Critical for real-time monitoring of flight progress.

Question 20

What can the user do with the ‘NAV RAD’ function key?

Answer 20

Displays page to view or control navigation radio tuning

Necessary for setting radio frequencies for navigation.

Question 21

What is the function of the ‘OFFSET’ key?

Answer 21

Displays lateral offset page

Allows for adjustments in lateral navigation paths.

Question 22

What does the ‘REQUIRED TIME OF ARRIVAL’ key display?

Answer 22

Displays RTA LIMITS page

Used to manage expected arrival times.

Question 23

What does the ‘PREV PAGE’ function do?

Answer 23

Displays previous page of multiple page displays

Useful for navigating through lengthy data.

Question 24

What does the ‘NEXT PAGE’ function do?

Answer 24

Displays next page of multiple page displays

Allows users to continue through the information presented.

Question 25

What does a green Execute Light indicate?

Answer 25

Active data is modified but not executed ## Footnote Signals that changes are pending confirmation.

Question 26

What does the color cyan indicate on the CDU page?

Answer 26

Inactive Route ## Footnote Indicates that a route is not currently active.

Question 27

What does black text on a white background signify on the CDU?

Answer 27

Flight Plan Modification Not Executed ## Footnote Indicates that a modification to the flight plan has not been carried out.

Question 28

What color represents an active waypoint, airspeed, or altitude on the CDU?

Answer 28

Magenta ## Footnote Used to highlight critical flight parameters.

Question 29

On the CDU, what does a route discontinuity indicate?

Answer 29

A break in the flight route ## Footnote This requires pilot attention to resolve.

Question 30

Fill in the blank: The B787 FCOM includes systems description and _______.

Answer 30

Flight Management, Navigation Controls and Indicators

Question 31

How many pages are indicated in the CDU for the RTE 1?

Answer 31

3 ## Footnote The CDU displays multiple pages for route information.

Question 32

What is the significance of the CDU page color in the B787?

Answer 32

It indicates different statuses of flight parameters and routes ## Footnote Color coding helps pilots quickly assess flight information.

Question 33

True or False: The CDU displays only active routes in magenta.

Answer 33

False ## Footnote Inactive routes are shown in cyan.

Question 34

What does 'MOD' indicate on the CDU?

Answer 34

Modification ## Footnote Refers to changes made or pending to the flight plan.

Question 35

What information is typically displayed in the CDU for waypoints?

Answer 35

Distance, heading, and altitude ## Footnote Essential for navigation and flight planning.

Question 36

Fill in the blank: The B787 QRH stands for _______.

Answer 36

Quick Reference Handbook

Question 37

What does 'LEGS' refer to on the CDU?

Answer 37

Segments of the flight route ## Footnote Each leg represents a specific section of the flight path.

Question 38

What does the color black represent in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?

Answer 38

Background color of page and modifications ## Footnote MOD precedes page titles of modified pages.

Question 39

What does the color cyan indicate in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?

Answer 39

Inactive RTE page title and inactive key outline

Question 40

What does the color green signify in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?

Answer 40

Navigation radio data and active state of two-position and three-position selectors

Question 41

What does the color magenta represent in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?

Answer 41

Data used by FMC for lateral and vertical flight commands, active waypoint, active airspeed, active altitude, cursor, and highlight box

Question 42

What does the shaded gray color indicate in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?

Answer 42

Input field

Question 43

What does the color white represent in the B787 Flight Management System CDU Page?

Answer 43

Background for modified text and most data

Question 44

What device is used to interact with the CDU?

Answer 44

Cursor Control Device (CCD) or Cursor Control Selector (CCS) ## Footnote The CCD allows hovering to display the highlight box, while the CCS moves the highlight box up or down.

Question 45

How does the highlight box behave when using the CCS?

Answer 45

Moves down clockwise and up counterclockwise ## Footnote The highlight box does not return to the top or bottom of the display when it reaches the limits.

Question 46

What are the components of each CDU page?

Answer 46

Active and inactive areas ## Footnote The highlight box only displays over an active area.

Question 47

What actions can be performed when the highlight box is displayed?

Answer 47

Data entry or line key selection ## Footnote This allows pilots to interact with the CDU effectively.

Question 48

How can the highlight box be manually manipulated?

Answer 48

Using the four corners on the CCD touch pad ## Footnote Touching these corners highlights the corresponding line select key position.

Question 49

What are the methods to perform an enter or line key selection?

Answer 49

Pushing the ENTER key, Cursor Select Switch on multifunction keypad, or on the CCD ## Footnote These actions allow pilots to confirm selections.

Question 50

What feature aids data entry during preflight?

Answer 50

Autotabbing feature ## Footnote This feature can be enabled or disabled by the airline and guides the pilot through data entry.

Question 51

When does autotabbing operate?

Answer 51

When entering a page from a line select key ## Footnote It does not operate when a function key is used to enter a page.

Question 52

On which FMC pages is autotabbing enabled?

Answer 52

* ROUTE 1/X * PERF INIT * TAKEOFF REF 1/2 ## Footnote These pages allow for a more streamlined data entry process.

Question 53

What happens if a valid entry is made in a field not in the autotabbing sequence?

Answer 53

The highlight does not move; must be moved manually ## Footnote The pilot retains control over the highlight box position in this case.

Question 54

What must the pilot do after performing a delete action?

Answer 54

Manually move the highlight box to the next desired field ## Footnote This ensures that the pilot can continue data entry smoothly.

Question 55

What areas does autotabbing operate in?

Answer 55

Display area adjacent to the line selection keys ## Footnote It does not include the CDU function keys.

Question 56

When is autotabbing discontinued?

Answer 56

After the FMS preflight is complete ## Footnote This indicates the end of the guided data entry process.

Question 57

What does IRS stand for in the context of the B787?

Answer 57

Inertial Reference System ## Footnote The IRS is crucial for navigation and flight management.

Question 58

What happens when the ON BAT light is illuminated?

Answer 58

Airplane battery powers IRS ## Footnote The ON BAT light illuminates only when IRS has been aligned on airplane or ground power.

Question 59

What is indicated by the warning horn in the nose wheel well?

Answer 59

IRS is depleting the battery ## Footnote This alert is for the ground crew on the ground.

Question 60

What is the function of the IRS selectors?

Answer 60

Control power to the associated IRS ## Footnote ON applies power; OFF removes power.

Question 61

True or False: IRS selectors can be moved to the OFF position without being pulled out first.

Answer 61

False ## Footnote IRS selectors must be pulled out before moving to the OFF position.

Question 62

Where are the Tuning and Control Panels (TCPs) located?

Answer 62

Aft aisle stand ## Footnote There are three TCPs for accessing transponder and navigation functions.

Question 63

Fill in the blank: The transponder uses the Alerting and _______ Control Panel (ATP).

Answer 63

Transponder ## Footnote ATP is used in conjunction with the TCP for additional functions.

Question 64

What does the B787 FCOM stand for?

Answer 64

Flight Crew Operating Manual ## Footnote It contains comprehensive information about the aircraft systems and operations.

Question 65

What type of systems are described in the B787 FCOM?

Answer 65

Systems Description ## Footnote Includes details about the Inertial Reference System (IRS) among others.

Question 66

What does STBY mean in the context of the Transponder/TCAS Mode Selector?

Answer 66

Transponder not active ## Footnote In this mode, the transponder does not transmit any signals.

Question 67

What happens when the ALT RPG (altitude reporting) is set to OFF?

Answer 67

Transponder enabled in modes A and S, altitude reporting disabled, ADS-B out enabled ## Footnote This setting allows the transponder to operate without reporting altitude.

Question 68

What are the modes enabled when XPDR (transponder) is selected?

Answer 68

Modes A, C, and S ## Footnote In flight, altitude reporting is enabled and ADS-B out is active.

Question 69

What does the TA (traffic advisory) ONLY mode indicate?

Answer 69

Traffic advisory only, no resolution advisory ## Footnote This mode alerts the crew of nearby traffic but does not provide resolution guidance.

Question 70

What is the function of the IDENT switch?

Answer 70

Transmits an identification signal ## Footnote This is used to help air traffic control identify the aircraft on radar.

Question 71

What can the flight crew do from the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) SYS POWER screen?

Answer 71

Remove power from the transponders ## Footnote This action is taken in response to a loss of cooling in the forward E/E bay.

Question 72

What does the EICAS advisory message EQUIP COOLING FWD indicate?

Answer 72

Loss of cooling in the forward E/E bay ## Footnote This indicates a potential issue that may require the crew to take action regarding equipment cooling.

Question 73

Fill in the blank: The Transponder Alerting and Transponder Control Panel (ATP) includes the __________ mode selector.

Answer 73

[Transponder/TCAS] ## Footnote This panel is crucial for managing transponder settings and alerts.

Question 74

What is the primary purpose of the Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)?

Answer 74

To provide traffic advisories and resolution advisories ## Footnote TCAS helps prevent mid-air collisions by alerting pilots to nearby aircraft.

Question 75

What does the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) allow you to adjust?

Answer 75

Gain settings ## Footnote Gain settings can be increased or decreased using the INCR and DECR controls.

Question 76

How is the current gain setting displayed on the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel?

Answer 76

Between line select keys IL and 2L ## Footnote The gain setting defaults to a calibrated gain level.

Question 77

What happens if the gain is adjusted below the default calibrated gain level in WX and WX+T modes?

Answer 77

Weather radar returns may be reduced or not displayed ## Footnote This indicates the importance of maintaining calibrated levels for accurate data.

Question 78

What does the WX mode display on the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel?

Answer 78

Weather radar returns ## Footnote This mode is essential for monitoring weather conditions.

Question 79

What is the function of the WX+T mode?

Answer 79

Displays weather returns and turbulence within precipitation ## Footnote Turbulence within 40 NM is shown at all display ranges.

Question 80

What is required for turbulence detection by the radar?

Answer 80

Presence of detectable precipitation ## Footnote Clear air turbulence cannot be detected by radar.

Question 81

What does the MAP mode display?

Answer 81

Ground returns at the selected gain level ## Footnote This mode is useful for situational awareness regarding terrain.

Question 82

How is the selected mode displayed on the Weather Radar Tuning and Control Panel?

Answer 82

In large green font ## Footnote This enhances visibility for the pilot.

Question 83

What does the tilt control allow the user to select?

Answer 83

Manual (MAN) or automatic (AUTO) antenna tilt ## Footnote This selection helps optimize radar performance.

Question 84

What does the Tuning and Control Panel do in the Weather Radar System?

Answer 84

It toggles the weather radar system between the left and right system ## Footnote The selected system is highlighted in large font green text, with the left system as the default selection.

Question 85

What is the function of the Weather Radar Test button?

Answer 85

Tests weather radar system operation without transmitting ## Footnote A test pattern and PWS symbol display along with any fault messages when the test is conducted.

Question 86

What happens during a weather radar test when on the ground?

Answer 86

Activates a 12 second test with specific alerts ## Footnote The test includes amber WINDSHEAR annunciation, aural MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY, and several subsequent alerts.

Question 87

What does the amber WINDSHEAR annunciation indicate during the test?

Answer 87

It indicates the beginning of the weather radar test ## Footnote It is followed by aural alerts and the illumination of the Master Warning Light.

Question 88

What occurs after the amber WINDSHEAR annunciation during the test?

Answer 88

Master Warning Light illuminates and EICAS alert message WINDSHEAR SYS displays ## Footnote This is part of the sequence of alerts during the weather radar test.

Question 89

What triggers the red WINDSHEAR annunciation during the test?

Answer 89

It is triggered at the end of the test sequence ## Footnote Accompanied by aural alerts stating WINDSHEAR AHEAD.

Question 90

What must occur for the test pattern and PWS symbol to remain displayed?

Answer 90

WXR must not be deselected or a PWS alert must not occur ## Footnote The display remains until specific actions are taken.

Question 91

What happens when WXR TEST is selected ON?

Answer 91

All other WXR modes are automatically set to OFF ## Footnote This includes WX, WX+T, and MAP modes.

Question 92

What occurs when WXR TEST is switched back to OFF?

Answer 92

The previously active WXR mode is automatically set to ON ## Footnote This allows for seamless transition back to normal operation.

Question 93

What are the components included in navigation systems?

Answer 93

* Global Positioning System (GPS) * Air Data Reference System (ADRS) * Inertial Reference System (IRS) * VOR * DME * ILS * ATC transponder * Weather radar * Flight Management System (FMS) ## Footnote The FMS is described in the Flight Management System Description section of the B787 documentation.

Question 94

What happens if the IRS becomes inoperative during flight?

Answer 94

The FMC automatically uses GPS data to navigate. ## Footnote No EICAS message is displayed when this occurs.

Question 95

How do the left and right GPS receivers function?

Answer 95

They are independent and supply very accurate position data to the IRS. ## Footnote The IRS then supplies a hybrid GPS inertial position to the FMC.

Question 96

What does the ND display when the FMC uses GPS position updates?

Answer 96

The ND annunciates GPS. ## Footnote This indicates that the navigation is relying on GPS data.

Question 97

What is displayed on the ND when POS (position) is selected?

Answer 97

The ND map displays raw GPS position as left and right GPS symbols. ## Footnote The GPS symbols display as a single symbol when the GPS receivers calculate the same position.

Question 98

What should GPS position updates be used for during approaches?

Answer 98

GPS position updates should be used during all approaches referenced to the WGS-84 reference datum. ## Footnote This ensures accurate navigation during critical phases of flight.

Question 99

When should GPS updates be inhibited?

Answer 99

GPS updates should be inhibited for all other approach operations unless other appropriate procedures are used. ## Footnote This is to prevent reliance on potentially inaccurate data.

Question 100

True or False: The GPS tuning is manual.

Answer 100

False. ## Footnote All GPS tuning is automatic.

Question 101

What advisory message alerts the crew when both GPS systems have failed?

Answer 101

EICAS advisory message GPS. ## Footnote This alerts the crew to a critical navigation failure.

Question 102

Fill in the blank: The GPS data is used to provide very accurate _______ to the IRS.

Answer 102

position data. ## Footnote This data is essential for accurate navigation.

Question 103

What is the function of the GPS NAV prompt on the POS REF page 3/4?

Answer 103

To inhibit GPS navigation data. ## Footnote This is used when GPS data might not be reliable.

Question 104

What does the ADRS provide for the airplane?

Answer 104

Airplane altitude and airspeed for displays, flight management system, flight controls, engine controls, and other systems.

Question 105

From where does the ADRS receive air data?

Answer 105

Left, center, and right pitot and static systems.

Question 106

What happens when voted ADRS air data is invalid?

Answer 106

Backup airspeed (AA SPD) and/or backup altitude (GPS ALT) are automatically provided by the IRS and GPS systems.

Question 107

What are the major components of the Inertial Reference System (IRS)?

Answer 107

Inertial reference units (IRUs) and attitude and heading reference units (AHRUs).

Question 108

What does the IRU combine to provide hybrid GPS inertial position outputs?

Answer 108

Inertial reference functions with GPS position information.

Question 109

What is required for initial power-up of the IRS?

Answer 109

Battery bus power and the IRS switches to be ON.

Question 110

What does the ON BAT light indicate?

Answer 110

The IRS is on battery power.

Question 111

How long does the alignment of the IRUs take at mid latitudes?

Answer 111

Approximately 7 to 10 minutes.

Question 112

What happens if the GPS position is not available during IRU alignment?

Answer 112

Dashes are replaced with boxes and present position must be entered to complete the alignment.

Question 113

What is the function of the air data modules in the ADRS?

Answer 113

Convert sensed analog pressures to digital values for air data functions.

Question 114

True or False: The integrated standby flight display (ISFD) data is independent of IRU and AHRU values.

Answer 114

True.

Question 115

Fill in the blank: The ADRS sends trusted voted air data to the _______.

Answer 115

PFDs.

Question 116

What does the EICAS memo message IRU ALIGN MODE L+R indicate?

Answer 116

The IRUs are in align mode.

Question 117

What is displayed on the PFDs when both voted and backup air data is unavailable?

Answer 117

ISFD altitude (ISFD ALT) and ISFD airspeed (ISFD SPD).

Question 118

What alerts maintenance personnel that the IRS is on battery power?

Answer 118

The horn in the landing gear wheel well sounds.

Question 119

What is the role of angle of attack sensors in the ADRS?

Answer 119

Provide additional data for air data functions.

Question 120

List the systems that the IRS calculates data for.

Answer 120

* Displays * Flight management system * Flight controls * Engine controls * Other systems

Question 121

What is displayed in the SET INERTIAL POS line if GPS position is not available?

Answer 121

Boxes replacing dashes.

Question 122

How long can alignment take at high latitudes?

Answer 122

Up to 17 minutes.

Question 123

What advisory message is displayed when the latitude/longitude position is not close to the origin airport?

Answer 123

FMC MESSAGE and INERTIAL/ORIGIN DISAGREE ## Footnote This message alerts the crew to a discrepancy in the entered inertial position.

Question 124

What happens if the crew-entered latitude/longitude position fails internal IRU comparison tests?

Answer 124

EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE and ENTER INERTIAL POSITION ## Footnote This indicates that the entered position is not acceptable and requires correction.

Question 125

What occurs if a new airplane present position entry fails the internal check twice?

Answer 125

EICAS advisory message FMC MESSAGE and ALIGNMENT REINITIATED ## Footnote The system will automatically start a new alignment cycle.

Question 126

What mode does the IRS change to after alignment is complete?

Answer 126

Navigate mode ## Footnote This allows the airplane to be moved and continue its flight operations.

Question 127

What happens to the IRS when the airplane stops for an extended period?

Answer 127

Changes to automatic realign mode ## Footnote The IRS refines the alignment until the airplane moves again.

Question 128

In automatic realign mode, what happens to IRS velocity and acceleration errors?

Answer 128

Reset to zero ## Footnote This helps maintain accurate inertial positioning during the realignment process.

Question 129

What capability does the IRU have while in flight?

Answer 129

Complete alignment recovery from in-flight loss of alignment ## Footnote This relies on GPS data and restores full navigation capability within about 10 minutes.

Question 130

What is recommended if the total time in navigation mode is expected to exceed 18 hours?

Answer 130

A position update ## Footnote This helps ensure continued accuracy in navigation.

Question 131

What advisory message is displayed if both IRUs fail?

Answer 131

NAV IRU ## Footnote Indicates a failure in the inertial reference units.

Question 132

What solution does the FMC use when both IRUs fail?

Answer 132

Hybrid GPS inertial position solution using AHRUs inertial sensors ## Footnote This combines GPS data with inertial sensor information for continued navigation.

Question 133

What is the role of the Attitude and Heading Reference Unit (AHRU)?

Answer 133

Supply a stable source of attitude, heading, and rate information ## Footnote AHRUs contribute to hybrid GPS inertial positioning but do not provide independent inertial position.

Question 134

What caution message is displayed if the IRS fails?

Answer 134

NAV INERTIAL SYS ## Footnote Indicates failure of both AHRUs and IRUs.

Question 135

What does the FMC rely on if the IRS is inoperative?

Answer 135

GPS output from integrated navigation radios (INRs) ## Footnote This allows the FMC to continue providing necessary position and track data.

Question 136

What happens to LNAV and VNAV guidance if the IRS fails?

Answer 136

Not available ## Footnote This limits certain autopilot functions when IRS is inoperative.

Question 137

What prompt does the CDU POS INIT page display immediately after any IRU or AHRU failure?

Answer 137

SET HDG prompt ## Footnote This indicates the need for the crew to manage heading synchronization.

Question 138

What action is required from the aircrew when the IRS fails?

Answer 138

Use the SET HDG prompt periodically to sync display heading ## Footnote This ensures that the display heading remains accurate relative to standby compass magnetic heading.

Question 139

What happens to AFDS Modes after IRS failure?

Answer 139

The following AFDS Modes are inoperative: * FPA * G/S * HDG HOLD/SEL * LNAV * LOC * TO/GA * TRK HOLD/SEL * VNAV ## Footnote Functions like HDG HOLD/SEL are noted as operative when standby magnetic compass heading is entered on the POS INIT page.

Question 140

Which navigation functions become inoperative after IRS failure?

Answer 140

The following navigation functions are inoperative: * FMC Performance Predictions * FMC VNAV pages * ND Wind Direction and Speed (wind arrow) ## Footnote The ND map mode display references TRK after IRS failure.

Question 141

What PFD function is inoperative following IRS failure?

Answer 141

PFD Heading is inoperative ## Footnote This function can still operate if standby magnetic compass heading is entered on the POS INIT page.

Question 142

What additional functions are inoperative after failure of both the IRS and GPS?

Answer 142

The following functions are inoperative: * CDU active leg course and distance * CDU direct-to a waypoint * FMC Alternate Airport DIVERT NOW * FMC navigation radio autotuning * ND Map (center and expanded) ## Footnote The autobrake is also inoperative after IRS failure.

Question 143

True or False: The autobrake remains operative after IRS failure.

Answer 143

False ## Footnote The autobrake is specifically mentioned as inoperative following IRS failure.

Question 144

Fill in the blank: After IRS failure, the ND map mode display references _______.

Answer 144

TRK ## Footnote This indicates the direction in which the aircraft is tracking.

Question 145

How many DME systems are installed in the B787?

Answer 145

Two DMEs ## Footnote DMEs are usually tuned by the FMC, but may also be tuned manually.

Question 146

When is DME tuned manually?

Answer 146

When the VOR portion of a VOR/DME pair is entered on the NAV RADIO page ## Footnote The FMC tunes DME as necessary for radio position updates.

Question 147

What does the FMC use for position updates when more accurate sources are not available?

Answer 147

DME/DME radio position updates ## Footnote DME/DME position updates are usually more accurate than VOR/DME updates.

Question 148

What happens when navaids are inhibited on the REF NAV DATA page?

Answer 148

The FMC cannot tune specific DMEs ## Footnote Manual DME tuning does not inhibit FMC DME tuning.

Question 149

How are DME distances displayed on the B787?

Answer 149

On the ND map when VOR L or VOR R are selected ## Footnote DME distance also displays on the PFD when the ILS receivers are tuned to a collocated DME and localizer facility.

Question 150

What information does the POS REF page 2/4 display?

Answer 150

Identifiers of the DME stations used for FMC position updates

Question 151

How many ILS receivers are installed in the B787?

Answer 151

Two ILS receivers ## Footnote They are usually tuned by the FMC but can be tuned manually.

Question 152

What conditions must be met for FMC ILS autotuning to occur?

Answer 152

* An ILS, LOC, back course, LDA, or SDF approach has been selected * The airplane is within 50 NM from the top of descent, 150 NM of the landing runway threshold, or the FMC is in descent mode

Question 153

What is inhibited during the first 10 minutes after takeoff?

Answer 153

ILS autotuning ## Footnote This is to prevent clutter on the PFD.

Question 154

What happens if a new approach is selected during the 10 minute takeoff inhibit period?

Answer 154

The ILS autotunes to the new approach frequency ## Footnote This occurs even if it is during the inhibit period.

Question 155

Can both ILS receivers be manually tuned at any time?

Answer 155

Yes, unless ILS approach tuning inhibit is active

Question 156

What conditions activate ILS approach tuning inhibit?

Answer 156

* Autopilot is engaged or flight director is on and either the localizer or glideslope is captured * HUD takeoff mode is active for at least 5 seconds and on the ground

Question 157

What is ILS tuning enabled by?

Answer 157

ILS tuning is enabled when: * TO/GA switch is pushed * Autopilot is disengaged and both flight director switches are switched off * MCP approach mode is deselected above 1500 feet radio altitude * Airplane becomes airborne after a HUD TO/GA takeoff ## Footnote ILS stands for Instrument Landing System, which aids in landing aircraft in low visibility conditions.

Question 158

What happens to the ILS frequency when a new approach is selected on the CDU?

Answer 158

The ILS frequency is automatically returned when ILS tuning is enabled and a new approach is selected on the CDU. ## Footnote CDU stands for Control Display Unit, used for flight management and navigation.

Question 159

How can the left ILS be tuned in the event of FMC or display failures?

Answer 159

The left ILS can be tuned from ALTN NAV RADIO page 2/2 on the TCP. ## Footnote ALTN NAV RADIO refers to an alternative navigation radio page for tuning in case of failures.

Question 160

Where is the tuned ILS frequency displayed during approach mode?

Answer 160

The tuned ILS frequency displays on the PFD and on the ND in the approach mode. ## Footnote PFD stands for Primary Flight Display and ND stands for Navigation Display.

Question 161

What indicates a failure of an ILS receiver?

Answer 161

If an ILS receiver fails, data from the remaining ILS is displayed on both the captain's and first officer's displays, and the EICAS caution message SINGLE SOURCE APPROACH is displayed. ## Footnote EICAS stands for Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.

Question 162

What is the purpose of the Morse code identifier in navigation?

Answer 162

The Morse code identifier of a tuned VOR, ILS, or DME can be converted to alpha characters and displays on the PFD and ND to monitor navigation radio reception. ## Footnote VOR stands for VHF Omnidirectional Range, ILS for Instrument Landing System, and DME for Distance Measuring Equipment.

Question 163

What should pilots do if the decoded identifier is incorrect?

Answer 163

Pilots should verify the identity of the tuned navigation station from the audio Morse code when the tuned frequency remains displayed or an incorrect identifier displays. ## Footnote Incorrect identifiers may result from variations in ground station identifier quality.

Question 164

How are VOR receivers typically tuned?

Answer 164

Two VOR receivers are usually tuned by the FMC but can be tuned manually by the crew. ## Footnote FMC stands for Flight Management Computer.

Question 165

How does the FMC use VOR/DME radio position updates?

Answer 165

The FMC uses VOR/DME radio position updates when more accurate sources are not available. ## Footnote VOR/DME pairs can be inhibited on the REF NAV DATA page.

Question 166

Fill in the blank: The crew manually tunes VORs on the _______ page.

Answer 166

NAV RADIO ## Footnote The NAV RADIO page is part of the aircraft’s navigation systems.

Question 167

True or False: The identifier name is compared with the FMC database for navigation accuracy.

Answer 167

False ## Footnote The identifier name is not compared with the FMC database.

Question 168

What does the NAV RADIO page display?

Answer 168

FMC tuned or manually tuned VOR data ## Footnote The NAV RADIO page is critical for navigation and position updates.

Question 169

What information does the POS REF page 2/4 show?

Answer 169

Identifier of the VOR and DME pair used for position updates ## Footnote This information is essential for accurate positioning.

Question 170

What is displayed on the ND when VORs are tuned?

Answer 170

Identifier or frequency of the VORs tuned ## Footnote The ND (Navigation Display) provides crucial navigational data.

Question 171

What do the left and right VOR bearing pointers indicate?

Answer 171

The related VOR check box on the ND drop-down menu is selected ## Footnote This feature assists pilots in visual navigation.

Question 172

What modes can the Alerting and Transponder Control Panel (ATP) control?

Answer 172

* ALT RPTG OFF * STBY * TA ONLY * TA/RA * XPDR ## Footnote Each mode serves different functions for transponder operations.

Question 173

What happens when the transponder mode selector is in TA ONLY or TA/RA?

Answer 173

Traffic displays on the screen ## Footnote This is crucial for avoiding collisions in flight.

Question 174

In what modes does the transponder respond to Mode S interrogations?

Answer 174

All modes except STBY ## Footnote Mode S is essential for air traffic control communication.

Question 175

What does the transponder provide?

Answer 175

* Selective interrogation * Downlink information such as flight number, airspeed, magnetic heading, altitude, GPS position ## Footnote This information is vital for situational awareness and air traffic control.

Question 176

What is the role of Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)?

Answer 176

Enhances air traffic monitoring and situational awareness ## Footnote ADS-B is increasingly used for tracking aircraft in real-time.

Question 177

What does the transponder mode selector control regarding ADS-B?

Answer 177

ADS-B functionality ## Footnote Proper transponder settings are crucial for effective ADS-B operations.

Question 178

True or False: TCAS modes should be used on the ground for ground tracking.

Answer 178

False ## Footnote Using TCAS on the ground can lead to incorrect tracking information.

Question 179

Fill in the blank: The transponder activates beacon and altitude reporting when the mode selector is in _______.

Answer 179

[XPDR, TA ONLY, or TA/RA] ## Footnote These settings ensure the aircraft is properly reporting its position and altitude.

Question 180

How is the transponder control page accessed on the TCP?

Answer 180

By selecting the XPDR mode select key

Question 181

What are the functions controlled by the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP)?

Answer 181

* Altitude Mode (Absolute or Relative) * ATC Ident function * Mode A numeric code * TCAS envelope (Above, Normal, or Below) * Transponder select (Left or Right)

Question 182

Which functions do the Captain and First Officer TCPs share control of?

Answer 182

* IDENT function * left or right side selection * XPDR code

Question 183

What happens when changes are made on one TCP?

Answer 183

Changes are reflected on the center and cross-side TCPs

Question 184

Which settings control only the on-side TCAS display?

Answer 184

TCAS envelope and altitude settings

Question 185

What can the center TCP control?

Answer 185

Both left and right side transponders

Question 186

What occurs if the on-side transponder fails?

Answer 186

The TCP automatically switches to the cross-side transponder

Question 187

What is displayed if both transponders fail?

Answer 187

EICAS advisory message TRANSPONDER

Question 188

What can be done if altitude reporting fails?

Answer 188

The transponder can be switched to the alternate altitude source

Question 189

What does the EICAS advisory message indicate if the ATP is inoperative?

Answer 189

TRANSPONDER PANEL

Question 190

How can the transponder and TCAS modes be set if the ATP fails?

Answer 190

Using the TCP

Question 191

How do you access the ALERT/XPDR CTL page?

Answer 191

From the MENU page by turning ALERT/XPDR CTL to ON and selecting the ALERT/XPDR CTL page

Question 192

What must be done to set transponder and TCAS modes when the ALERT/XPDR CTL page is selected ON?

Answer 192

They can be set via the ALERT/XPDR CTL page

Question 193

What components make up the weather radar system?

Answer 193

A transmitter/receiver unit and antenna ## Footnote The control is managed through the TCP.

Question 194

How is the weather radar system activated?

Answer 194

At least one weather radar system must be selected ON from the TCP SYS POWER screen ## Footnote This is necessary for the WXR switch or check box to function.

Question 195

What does the WXR switch on the EFIS control panel do?

Answer 195

Controls power to the transmitter/receiver and allows weather radar returns to display on the ND and/or mini-map ## Footnote It performs the same function as the WXR check box on the ND drop-down menu.

Question 196

What happens to the radar display range at ND ranges greater than 320 NM?

Answer 196

WXR can still be displayed but only shows weather returns out to 320 NM

Question 197

When does the weather radar perform self-tests?

Answer 197

On power up, during each sweep, and when descending through 2,300 feet AGL

Question 198

Can the weather radar sense clear air turbulence?

Answer 198

No, it can only sense turbulence when there is sufficient precipitation

Question 199

What additional feature does the weather radar provide?

Answer 199

Predictive windshear alerting ## Footnote Refer to Predictive Windshear (PWS) Display and Annunciations for more information.

Question 200

What is the purpose of the flight management system (FMS)?

Answer 200

Aids the flight crew with navigation, in-flight performance optimization, automatic fuel monitoring, and flight deck displays

Question 201

What are the two automatic flight functions managed by the FMS?

Answer 201

Lateral flight path (LNAV) and vertical flight path (VNAV)

Question 202

What data does the flight crew enter into the CDUs?

Answer 202

Applicable route and flight data

Question 203

How does the FMS calculate commands for flight path control?

Answer 203

Uses the navigation database, airplane position, and supporting systems data

Question 204

What does the FMS do with navigation radios?

Answer 204

Tunes the navigation radios and sets courses

Question 205

What types of flight procedures can the FMS support?

Answer 205

Routes, SIDs, STARs, holding patterns, and procedure turns

Question 206

What is the basis of the flight management system?

Answer 206

The flight management computer function (FMC)

Question 207

How many independent FMCs are there?

Answer 207

Three independent FMCs

Question 208

What happens at power up regarding the FMCs?

Answer 208

One FMC is designated for flight management tasks while the other FMCs monitor

Question 209

Fill in the blank: The second FMC is ready to replace the first FMC if ______ occurs.

Answer 209

system faults

Question 210

When the second FMC becomes active, what role does the third FMC take?

Answer 210

Becomes its backup

Question 211

What does the FMC use to calculate airplane present position and commands?

Answer 211

Flight crew entered flight plan data, airplane systems data, and data from the FMC navigation database ## Footnote The FMC calculates pitch, roll, and thrust commands necessary to fly an optimum flight profile.

Question 212

Which systems does the FMC send commands to?

Answer 212

* Autothrottle * Autopilot * Flight Director ## Footnote These systems work together to ensure safe and efficient flight operations.

Question 213

What is the purpose of the ND drop-down menu?

Answer 213

To select the items displayed on the ND ## Footnote ND stands for Navigation Display.

Question 214

What is required for the FMC to be certified for area navigation?

Answer 214

Navigation radio and/or GPS updating ## Footnote This certification allows for more accurate and efficient navigation.

Question 215

What are Control Display Units (CDUs) used for?

Answer 215

To control the FMC using emulated CDU displays ## Footnote The CDUs may be displayed on any of the MFDs as selected by the aircrew.

Question 216

What is the first phase of the Flight Management System (FMS) operation?

Answer 216

Preflight ## Footnote The FMS changes through various phases during flight, including descent, takeoff, climb, cruise, approach, and flight complete.

Question 217

What data is entered into the CDU during the preflight phase?

Answer 217

* Flight plan * Load sheet data ## Footnote Datalink can also be used to enter some data.

Question 218

What does the flight plan define?

Answer 218

The route of flight from the origin to the destination ## Footnote It also initializes LAV and provides performance data to initialize VNAV.

Question 219

Fill in the blank: The required preflight data consists of initial _______.

Answer 219

ancition ## Footnote This data is essential when GPS is not provided.

Question 220

True or False: The FMC and CDU are used only for enroute navigation.

Answer 220

False ## Footnote They are also used for terminal area navigation, RNAV approaches, and to supplement primary navigation during all types of instrument approaches.

Question 221

What data does the flight crew enter during preflight into the CDU?

Answer 221

Flight plan and load sheet data ## Footnote This data can also be entered by datalink.

Question 222

What does the flight plan define?

Answer 222

The route of flight from the origin to the destination and initializes LNAV

Question 223

What are the required preflight data items?

Answer 223

* Initial position (when not provided by GPS) * Performance data * Route of flight * Takeoff data

Question 224

What are some optional preflight data items?

Answer 224

* Alternate airport * Navigation database selection * Route 2 * Standard terminal arrival route (STAR) * Thrust limits * Wind * Standard instrument departure (SID)

Question 225

How does preflight start?

Answer 225

With the IDENT page

Question 226

What happens if the IDENT page is not displayed?

Answer 226

It can be selected with the IDENT prompt on the INIT/REF INDEX page

Question 227

What is the purpose of the lower right line select key during preflight?

Answer 227

To select the next preflight page after data entry and checking

Question 228

What indicates that the route has been activated?

Answer 228

The execute (EXEC) light illuminates after selecting ACTIVATE on the ROUTE page

Question 229

What does the DEP/ARR page allow the crew to select?

Answer 229

A Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

Question 230

What should be done if selection of the SID causes a route discontinuity?

Answer 230

Resolution of the discontinuity and execution of the modification should be accomplished on the ROUTE or LEGS page

Question 231

What should the crew verify after entering the route and PERF INIT page information?

Answer 231

The OAT on the THRUST LIM page

Question 232

What does the crew do after verifying the OAT?

Answer 232

Select the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page

Question 233

What minimum required information does the EFB receive from the FMC?

Answer 233

* GWT * ORIGIN * OAT * QNH * Takeoff runway

Question 234

What action does the crew take after filling in the required information in the EFB?

Answer 234

Select CALC

Question 235

What alert is displayed after the EFB generates the appropriate takeoff data?

Answer 235

A '•FMC' COMM alert

Question 236

What options does the crew have after reviewing data on the THRUST LIMIT, TAKEOFF REF 1/2, and TAKEOFF REF 2/2 pages?

Answer 236

Select LOAD or REJECT

Question 237

What does the PRE-FLT line title on the TAKEOFF REF page indicate when all required preflight entries are complete?

Answer 237

FMC PREFLIGHT COMPLETE

Question 238

What prompt displays at the next page select line location after completing preflight entries?

Answer 238

The THRUST LIM prompt

Question 239

What marks the beginning of the takeoff phase?

Answer 239

Selection of TO/GA ## Footnote TO/GA stands for Takeoff/Go Around, indicating the thrust setting for takeoff.

Question 240

What is the end point of the takeoff phase?

Answer 240

Thrust reduction for climb

Question 241

When can LNAV and VNAV be armed in relation to takeoff?

Answer 241

Before takeoff to activate at the applicable altitude

Question 242

What defines the start of the climb phase?

Answer 242

Thrust reduction for climb

Question 243

What is the top of climb (T/C) point?

Answer 243

Where the airplane reaches the cruise altitude entered on the PERF INIT page

Question 244

What marks the beginning of the cruise phase?

Answer 244

The T/C point

Question 245

What can occur during the cruise phase?

Answer 245

Step climbs and en route descents

Question 246

What initiates the descent phase?

Answer 246

The T/D point or VNAV descent page becoming active

Question 247

What is the end of the descent phase?

Answer 247

Start of the approach phase

Question 248

When does the approach phase start?

Answer 248

When the first waypoint of the procedure sequences or when the runway is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than 25 NM, or when the flaps are moved out of the UP position

Question 249

What happens during the flight complete phase?

Answer 249

Thirty seconds after engine shutdown, it clears the active flight plan and load data

Question 250

What should be monitored when operating in LNAV and VNAV modes?

Answer 250

Unwanted pitch, roll, or thrust commands

Question 251

What actions should be taken if unwanted operation is observed in LNAV and VNAV modes?

Answer 251

Select Heading Select (HDG SEL) and Flight Level Change (FLCH) modes

Question 252

What situations require careful monitoring for errors?

Answer 252

* Activation of a new database * Power interruption * IRS failure

Question 253

What does the FMC not do when more than 21 NM off the active route?

Answer 253

Does not sequence the active waypoint

Question 254

How can return to the active route be accomplished?

Answer 254

* DIRECT TO procedures * INTERCEPT COURSE TO/FROM procedures

Question 255

What happens when a waypoint is in the route more than once?

Answer 255

Certain route modifications use the first waypoint in the route

Question 256

How do VECTORS waypoints display on the ND?

Answer 256

As a magenta line without an end point leading away from the airplane symbol

Question 257

What must be true about start and end waypoints when entering airways in a route page?

Answer 257

They must be in the database

Question 258

What should be done if engines remain operating between flights?

Answer 258

Enter a new cruise altitude before the next flight to recalculate the proper vertical profile

Question 259

What must be entered if a climb to cruise altitude is necessary after completing a descent?

Answer 259

A new cruise altitude entry must be made

Question 260

What are DIRECT TO courses segments of?

Answer 260

Great circle route

Question 261

What is the difference in the course to fly to a waypoint before and after executing a DIRECT TO waypoint?

Answer 261

Before execution, it's the arrival course; after execution, it’s the current course to fly

Question 262

Define 'Active' in FMC terminology.

Answer 262

Flight plan data used to calculate LNAV or VNAV guidance commands

Question 263

What does 'Activate' mean in the context of navigation?

Answer 263

Changing a route from inactive to active for navigation

Question 264

What does an altitude constraint represent?

Answer 264

A crossing restriction at a waypoint

Question 265

What does the DELETE key do in FMC?

Answer 265

Removes FMC data and reverts to default values

Question 266

What is Distance to Go (DTG)?

Answer 266

A calculation of the great-circle distance to the referenced point in nautical miles

Question 267

How is DTG calculated for the active waypoint?

Answer 267

From the airplane present position to the active waypoint

Question 268

How is DTG calculated for waypoints following the active waypoint?

Answer 268

From the airplane present position or the point abeam the active flight plan along the active flight plan path

Question 269

What is 'Econ' in aviation terms?

Answer 269

A speed schedule calculated to minimize operating cost

Question 270

What does a low cost index cause in terms of cruise speed?

Answer 270

A lower cruise speed

Question 271

What cost index should not normally be entered unless recommended by Boeing?

Answer 271

A cost index less than 60

Question 272

What is the definition of 'Econ' in the context of flight management?

Answer 272

A speed schedule calculated to minimize operating cost based on the cost index ## Footnote A low cost index leads to lower cruise speed, and a cost index of zero yields maximum range cruise.

Question 273

What happens when a cost index less than 60 is entered?

Answer 273

It should not normally be entered unless recommended due to potential additional fuel burn caused by autothrottle activity in cruise ## Footnote This is particularly relevant when fuel costs are high compared to operating costs.

Question 274

What is the purpose of entering a cost index of 9999?

Answer 274

To obtain a minimum time speed schedule calling for maximum flight envelope speeds ## Footnote This schedule ignores the cost of fuel.

Question 275

Define 'Enter' in the context of the CDU.

Answer 275

Putting data in the CDU scratchpad and line selecting the data to the applicable location.

Question 276

What does 'Erase' mean in flight management?

Answer 276

Removing entered data that has resulted in a modification by selecting the ERASE prompt.

Question 277

What is an 'EICAS Message'?

Answer 277

A non-normal message displayed on the EICAS.

Question 278

What action does selecting the illuminated EXEC key perform?

Answer 278

Makes modified data active.

Question 279

What does 'Inactive' refer to in flight management systems?

Answer 279

Data not being used to calculate LNAV or VNAV commands.

Question 280

What is the purpose of a 'Help Window' in the CDU?

Answer 280

Shows FMC messages and information.

Question 281

Define 'Initialize' in the flight management context.

Answer 281

Entering data required to make the system operational.

Question 282

What does the term 'Modify' signify?

Answer 282

Changing active data.

Question 283

What is a 'Prompt' in the CDU?

Answer 283

CDU symbols that aid the flight crew in accomplishing a task.

Question 284

What does 'Purge' do in the context of the ALTN LIST?

Answer 284

Removes all airports uplinked to the ALTN LIST.

Question 285

What does 'Select' mean in the CDU?

Answer 285

Selecting a key to obtain necessary data or action.

Question 286

Define 'Sequence' in flight management.

Answer 286

A waypoint, speed, altitude, location and/or constraint that has been passed, reached, or completed.

Question 287

What is a 'Speed restriction'?

Answer 287

An airspeed limit associated with a specified altitude entered by the flight crew.

Question 288

What does 'Speed transition' refer to?

Answer 288

An airspeed limit associated with a specified altitude entered by the FMC.

Question 289

What is a 'Waypoint'?

Answer 289

A point on the route or in the navigation database.

Question 290

What is a conditional waypoint?

Answer 290

A waypoint not associated with a land reference, based on a time or altitude requirement ## Footnote Example: 'when reaching 4,000 feet.'

Question 291

What is the purpose of the MAINTENANCE INDEX page?

Answer 291

Used only on the ground.

Question 292

What data sources can the FMC use to compute position and velocity?

Answer 292

Hybrid GPS inertial, raw GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, Inertial Reference Unit (IRU L, R) data sources

Question 293

When does the FMC use hybrid GPS data for navigation solutions?

Answer 293

When it provides the most accurate data with the lowest Actual Navigation Performance (ANP)

Question 294

What happens if hybrid GPS data is not available or inhibited?

Answer 294

The FMC reverts to using the remaining selected position sources

Question 295

What is the primary method for updating the FMC position?

Answer 295

Using hybrid GPS data

Question 296

How can the FMC position be manually updated?

Answer 296

To any of the calculated navigation source positions displayed on POS REF page 2/4

Question 297

What occurs when the TO/GA switch is pushed on the ground with GPS NAV OFF?

Answer 297

Updates the FMC position to the takeoff runway threshold or to the shift position

Question 298

What must be entered for an intersection takeoff?

Answer 298

The intersection displacement distance from the runway threshold on the TAKEOFF REF page 1/2

Question 299

When is the TO/GA update inhibited?

Answer 299

When GPS NAV is ON and valid reception is available

Question 300

What does the FMC automatically tune and display?

Answer 300

VOR, DME, and ILS radios on the ND and NAV RADIO page

Question 301

What is the relationship between radio updating and the active route?

Answer 301

Selection is related to the active route and any procedure (SID, STAR, etc.) in the active route

Question 302

What happens when manually selecting VOR frequencies during radio updating?

Answer 302

Precludes the FMC from autotuning other VOR/DME frequencies for position updating

Question 303

What continues to be tuned for position updating even when VOR frequencies are manually selected?

Answer 303

DME/DME pairs

Question 304

Where is the current FMC position source and associated ANP displayed?

Answer 304

On POS REF page 2/4 and the Navigation Display (ND)

Question 305

What indicates a failed, invalid, or inactive FMC position update source on the ND?

Answer 305

Specific annunciations related to the position update source

Question 306

Fill in the blank: The FMC position normally uses ______ data.

Answer 306

hybrid GPS

Question 307

What chapters provide additional information on the Global Positioning System, Inertial System, and Radio Navigation Systems?

Answer 307

Chapter 11, Section 20

Question 308

What reference does the autopilot switch to when entering polar regions?

Answer 308

True north reference ## Footnote The autopilot automatically switches to a true north reference for all cruise roll modes.

Question 309

How is the automatic switching to true north reference indicated on the ND and PFD?

Answer 309

A white box around the word TRU ## Footnote The indication appears on both the Navigation Display (ND) and Primary Flight Display (PFD).

Question 310

What does the CDU RTE LEGS page display when operating in true north reference?

Answer 310

'T' next to the leg course data ## Footnote This indicates the aircraft is using true north reference.

Question 311

What happens when leaving the polar regions with the HEADING REF switch in the NORM position?

Answer 311

The autopilot switches back to a magnetic reference ## Footnote This change is indicated by a green box around the word MAG.

Question 312

What does the ND and PFD display indicate when the heading reference is TRU in the descent phase?

Answer 312

An amber box around the word TRU ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is still using true north reference during descent.

Question 313

What displays near the top of both NDs when the airplane is north of 70°N or south of 70°S?

Answer 313

Current GRID heading ## Footnote The GRID heading is not used by any airplane system.

Question 314

What should be selected on the HEADING REF switch when operating the autopilot in the polar region in other than LNAV?

Answer 314

TRUE ## Footnote This ensures proper heading reference in non-LNAV operations.

Question 315

What change occurs to the airplane position symbol when operating north of 82°N or south of 82°S using the ND PLAN mode?

Answer 315

It changes to a circle with a 'X' in the middle ## Footnote This visual indicator helps pilots understand their position in extreme latitudes.

Question 316

What advisory message is displayed if the IRS fails in a polar region?

Answer 316

NAV INERTIAL SYS ## Footnote This indicates a failure in the Inertial Reference System, affecting autopilot and AFDS roll modes.

Question 317

What must be done every 10 minutes when operating in degraded mode after IRS failure?

Answer 317

Periodic updating of the heading reference on the POS INIT page ## Footnote This is necessary due to significant heading display drift.

Question 318

Fill in the blank: The autopilot will automatically switch to a _______ reference for all cruise roll modes in polar regions.

Answer 318

true north ## Footnote This automatic switch is crucial for navigation accuracy in polar areas.

Question 319

What does ANP stand for in the context of navigation performance?

Answer 319

Actual Navigation Performance ## Footnote ANP is an estimate of the true airplane position within a defined circle.

Question 320

What is the estimated accuracy of the airplane's position represented by ANP?

Answer 320

Estimated to be within the ANP circle at least 95% of the time.

Question 321

How can a manual FMC position update be accomplished?

Answer 321

Using the ARM function on POS REF page 2/4 LSK 1R.

Question 322

What happens when the NOW prompt is selected on the IRU L line?

Answer 322

Updates the FMC ANP to the selected navigation source ANP.

Question 323

What is the purpose of Required Navigation Performance (RNP)?

Answer 323

Navigation accuracy required for operation within a defined airspace.

Question 324

How is RNP expressed?

Answer 324

In nautical miles.

Question 325

What does the FMC do if ANP exceeds RNP?

Answer 325

Alerts the flight crew.

Question 326

What does Vertical ANP represent?

Answer 326

The FMC estimate of the quality of its altitude determination.

Question 327

What is the Vertical ANP displayed on?

Answer 327

RNP PROGRESS page 4/4.

Question 328

What must the pilot set for the Vertical ANP display to be valid?

Answer 328

The baro setting reported by ATIS or given in the approach clearance.

Question 329

What does Vertical RNP provide?

Answer 329

Situational awareness with respect to a barometric vertical path.

Question 330

What happens if vertical ANP exceeds vertical RNP?

Answer 330

The FMC alerts the flight crew.

Question 331

What does LNAV stand for?

Answer 331

Lateral Navigation.

Question 332

What commands does LNAV provide?

Answer 332

Steering commands to the next waypoint or the selected route intercept point.

Question 333

When does LNAV engage after takeoff?

Answer 333

At or above 50 feet, when within 2.5 nautical miles of the active route leg.

Question 334

What does the FMC normally provide guidance for in LNAV?

Answer 334

Great circle courses between waypoints.

Question 335

What occurs when an arrival or approach is entered into the active route?

Answer 335

The FMC commands a heading, track, fixed radius turn, or a DME arc.

Question 336

Fill in the blank: The FMC supplies a default RNP value for _______.

Answer 336

takeoff, enroute, oceanic/remote, terminal, and approach phases of flight.

Question 337

True or False: Inertial updates can be inhibited.

Answer 337

False.

Question 338

What does LNAV provide in terms of navigation?

Answer 338

Steering commands to the next waypoint or the selected route intercept point

Question 339

At what altitude does LNAV engage after takeoff?

Answer 339

At or above 50 feet

Question 340

What is the lateral distance from the active route leg for LNAV to engage?

Answer 340

2.5 nautical miles

Question 341

What type of courses does FMC LNAV guidance normally provide?

Answer 341

Great circle courses between waypoints

Question 342

What does the FMC do when an arrival or approach is entered?

Answer 342

Commands a heading, track, fixed radius turn, or DME to comply with the procedure

Question 343

What message is displayed if the bank angle is limited during a turn?

Answer 343

LNAV BANK ANGLE LIM

Question 344

What can reduce the effect of reduced bank angles during turns?

Answer 344

Selecting a higher thrust limit on the THRUST LIM CDU page

Question 345

What message appears if the computed holding turn radius exceeds the protected airspace radius?

Answer 345

FMC HOLD AIRSPACE

Question 346

How are waypoints (navigation fix) identified on the CDU?

Answer 346

By their identifiers displayed on the CDU and navigation display

Question 347

What happens if a manually entered waypoint identifier is not in the database?

Answer 347

The CDU message NOT IN DATABASE displays

Question 348

How can a waypoint still be entered if it is not in the database?

Answer 348

As a latitude/longitude, place bearing/distance, or place-bearing/place-bearing waypoint

Question 349

What identifies VHF waypoints located at VHF navaids?

Answer 349

One, two, three, or four character facility identifier

Question 350

Provide an example of a VHF waypoint.

Answer 350

Los Angeles VORTAC - LAX

Question 351

What identifies NDB waypoints?

Answer 351

Use of the station identifier

Question 352

Provide an example of an NDB waypoint.

Answer 352

FORT NELSON, CAN - YE

Question 353

How are fix waypoints identified?

Answer 353

By names containing five or fewer characters

Question 354

Provide an example of a fix waypoint.

Answer 354

ACRA

Question 355

True or False: The FMC limits the bank angle to enable turns with loss of altitude.

Answer 355

False

Question 356

Fill in the blank: When operating at high gross weights, the airplane may be _______ limited.

Answer 356

maneuver margin

Question 357

Fill in the blank: The FMC evaluates enroute LNAV turns starting _______ prior to the turn.

Answer 357

5 minutes

Question 358

What is the definition of conditional waypoints?

Answer 358

Waypoints that indicate when an event occurs and are not at a geographically-fixed position ## Footnote Conditional waypoints may display in the route when selecting a DEPARTURES or ARRIVALS page procedure.

Question 359

What are the types of conditions for conditional waypoints?

Answer 359

* Climb/descent through an altitude * Flying a heading to a radial or DME distance * Intercepting a course * Heading vectors to a course or fix ## Footnote These conditions dictate the circumstances under which the conditional waypoints are activated.

Question 360

How are altitude and course intercept conditional waypoints displayed on the CDU?

Answer 360

Inside (parenthesis) marks, e.g., (1000) ## Footnote This format helps distinguish conditional waypoints from regular waypoints.

Question 361

True or False: Conditional waypoints can be manually entered on a route or legs page.

Answer 361

False ## Footnote Usually, conditional waypoints cannot be manually entered.

Question 362

Fill in the blank: Conditional waypoints usually display in the route when selecting a _______ or ARRIVALS page procedure.

Answer 362

[DEPARTURES] ## Footnote This highlights the specific context in which conditional waypoints are utilized.

Question 363

What does the example RTE 1 LEGS display indicate regarding waypoints and headings?

Answer 363

* 180° HDG to 1000' * 140° HDG to 180°R * VECTORS to CDE * 090°R to ABC180 * 020° HDG to INTC ## Footnote This example illustrates how waypoints and headings are presented in the context of flight management.

Question 364

How are manually entered latitude/longitude waypoints displayed?

Answer 364

In a seven character format ## Footnote Latitude and longitude waypoints are entered with no space or slash between the entries, and leading zeros must be included.

Question 365

What is the format for entering N47° W008° as a waypoint?

Answer 365

N47W008 ## Footnote This displays as N47W008.

Question 366

How should latitude and longitude be entered if they are not full degrees?

Answer 366

All digits and decimal points (to 1/10 minute) must be entered ## Footnote For example, N47° 15.4' W008° 3.4' is entered as N4715.4W00803,4.

Question 367

What information does the POS REPORT page display?

Answer 367

Last (POS), current (EST), and next (NEXT) waypoint identifiers in degrees and minutes of latitude/longitude ## Footnote For example, 4715N00803 W.

Question 368

How are waypoints entered as place bearing/distance identified?

Answer 368

By the first three characters of the entry followed by a two digit sequence number ## Footnote Example: SEA330/10 becomes SEA01.

Question 369

What range of sequence numbers is reserved for RTE1?

Answer 369

01 through 49 ## Footnote Sequence numbers for RTE2 are 51 through 99.

Question 370

How are airway crossing waypoints entered?

Answer 370

As a five character waypoint name or by entering consecutive airways on the ROUTE page ## Footnote Entering J70 on the VIA line prompts for the next airway.

Question 371

What does entering consecutive airways on the ROUTE page display?

Answer 371

An X followed by the second airway name ## Footnote For example, entering J70 followed by J52 calculates the intersection and replaces the boxes with the waypoint identifier, XJ52.

Question 372

How are latitude or longitude reporting point waypoints entered?

Answer 372

As the full latitude or longitude followed by a dash and the increment chosen for the following waypoints ## Footnote Example: W060-10 adds waypoints starting at W060 in ten degree increments.

Question 373

Where must the entry for latitude or longitude reporting points be made?

Answer 373

On a LEGS page on any line before the first reporting point ## Footnote Usually made on the active waypoint line.

Question 374

Fill in the blank: Manually entered waypoints must have leading _______.

Answer 374

zeros

Question 375

What are along-track waypoints?

Answer 375

Waypoints created on the active route that do not cause route discontinuities. ## Footnote Along-track waypoints are entered using the waypoint name followed by a slash and sign indicating position relative to the waypoint.

Question 376

How are along-track waypoints entered?

Answer 376

Using the waypoint name, a slash and minus sign for points before, or no sign for points after, followed by the mileage offset. ## Footnote For example, VAMPS/25 means 25 miles after VAMPS.

Question 377

What is the maximum distance for a mileage offset in along-track waypoints?

Answer 377

The distance offset must be less than the distance between the originating waypoint and the next or preceding waypoint. ## Footnote Positive values are for points after the waypoint and negative values for points before.

Question 378

What cannot be used to create along-track waypoints?

Answer 378

Latitude and longitude waypoints. ## Footnote Only waypoint names with mileage offsets can define along-track waypoints.

Question 379

What does an inactive route display as on the ND?

Answer 379

A dashed cyan line. ## Footnote This visual representation helps pilots quickly assess the status of the route.

Question 380

What does a pending active route display as on the ND?

Answer 380

A dashed white line.

Question 381

What does an activated but not yet executed route display as on the ND?

Answer 381

An alternating cyan/white dashed line.

Question 382

What color represents the active route on the ND?

Answer 382

Magenta.

Question 383

What do modifications to an active route display as on the ND?

Answer 383

Dashed white lines.

Question 384

What does a missed approach route display as on the ND?

Answer 384

A solid cyan line.

Question 385

What is a potential consequence of inadequate GPS or radio updating?

Answer 385

The ND map may display a shift error, compromising terrain or traffic separation.

Question 386

How can map shift errors be detected?

Answer 386

By comparing the position of the airplane on the ND map with data from ILS, VOR, and DME systems.

Question 387

True or False: Modified waypoints display in magenta on the ND.

Answer 387

False.

Question 388

Fill in the blank: The ND displays the FMC position at the _______ of the airplane symbol.

Answer 388

apex.

Question 389

What does VNAV provide during flight?

Answer 389

Vertical profile guidance through the climb, cruise, and descent phases of flight.

Question 390

How are multiple VNAV CDU pages accessed?

Answer 390

Using the NEXT PAGE or PREV PAGE keys.

Question 391

What must be used to verify each crossing altitude in a VNAV procedure?

Answer 391

The altimeter.

Question 392

What does VNAV control regarding waypoint crossing constraints?

Answer 392

The path and speed to comply with waypoint crossing constraints.

Question 393

How are waypoint crossing constraints entered on the LEGS page?

Answer 393

By selecting the applicable key on the right side of the CDU.

Question 394

What must barometric altitude constraints be in relation to the cruise altitude?

Answer 394

Below the cruise altitude to be valid.

Question 395

How are values entered as part of a procedure displayed?

Answer 395

In large font.

Question 396

How do FMC predicted values display compared to constraints?

Answer 396

In small font and do not act as constraints.

Question 397

What color is a waypoint constraint when it is active?

Answer 397

Magenta.

Question 398

What does it mean if a modified waypoint constraint is shaded white?

Answer 398

It has not yet been executed.

Question 399

How are at or above altitude constraints denoted?

Answer 399

With a suffix letter A (example: 220A).

Question 400

How are at or below altitude constraints denoted?

Answer 400

With a suffix letter B (example: 240B).

Question 401

How can altitude constraints with two altitudes be entered?

Answer 401

In either order: lower altitude with A and upper altitude with B (example: 220A240B or 240B220A).

Question 402

What do speed only constraints allow the flight crew to comply with?

Answer 402

An ATC speed only clearance using VNAV.

Question 403

In which flight phases can speed only constraints be entered?

Answer 403

All phases of flight.

Question 404

What do speed constraints in the climb phase cause VNAV to command?

Answer 404

A speed at or below the constraint speed for all waypoints prior to, and including, the constraint waypoint.

Question 405

What do speed constraints in the cruise or descent phase cause VNAV to command?

Answer 405

A speed at or below the constraint speed at the constraint waypoint, and for all following waypoints in the descent phase.

Question 406

What activates VNAV during takeoff?

Answer 406

VNAV activates at 400 feet above runway elevation ## Footnote VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.

Question 407

What is the target airspeed range during takeoff when VNAV is armed?

Answer 407

Between V2 + 15 and V2 + 25 knots

Question 408

What does VNAV command at acceleration height?

Answer 408

An airspeed increase to 5 knots below the flap placard speed for the existing flap setting

Question 409

What happens when flaps are retracted or at an AFDS capture altitude?

Answer 409

VNAV commands the greater of flaps up manoeuvre speed or the speed transition associated with the origin airport, limited by configuration

Question 410

When does the FMC change the thrust reference mode during takeoff?

Answer 410

At the thrust reduction point

Question 411

What does the VNAV climb profile use?

Answer 411

VNAV SPD or VNAV PTH at the default climb speed or pilot selected climb speed

Question 412

What happens if the climb speed profile cannot achieve an altitude constraint?

Answer 412

The UNABLE NEXT ALT CDU help window message displays

Question 413

What are the types of speed restrictions VNAV can maintain during climb?

Answer 413

* Procedure based speed restriction * Waypoint speed restriction * Default VNAV climb speed * Manually entered climb speed

Question 414

What message displays if the FMC predicts the airplane will not reach an altitude constraint?

Answer 414

UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE

Question 415

What is the purpose of speed intervention during climb?

Answer 415

To provide a steeper climb by manually setting a lower airspeed

Question 416

What is the Top Of Climb (T/C)?

Answer 416

The point where the climb phase meets the cruise altitude

Question 417

What does the FMC do as the airplane approaches the Top Of Climb?

Answer 417

Changes from the climb phase to the cruise phase

Question 418

How is the T/C point displayed on the map?

Answer 418

As a green open circle with the label T/C

Question 419

What activates VNAV during takeoff?

Answer 419

VNAV activates at 400 feet above runway elevation ## Footnote VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.

Question 420

What is the target airspeed range during takeoff when VNAV is armed?

Answer 420

Between V2 + 15 and V2 + 25 knots

Question 421

What does VNAV command at acceleration height?

Answer 421

An airspeed increase to 5 knots below the flap placard speed for the existing flap setting

Question 422

What happens when flaps are retracted or at an AFDS capture altitude?

Answer 422

VNAV commands the greater of flaps up manoeuvre speed or the speed transition associated with the origin airport, limited by configuration

Question 423

When does the FMC change the thrust reference mode during takeoff?

Answer 423

At the thrust reduction point

Question 424

What does the VNAV climb profile use?

Answer 424

VNAV SPD or VNAV PTH at the default climb speed or pilot selected climb speed

Question 425

What happens if the climb speed profile cannot achieve an altitude constraint?

Answer 425

The UNABLE NEXT ALT CDU help window message displays

Question 426

What are the types of speed restrictions VNAV can maintain during climb?

Answer 426

* Procedure based speed restriction * Waypoint speed restriction * Default VNAV climb speed * Manually entered climb speed

Question 427

What message displays if the FMC predicts the airplane will not reach an altitude constraint?

Answer 427

UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE

Question 428

What is the purpose of speed intervention during climb?

Answer 428

To provide a steeper climb by manually setting a lower airspeed

Question 429

What is the Top Of Climb (T/C)?

Answer 429

The point where the climb phase meets the cruise altitude

Question 430

What does the FMC do as the airplane approaches the Top Of Climb?

Answer 430

Changes from the climb phase to the cruise phase

Question 431

How is the T/C point displayed on the map?

Answer 431

As a green open circle with the label T/C

Question 432

What is MCP Altitude Intervention?

Answer 432

A function that manages altitude when the airplane levels off at an MCP altitude not in the FMC. ## Footnote VNAV ALT annunciates when this occurs.

Question 433

What happens when the MCP altitude is set below the FMC cruise altitude?

Answer 433

Pitch maintains altitude and thrust maintains FMC target speed. ## Footnote For example, if the FMC cruise altitude is FL250 and the MCP is set to FL190.

Question 434

What speed does the airplane maintain after a temporary level off?

Answer 434

ECON CLB SPEED. ## Footnote This speed is maintained until the next altitude intervention.

Question 435

What occurs when the clearance altitude is set in the MCP window and the altitude selector is pushed?

Answer 435

The climb continues and VNAV SPD activates. ## Footnote Pitch maintains FMC speed and thrust increases to the armed reference thrust limit.

Question 436

What happens after the airplane climbs to FMC CRZ ALT?

Answer 436

It levels off at FL250 in cruise. ## Footnote This occurs after reaching the clearance altitude.

Question 437

During cruise, what does the FMC command?

Answer 437

Economy cruise speed or the pilot entered speed until the top of descent (T/D) point. ## Footnote This is the standard operating procedure.

Question 438

What are the other cruise speed options available?

Answer 438

* Engine out (ENG OUT) * Flight crew entered speed * Flight crew entered constant Mach between two or more waypoints * Long range (LRC) * Required time of arrival (RTA) ## Footnote These options provide flexibility in managing speed during cruise.

Question 439

Fill in the blank: VNAV ALT annunciates whenever the airplane levels off at an MCP altitude not in the _______.

Answer 439

FMC. ## Footnote This indicates a discrepancy between planned and actual flight levels.

Question 440

What happens when an altitude above the current cruise altitude is set in the MCP altitude window?

Answer 440

The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude and the airplane climbs to the new cruise altitude ## Footnote The CRZ page displays ACT ECON CRZ CLB.

Question 441

What do fuel and ETA calculations assume during a step climb?

Answer 441

The airplane climbs at each calculated step climb point as airplane weight decreases ## Footnote FMC calculated step climb increments are based on the step size shown on the CRZ page.

Question 442

What occurs when a step size of zero is entered in the FMC?

Answer 442

The FMC assumes a constant altitude cruise ## Footnote This affects the calculations for step climbs.

Question 443

What overrides the FMC step climb calculations?

Answer 443

Flight crew entry of a STEP TO altitude on the CRZ page or 'S' on a waypoint on the LEGS page ## Footnote Entry of a step altitude on the LEGS page also overrides a STEP TO entry made on the CRZ page.

Question 444

Where do calculated step altitudes display?

Answer 444

On the LEGS page ## Footnote The distance and ETA to the next step point also display on the CRZ and PROGRESS pages.

Question 445

What factors does the FMC use to calculate step climb locations and altitudes?

Answer 445

Lateral flight plan, current cruise speed mode and altitude, entered forecast winds and temperatures, step size, cruise cg, and gross weight ## Footnote The primary factor is the entry of accurate forecast cruise winds and temperatures.

Question 446

True or False: IRS winds are used in the calculation of step climb data.

Answer 446

False ## Footnote Unless enroute winds are entered, all step climb locations and altitudes are calculated assuming zero wind.

Question 447

For ECON cruise, what do step climbs optimize?

Answer 447

Minimum trip cost according to the entered Cost Index ## Footnote For other selected speeds, calculated step climbs minimize trip fuel.

Question 448

Where do calculated step locations display?

Answer 448

On the ND with 'S/C' and the next step displays on the ECON CRZ page ## Footnote Flight plan calculations of time and fuel at destination are based on executing step climbs as calculated.

Question 449

What does inflight entry of a STEP TO altitude in 1R cause the FMC to do?

Answer 449

Use the entered enroute winds and temperatures to calculate the optimum location for a climb to the step altitude ## Footnote The ETA and DTG for the step display in 2R.

Question 450

What does 2R display if an immediate step climb to the entered altitude is optimal?

Answer 450

NOW ## Footnote If remaining at the current altitude is more optimal, 2R displays NONE.

Question 451

What can cause a step climb point on the LSK IR on the CRZ page to be deleted?

Answer 451

Manual entry on the LSK IR or a planned step climb point entered on the LEGS page is sequenced and NOW is shown in 2R ## Footnote Planned step climb points may also be entered on the LEGS page at selected waypoints.

Question 452

What happens with planned step climb points entered?

Answer 452

Flight plan calculations assume a constant cruise altitude until reaching the planned step waypoint ## Footnote Optimized step climb calculations resume after passing the last planned step climb waypoint.

Question 453

What does VNAV stand for?

Answer 453

Vertical Navigation

Question 454

What happens when the last planned step is a step descent?

Answer 454

Step climbs are no longer calculated

Question 455

What does the OPT altitude calculation not use?

Answer 455

Forecast or IRS winds and temperatures

Question 456

What factors does the RECMD altitude calculation consider?

Answer 456

Step size, current CRZ ALT, entered forecast enroute winds and temperatures

Question 457

What limits all altitude calculations?

Answer 457

Maximum (MAX) altitude

Question 458

What displays if a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a step climb point?

Answer 458

EICAS advisory message VNAV STEP CLIMB

Question 459

What triggers a cruise descent when setting an altitude in the MCP altitude window?

Answer 459

Setting an altitude below the current cruise altitude and pushing the altitude selector

Question 460

What happens if the altitude set in the altitude window is below the speed transition altitude?

Answer 460

Those altitudes and speeds are deleted

Question 461

What must be maintained by flight crew action during a cruise descent?

Answer 461

Transition or speed restrictions

Question 462

What does VNAV begin when the distance from the top of descent is more than 50 NM?

Answer 462

A cruise descent to the new cruise altitude

Question 463

What is the effect of VNAV on the descent path during a cruise descent?

Answer 463

VNAV may not capture the descent path

Question 464

What is required to specify a waypoint as an RTA waypoint?

Answer 464

Any flight plan waypoint up to and including the missed approach waypoint

Question 465

What does VNAV control to arrive at the RTA waypoint?

Answer 465

Speed to arrive within ±6 minutes

Question 466

Fill in the blank: If a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a step climb point and the altitude difference is greater than ______ feet, an advisory message displays.

Answer 466

3,500

Question 467

True or False: The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude only if the altitude is above the current cruise altitude.

Answer 467

False

Question 468

What does the CRZ page display when a new cruise altitude is set?

Answer 468

ACT ECON CRZ DES

Question 469

What does RTA stand for in flight management?

Answer 469

Required Time of Arrival ## Footnote RTA is a function that helps manage arrival times at specified waypoints.

Question 470

What can be specified as an RTA waypoint?

Answer 470

Any flight plan waypoint up to and including the missed approach waypoint ## Footnote This includes waypoints that are critical for navigation and approach.

Question 471

What does VNAV control in relation to RTA waypoints?

Answer 471

Speed to arrive at the RTA waypoint within ±6 seconds of a specified time ## Footnote VNAV adjusts the aircraft's speed to ensure timely arrival.

Question 472

What are the limitations for RTA speed targets?

Answer 472

Airplane speed limitations, speed and altitude constraints, speed transitions, manually entered maximum and minimum speeds ## Footnote These factors ensure that speed adjustments remain within safe operational limits.

Question 473

What indicates that RTA speed mode is active?

Answer 473

The PROGRESS 1/4 page 4L field displays 'RTA SPD' as the line title ## Footnote This is a visual confirmation that the RTA function is engaged.

Question 474

What happens if the RTA is not achievable?

Answer 474

The EICAS advisory message FMC UNABLE RTA is displayed ## Footnote This alerts the flight crew of any issues with meeting the RTA.

Question 475

What is the minimum data required to enter an RTA?

Answer 475

RTA waypoint, time, and type ## Footnote Types include AT, AT OR BEFORE, and AT OR AFTER.

Question 476

What additional entry data can affect RTAs?

Answer 476

RTA threshold, minimum and maximum RTA speeds, and takeoff time ## Footnote These parameters help fine-tune the RTA settings.

Question 477

How do elevators control speed during an RTA climb?

Answer 477

At the reference thrust limit ## Footnote This ensures that the aircraft maintains the desired speed during ascent.

Question 478

What command speed is set when sequencing an RTA waypoint greater than 200 NM from the End of Descent?

Answer 478

ECON or the planned speed ## Footnote This allows the aircraft to optimize speed over longer distances.

Question 479

What command speed is set when sequencing an RTA waypoint less than 200 NM from the End of Descent?

Answer 479

SEL SPD ## Footnote This allows for more precise speed control as the aircraft approaches the waypoint.

Question 480

What is the function of speed intervention in VNAV?

Answer 480

Allows the flight crew to change airplane speed with the IAS/MACH selector ## Footnote This provides flexibility in managing speed during various flight phases.

Question 481

What remains unchanged when the MCP speed window is opened in a VNAV descent?

Answer 481

The pitch mode remains in VNAV PTH ## Footnote This maintains the desired flight path while allowing speed adjustments.

Question 482

What happens when using speed intervention during descent?

Answer 482

Closing the IAS/MACH window resets the FMC target speed to the IAS/MACH window speed if that speed is lower than the FMC target speed ## Footnote If the reset speed is lower than the original FMC target speed, the airplane cannot maintain the VNAV PTH descent without speedbrakes.

Question 483

What occurs when a new speed is entered at LSK 2L (ECON SPD) on the VNAV DES page?

Answer 483

The FMC enters a MOD state and recalculates a new vertical descent path optimized for the new speed ## Footnote This new vertical descent path is optimized for a VNAV PTH descent.

Question 484

What happens if the airplane speed deviates beyond the VNAV speed band?

Answer 484

The pitch mode changes to VNAV SPD, maintained by pitch, causing the airplane to depart the vertical path.

Question 485

During a VNAV approach while using speed intervention, what is the pitch mode?

Answer 485

VNAV PTH ## Footnote The vertical path is maintained regardless of IAS/MACH selector changes.

Question 486

What occurs when a 'direct to' is executed to a waypoint in the approach?

Answer 486

VNAV transitions to the approach phase when passing the 'direct to' waypoint.

Question 487

What is the E/D point in the descent path calculated by the FMC?

Answer 487

The E/D is located 50 feet above the runway threshold for all approaches except VOR approaches ## Footnote For VOR approaches, the E/D is the missed approach point.

Question 488

What is the top of descent (T/D)?

Answer 488

The point where the cruise phase changes to the descent phase, displayed on the ND as a green circle with the label T/D.

Question 489

What factors are considered in the descent path calculation to the first constraint?

Answer 489

* Idle thrust * Speedbrakes retracted * FMC cruise wind * Applicable target speed * Wind entries on the DESCENT FORECAST page * Predicted use of anti-ice

Question 490

What is the maximum speed VNAV commands during descent?

Answer 490

VNAV does not command an economy target speed greater than VMO/MMO minus 16 knots or a pilot-entered speed greater than VMO/MMO minus 11 knots.

Question 491

How is the descent path constructed after the first altitude constraint waypoint?

Answer 491

As straight line point-to-point segments.

Question 492

What does the FMC command if the VNAV path segment is too shallow to be flown satisfactorily at IDLE thrust?

Answer 492

The FMC commands speed on thrust levers (SPD).

Question 493

What does the speed tape display during descent in VNAV?

Answer 493

A VNAV PTH speed band ## Footnote VNAV PTH refers to the Vertical Navigation Path mode.

Question 494

What happens if the airplane is more than 15 knots below the target speed and autothrottles are not active?

Answer 494

The CDU help window message THRUST REQUIRED displays ## Footnote The airspeed may decrease to minimum manoeuvring speed.

Question 495

What occurs when VNAV can no longer maintain the airplane within 150 feet of the path without further deceleration?

Answer 495

Speed reversion occurs, changing pitch mode from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD ## Footnote VNAV resets the target speed to 5 knots above the greater of best holding speed or minimum manoeuvring speed.

Question 496

What is the maximum allowed speed variation when the airplane is above VMO/MMO minus 16 knots?

Answer 496

The airplane may accelerate up to VMO/MMO minus 11 knots ## Footnote The CDU help window message DRAG REQUIRED displays.

Question 497

What happens if VNAV can no longer maintain the airplane within 150 feet of the path without further acceleration?

Answer 497

Speed reversion occurs, changing pitch mode from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD ## Footnote VNAV resets the target speed to VMO/MMO minus 16 knots.

Question 498

What message displays if the airplane is more than 15 knots below the target speed and autothrottles are active?

Answer 498

This condition should not occur ## Footnote Thrust levers are in SPD and target speed is maintained during the descent.

Question 499

What is the target speed reset to when below the first speed constraint and more than 15 knots below the target speed?

Answer 499

10 knots less than the transition speed for the destination airport ## Footnote This is not less than minimum manoeuvring speed.

Question 500

Fill in the blank: The maximum speed excursion allowed is _____ above the transition speed after the airplane is below transition altitude.

Answer 500

5 knots ## Footnote This applies if the airplane is below transition altitude for the destination airport.

Question 501

What command initiates an early descent?

Answer 501

Select the DES NOW prompt on the DES page or push the MCP altitude selector ## Footnote VNAV commands a reduced descent rate until the descent path is intercepted.

Question 502

What is the initial autothrottle mode annunciation during an early descent?

Answer 502

THR ## Footnote This is followed by HOLD, allowing the pilot to adjust the rate of descent.

Question 503

What is the pitch mode during an early descent?

Answer 503

VNAV SPD ## Footnote This indicates the airplane is following the speed set by VNAV.

Question 504

What is the purpose of the DES NOW prompt on the VNAV DES page?

Answer 504

It starts an early descent and captures the descent path. ## Footnote This feature is used when the aircraft is more than 50 NM from the Top of Descent Point.

Question 505

What should be done when the distance from the Top of Descent Point is more than 50 NM?

Answer 505

Use the MCP altitude selector to start a cruise descent. ## Footnote VNAV may not capture the descent path due to the target airspeed being economy cruise.

Question 506

What happens within 50 NM of the Top of Descent Point?

Answer 506

VNAV starts an early descent and captures the descent path. ## Footnote This is initiated by using the MCP altitude selector.

Question 507

What is the function of TO/GA selection after the flaps are extended?

Answer 507

Starts a missed approach, sets go-around thrust, and deletes altitude constraints through the end of descent. ## Footnote These actions are crucial for managing the aircraft's performance during approach.

Question 508

What does VNAV PTH refer to?

Answer 508

Vertical Navigation Path. ## Footnote VNAV PTH is used during descent and approach phases to maintain the desired vertical profile.

Question 509

What is indicated by the term 'Level Deceleration' in the context of VNAV?

Answer 509

A specific phase in the descent profile where the aircraft reduces speed. ## Footnote This phase is crucial for aligning with approach procedures.

Question 510

Fill in the blank: VNAV may not capture the descent path since the target airspeed is _______.

Answer 510

economy cruise.

Question 511

True or False: VNAV can initiate a descent at any point during the flight.

Answer 511

False. ## Footnote VNAV has specific conditions based on distance from the Top of Descent Point.

Question 512

What is the purpose of the DES NOW prompt on the VNAV DES page?

Answer 512

It starts an early descent and captures the descent path. ## Footnote This feature is used when the aircraft is more than 50 NM from the Top of Descent Point.

Question 513

What should be done when the distance from the Top of Descent Point is more than 50 NM?

Answer 513

Use the MCP altitude selector to start a cruise descent. ## Footnote VNAV may not capture the descent path due to the target airspeed being economy cruise.

Question 514

What happens within 50 NM of the Top of Descent Point?

Answer 514

VNAV starts an early descent and captures the descent path. ## Footnote This is initiated by using the MCP altitude selector.

Question 515

What is the function of TO/GA selection after the flaps are extended?

Answer 515

Starts a missed approach, sets go-around thrust, and deletes altitude constraints through the end of descent. ## Footnote These actions are crucial for managing the aircraft's performance during approach.

Question 516

What does VNAV PTH refer to?

Answer 516

Vertical Navigation Path. ## Footnote VNAV PTH is used during descent and approach phases to maintain the desired vertical profile.

Question 517

What is indicated by the term 'Level Deceleration' in the context of VNAV?

Answer 517

A specific phase in the descent profile where the aircraft reduces speed. ## Footnote This phase is crucial for aligning with approach procedures.

Question 518

Fill in the blank: VNAV may not capture the descent path since the target airspeed is _______.

Answer 518

economy cruise.

Question 519

True or False: VNAV can initiate a descent at any point during the flight.

Answer 519

False. ## Footnote VNAV has specific conditions based on distance from the Top of Descent Point.

Question 520

What mode does the FMC command during cruise before the top of descent?

Answer 520

VNAV PTH and ECON cruise speed ## Footnote VNAV PTH refers to the vertical navigation path mode used by the Flight Management Computer (FMC).

Question 521

What happens at the top of descent in the FMC's operation?

Answer 521

The FMC transitions to descent and commands airspeed to ECON descent speed ## Footnote The transition indicates a shift from cruise to descent, maintaining altitude until the specified descent phase.

Question 522

What does the T/D green circle indicate?

Answer 522

The point where deceleration to ECON DES speed begins ## Footnote T/D stands for Top of Descent, marking the start of the descent phase.

Question 523

What is the descent rate approximated by the FMC before the speed restriction altitude?

Answer 523

500 feet per minute ## Footnote This rate is maintained while descending to meet speed restrictions.

Question 524

What thrust reference mode is normally used during descent?

Answer 524

CRZ ## Footnote CRZ refers to cruise thrust mode, indicating normal thrust management during descent.

Question 525

What happens to the thrust reference mode when flaps are extended from UP to 1?

Answer 525

It changes to G/A in anticipation of the approach ## Footnote G/A stands for Go-Around thrust mode, which is used for approach preparations.

Question 526

What occurs if VNAV is selected as the pitch mode after flaps are extended?

Answer 526

The thrust reference mode automatically changes to CRZ ## Footnote This change happens until certain conditions are met, such as further flap extensions or TO/GA selection.

Question 527

What mode does VNAV activate during a missed approach?

Answer 527

VNAV SPD ## Footnote VNAV SPD refers to vertical navigation speed mode, utilized specifically during missed approaches.

Question 528

What happens at missed approach altitude in terms of VNAV mode?

Answer 528

VNAV SPD changes to VNAV PTH ## Footnote This transition signifies a return to the vertical navigation path mode after reaching the missed approach altitude.

Question 529

What mode does the FMC transition to when the descent phase is active and flaps are out of up?

Answer 529

On approach mode ## Footnote The FMC can also enter this mode if the airplane has sequenced the first waypoint of the active approach or is on a direct-to intercept course to the active waypoint with less than 12 NM remaining.

Question 530

Under what conditions does the FMC transition out of 'on approach' mode?

Answer 530

* The pilot selects TO/GA * The airplane lands * The airplane flies beyond the last waypoint in the approach ## Footnote The VNAV page title changes from 'ACT xxxxx DES' to 'ACT END OF DES' when transitioning out.

Question 531

What altitude setting allows VNAV to continue commanding a descent when the FMC is 'on approach'?

Answer 531

At least 300 feet above the current airplane altitude ## Footnote The MCP altitude can be set above the airplane altitude for the missed approach.

Question 532

What happens to VNAV PTH when the airplane accelerates to within 5 knots of the current flap placard and rises more than 150 feet above the path?

Answer 532

VNAV PTH changes to VNAV SPD ## Footnote VNAV remains in VNAV PTH and follows the descent path under normal conditions.

Question 533

When is a glidepath angle displayed on the RTE LEGS page?

Answer 533

When specified for one or more legs on the approach ## Footnote VNAV provides VNAV PTH guidance at the displayed angle.

Question 534

What does VNAV command when sequencing a waypoint prior to a descent leg specified by a glidepath angle?

Answer 534

Level flight until the airplane intercepts the descent path ## Footnote This ensures the airplane follows the intended glidepath.

Question 535

How can another approach be selected in the FMC?

Answer 535

On the ARRIVALS page ## Footnote An along-course intercept to the next logical approach waypoint can be selected on the LEGS page.

Question 536

What happens during approach maneuvering with the IAS/MACH window closed?

Answer 536

VNAV sets command speed to flap maneuvering speed as the airplane passes the flap profile point indicated on the ND ## Footnote This command speed change occurs even if flap selection is not made.

Question 537

Fill in the blank: The FMC transitions to 'on approach' mode when the missed approach point is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than _______.

Answer 537

25 NM

Question 538

What mode does the FMC transition to when the descent phase is active and flaps are out of up?

Answer 538

On approach mode ## Footnote The FMC can also enter this mode if the airplane has sequenced the first waypoint of the active approach or is on a direct-to intercept course to the active waypoint with less than 12 NM remaining.

Question 539

Under what conditions does the FMC transition out of 'on approach' mode?

Answer 539

* The pilot selects TO/GA * The airplane lands * The airplane flies beyond the last waypoint in the approach ## Footnote The VNAV page title changes from 'ACT xxxxx DES' to 'ACT END OF DES' when transitioning out.

Question 540

What altitude setting allows VNAV to continue commanding a descent when the FMC is 'on approach'?

Answer 540

At least 300 feet above the current airplane altitude ## Footnote The MCP altitude can be set above the airplane altitude for the missed approach.

Question 541

What happens to VNAV PTH when the airplane accelerates to within 5 knots of the current flap placard and rises more than 150 feet above the path?

Answer 541

VNAV PTH changes to VNAV SPD ## Footnote VNAV remains in VNAV PTH and follows the descent path under normal conditions.

Question 542

When is a glidepath angle displayed on the RTE LEGS page?

Answer 542

When specified for one or more legs on the approach ## Footnote VNAV provides VNAV PTH guidance at the displayed angle.

Question 543

What does VNAV command when sequencing a waypoint prior to a descent leg specified by a glidepath angle?

Answer 543

Level flight until the airplane intercepts the descent path ## Footnote This ensures the airplane follows the intended glidepath.

Question 544

How can another approach be selected in the FMC?

Answer 544

On the ARRIVALS page ## Footnote An along-course intercept to the next logical approach waypoint can be selected on the LEGS page.

Question 545

What happens during approach maneuvering with the IAS/MACH window closed?

Answer 545

VNAV sets command speed to flap maneuvering speed as the airplane passes the flap profile point indicated on the ND ## Footnote This command speed change occurs even if flap selection is not made.

Question 546

Fill in the blank: The FMC transitions to 'on approach' mode when the missed approach point is the active waypoint and the distance to go is less than _______.

Answer 546

25 NM

Question 547

What occurs during approach manoeuvring with the IAS/MACH window closed?

Answer 547

VNAV sets command speed to flap manoeuvring speed as the airplane passes the flap profile point indicated on the ND ## Footnote The command speed change occurs even if flap selection is not made.

Question 548

What should be done if flaps are not extended before passing the flap profile point?

Answer 548

Open the IAS/MACH window and set the desired speed to avoid an underspeed condition ## Footnote This action is necessary to maintain safe flight parameters.

Question 549

What does Integrated Approach Navigation (IAN) allow?

Answer 549

The use of consistent procedures for all types of instrument approaches ## Footnote Any approach with a glidepath angle published in the navigation database can be flown using IAN.

Question 550

Which types of approaches does IAN support?

Answer 550

* B/CRS * GPS * IGS (G/S selected OFF) * ILS (G/S selected OFF) * LDA * LOC (G/S selected OFF) * NDB * RNAV * SDF (G/S selected OFF) * VER * VOR ## Footnote These approaches utilize similar procedures, indications, and alerts as ILS approaches.

Question 551

What does the FMC provide when an approach is entered into the active route?

Answer 551

* A source for deviation scales * Distance to the missed approach waypoint * Final approach course (FAC) deviations from the defined LNAV path * Glidepath (G/P) deviations from the defined VNAV path ## Footnote These features enhance situational awareness during the approach phase.

Question 552

What is used to scale the displayed FAC and G/P deviations?

Answer 552

RNP and vertical RNP ## Footnote RNP values can be accessed from POS REF 2/4 and RNP PROGRESS 4/4.

Question 553

Fill in the blank: QFE operation is ______.

Answer 553

not authorized

Question 554

When is the FPA accessible for a VER approach using IAN procedures?

Answer 554

Once a VER approach is selected from the ARRIVALS page ## Footnote This allows pilots to manage the approach effectively.

Question 555

What is a missed approach?

Answer 555

A missed approach is accomplished by selection of either TO/GA switch.

Question 556

When can VNAV be activated during a missed approach?

Answer 556

VNAV can only be activated when the airplane climbs above 400 feet radio altitude.

Question 557

When does LNAV automatically activate if an LNAV path is available?

Answer 557

LNAV automatically activates: * Above 50 feet radio altitude when autopilot is not engaged * Above 200 feet radio altitude when autopilot is engaged.

Question 558

What happens if no LNAV path is available during a missed approach?

Answer 558

LNAV shows on the FMA, the roll bar blanks, and the flight director guidance cue on the HUD blanks.

Question 559

What occurs to descent altitude constraints during a missed approach?

Answer 559

All descent altitude constraints below the current airplane altitude are deleted; the waypoints are retained in the active flight plan.

Question 560

What determines the new cruise altitude during a missed approach?

Answer 560

The new cruise altitude becomes the greater of the MCP altitude or the highest altitude in the missed approach procedure.

Question 561

What happens to the FMC during a missed approach?

Answer 561

The FMC transitions from active descent to active climb.

Question 562

What is AFDS guidance during a missed approach?

Answer 562

AFDS guidance to fly the published missed approach procedure to the new cruise altitude is active when NAV (and LNAV) are selected.

Question 563

What is the speed target during cruise phase after a missed approach?

Answer 563

The speed target is the most restrictive of speed transition, best hold speed, or ECON cruise (above speed transition altitude).

Question 564

Fill in the blank: VNAV can only be activated when the airplane climbs above _______.

Answer 564

400 feet radio altitude.

Question 565

True or False: LNAV will engage automatically upon TO/GA press if the airplane is active on a Direct-To leg.

Answer 565

False.

Question 566

What does VNAV stand for in flight management systems?

Answer 566

Vertical Navigation ## Footnote VNAV is a feature that automates the vertical profile of the flight.

Question 567

What is the significance of the CFL250 in flight management?

Answer 567

It indicates a climb flight level of 25,000 feet ## Footnote CFL250 is a target altitude for the aircraft during climb.

Question 568

What does the term ENG OUT indicate?

Answer 568

Engine failure ## Footnote ENG OUT is a status that appears when an engine failure is detected.

Question 569

At what altitude does the airplane capture the EO acceleration height?

Answer 569

400 FT ## Footnote EO acceleration height is the altitude at which the aircraft begins to accelerate after an engine-out scenario.

Question 570

What happens automatically when the airplane reaches flaps up maneuver speed?

Answer 570

Change from takeoff thrust limit to continuous (CON) thrust limit ## Footnote This transition is critical for maintaining performance during the climb.

Question 571

What speed range does the FMC maintain during takeoff thrust?

Answer 571

V2 to V2 + 15 ## Footnote V2 is the takeoff safety speed, and the range allows for safe initial climb.

Question 572

Fill in the blank: The VNAV page title may be _______ when target speed is limited by flap placard speed.

Answer 572

LIM SPD CLB ## Footnote This indicates a limited speed climb due to flap position.

Question 573

True or False: The SEL SPD option is used to confirm an engine failure.

Answer 573

False ## Footnote The ENG OUT option is used to confirm an engine failure.

Question 574

What is the purpose of the EO SID?

Answer 574

To automatically load the engine-out standard instrument departure procedures ## Footnote EO SID helps pilots follow the correct departure profile after an engine failure.

Question 575

What does the term 'automatic change' refer to in the context of thrust limits?

Answer 575

The transition from takeoff thrust limit to continuous thrust limit ## Footnote This change ensures efficient climb performance after reaching a certain speed.

Question 576

What does VNAV stand for in flight management systems?

Answer 576

Vertical Navigation ## Footnote VNAV is a feature that automates the vertical profile of the flight.

Question 577

What is the significance of the CFL250 in flight management?

Answer 577

It indicates a climb flight level of 25,000 feet ## Footnote CFL250 is a target altitude for the aircraft during climb.

Question 578

What does the term ENG OUT indicate?

Answer 578

Engine failure ## Footnote ENG OUT is a status that appears when an engine failure is detected.

Question 579

At what altitude does the airplane capture the EO acceleration height?

Answer 579

400 FT ## Footnote EO acceleration height is the altitude at which the aircraft begins to accelerate after an engine-out scenario.

Question 580

What happens automatically when the airplane reaches flaps up maneuver speed?

Answer 580

Change from takeoff thrust limit to continuous (CON) thrust limit ## Footnote This transition is critical for maintaining performance during the climb.

Question 581

What speed range does the FMC maintain during takeoff thrust?

Answer 581

V2 to V2 + 15 ## Footnote V2 is the takeoff safety speed, and the range allows for safe initial climb.

Question 582

Fill in the blank: The VNAV page title may be _______ when target speed is limited by flap placard speed.

Answer 582

LIM SPD CLB ## Footnote This indicates a limited speed climb due to flap position.

Question 583

True or False: The SEL SPD option is used to confirm an engine failure.

Answer 583

False ## Footnote The ENG OUT option is used to confirm an engine failure.

Question 584

What is the purpose of the EO SID?

Answer 584

To automatically load the engine-out standard instrument departure procedures ## Footnote EO SID helps pilots follow the correct departure profile after an engine failure.

Question 585

What does the term 'automatic change' refer to in the context of thrust limits?

Answer 585

The transition from takeoff thrust limit to continuous thrust limit ## Footnote This change ensures efficient climb performance after reaching a certain speed.

Question 586

What is the VNAV SPD command during takeoff before an engine failure?

Answer 586

A climb at V2+15 to V2+25 knots ## Footnote This occurs when the airplane is above the VNAV activation altitude.

Question 587

What happens when an engine failure is sensed after VNAV activation?

Answer 587

VNAV commands a speed of V2 to V2 + 15 ## Footnote Autothrottle remains in THR REF and thrust limit remains takeoff (TO).

Question 588

What condition triggers the loading of an EO SID in the FMC?

Answer 588

Flaps out of up and an engine out standard instrument departure (EO SID) is in the FMC database ## Footnote The modification may be either executed or erased.

Question 589

What does VNAV command at acceleration height?

Answer 589

An acceleration to flaps up manoeuvre speed ## Footnote This is limited by the airplane configuration (flap placard).

Question 590

What happens when the airplane has accelerated to the commanded flaps up manoeuvre speed?

Answer 590

Thrust is automatically reduced from TO to continuous (CON) thrust ## Footnote If engine failure occurs above the thrust reduction point, current climb thrust is maintained.

Question 591

How is engine out performance data activated during VNAV climb?

Answer 591

Select the ENG OUT prompt on the VNAV CLB page ## Footnote This terminates the VNAV engine out takeoff phase.

Question 592

What is the pitch mode during VNAV climb with engine out performance data active?

Answer 592

VNAV SPD ## Footnote The command speed is EO SPD, and the reference thrust limit is CON.

Question 593

What occurs when the airplane is above the engine out maximum altitude?

Answer 593

Selection of ENG OUT> on the VNAV CLB page creates a modification ## Footnote It displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/M) performance data, enabling descent to engine out maximum altitude.

Question 594

What is the function of the VNAV CLB page when the airplane is above the engine out maximum altitude?

Answer 594

It creates a modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data enabling a descent to the engine out maximum altitude ## Footnote This function is crucial for maintaining safe operations when an engine failure occurs.

Question 595

What happens when the ENG OUT> is selected on the VNAV CRZ page?

Answer 595

It creates a modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data ## Footnote This allows the aircraft to adjust its thrust and speed settings in response to engine failure.

Question 596

What is the default command speed indicated after executing the ENG OUT modification?

Answer 596

EO SPD ## Footnote This speed setting is critical for optimizing the aircraft's performance during an engine out scenario.

Question 597

What is displayed as the cruise altitude in the flight management system when above the engine out maximum altitude?

Answer 597

EO MAX altitude ## Footnote This altitude remains constant and does not change with time or command speed adjustments.

Question 598

What does the selection of ENG OUT> on the VNAV CLB page activate?

Answer 598

The engine out driftdown function ## Footnote This function is vital for managing descent safely after an engine failure.

Question 599

Fill in the blank: The maximum engine out altitude is indicated as _______.

Answer 599

FL 233 ## Footnote This altitude is crucial for ensuring the aircraft operates within safe performance parameters.

Question 600

True or False: The EO MAX altitude shown in the flight management system changes over time.

Answer 600

False ## Footnote The EO MAX altitude remains constant regardless of changes in command speed.

Question 601

What is the reference thrust limit when executing the ENG OUT modification?

Answer 601

CON ## Footnote This setting ensures that the aircraft can maintain necessary performance during an engine out condition.

Question 602

What action does the FMC command during an engine failure?

Answer 602

Driftdown (D/D) descent ## Footnote This descent strategy is essential for safely managing altitude loss after an engine failure.

Question 603

When executing the ENG OUT modification, what happens to the thrust levers?

Answer 603

They advance to CON ## Footnote This adjustment is necessary for optimizing engine performance during an emergency situation.

Question 604

What does 'ACT EO CRZ DES' indicate?

Answer 604

Active engine out cruise descent ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is in a controlled descent following an engine failure.

Question 605

What does selecting ENG OUT create?

Answer 605

A modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data ## Footnote This process is vital for managing aircraft performance in case of engine failure.

Question 606

What initiates a driftdown descent?

Answer 606

Setting the MCP altitude at or below EO MAX altitude and executing the modification ## Footnote This is a critical procedure for ensuring safe altitude management during engine failure.

Question 607

What commands does VNAV issue when EO SPD is achieved?

Answer 607

VNAV controls the driftdown descent rate to a minimum of 300 feet per minute (fpm) ## Footnote This ensures a controlled descent rate during an emergency situation.

Question 608

What information is displayed at 2R during a driftdown?

Answer 608

Time and distance for the D/D to EO MAX altitude ## Footnote This information aids pilots in managing descent effectively.

Question 609

What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification without descending?

Answer 609

The pitch mode changes to VNAV ALT ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is maintaining altitude rather than descending.

Question 610

How is a normal enroute cruise descent initiated?

Answer 610

Setting the MCP altitude to a lower altitude and pushing the altitude selector ## Footnote This is part of standard operating procedures for cruise descents.

Question 611

What is the descent rate during a normal VNAV cruise descent?

Answer 611

Approximately 1,250 fpm ## Footnote This rate ensures efficient fuel use and passenger comfort.

Question 612

What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification while above EO MAX altitude?

Answer 612

Commands a driftdown descent to the EO MAX altitude at E/O SPD ## Footnote This is crucial for transitioning to a safe altitude during engine failure.

Question 613

What title does the VNAV cruise page display when VNAV captures the EO MAX altitude?

Answer 613

EO CRZ ## Footnote Indicates that the aircraft is in a specific engine-out cruise mode.

Question 614

What occurs when the FMC is in engine out mode and more than 50 nm from T/D?

Answer 614

Setting a lower MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector executes an engine-out cruise descent ## Footnote This is an important aspect of managing flight operations during emergencies.

Question 615

Fill in the blank: The rate of descent during driftdown decreases to a minimum of _______.

Answer 615

300 fpm ## Footnote This rate is established to ensure safety during descent.

Question 616

True or False: The reference thrust limit during a normal enroute cruise descent is CLB/CRZ.

Answer 616

True ## Footnote This thrust limit is critical for maintaining performance during descent.

Question 617

What is the role of VNAV during a driftdown descent?

Answer 617

VNAV captures the MCP altitude and commands EO CRZ ## Footnote This allows the aircraft to maintain optimal performance in a single-engine scenario.

Question 618

What does selecting ENG OUT create?

Answer 618

A modification and displays applicable engine out driftdown (D/D) performance data ## Footnote This process is vital for managing aircraft performance in case of engine failure.

Question 619

What initiates a driftdown descent?

Answer 619

Setting the MCP altitude at or below EO MAX altitude and executing the modification ## Footnote This is a critical procedure for ensuring safe altitude management during engine failure.

Question 620

What commands does VNAV issue when EO SPD is achieved?

Answer 620

VNAV controls the driftdown descent rate to a minimum of 300 feet per minute (fpm) ## Footnote This ensures a controlled descent rate during an emergency situation.

Question 621

What information is displayed at 2R during a driftdown?

Answer 621

Time and distance for the D/D to EO MAX altitude ## Footnote This information aids pilots in managing descent effectively.

Question 622

What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification without descending?

Answer 622

The pitch mode changes to VNAV ALT ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is maintaining altitude rather than descending.

Question 623

How is a normal enroute cruise descent initiated?

Answer 623

Setting the MCP altitude to a lower altitude and pushing the altitude selector ## Footnote This is part of standard operating procedures for cruise descents.

Question 624

What is the descent rate during a normal VNAV cruise descent?

Answer 624

Approximately 1,250 fpm ## Footnote This rate ensures efficient fuel use and passenger comfort.

Question 625

What happens when executing the ENG OUT modification while above EO MAX altitude?

Answer 625

Commands a driftdown descent to the EO MAX altitude at E/O SPD ## Footnote This is crucial for transitioning to a safe altitude during engine failure.

Question 626

What title does the VNAV cruise page display when VNAV captures the EO MAX altitude?

Answer 626

EO CRZ ## Footnote Indicates that the aircraft is in a specific engine-out cruise mode.

Question 627

What occurs when the FMC is in engine out mode and more than 50 nm from T/D?

Answer 627

Setting a lower MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector executes an engine-out cruise descent ## Footnote This is an important aspect of managing flight operations during emergencies.

Question 628

Fill in the blank: The rate of descent during driftdown decreases to a minimum of _______.

Answer 628

300 fpm ## Footnote This rate is established to ensure safety during descent.

Question 629

True or False: The reference thrust limit during a normal enroute cruise descent is CLB/CRZ.

Answer 629

True ## Footnote This thrust limit is critical for maintaining performance during descent.

Question 630

What is the role of VNAV during a driftdown descent?

Answer 630

VNAV captures the MCP altitude and commands EO CRZ ## Footnote This allows the aircraft to maintain optimal performance in a single-engine scenario.

Question 631

What mode is the FMC in during an engine-out cruise descent?

Answer 631

Engine out mode

Question 632

What is the descent rate during an engine-out cruise descent?

Answer 632

Approximately 1,250 fpm

Question 633

What triggers the descent mode to become active during an engine-out cruise descent?

Answer 633

When the EO cruise descent intersects the planned descent profile

Question 634

How can altitudes be entered into the FMC?

Answer 634

As three digit (XXX), four digit (XXXX), five digit (XXXXX), or flight level (FLXXX) numbers

Question 635

What do three digit entries represent in the FMC?

Answer 635

Altitude or flight levels in increments of 100 feet

Question 636

True or False: Leading zeros are optional for three digit entries in the FMC.

Answer 636

False

Question 637

How is 800 feet entered in the FMC as a three digit entry?

Answer 637

008 or FL008

Question 638

What is the maximum altitude for four digit entries in the FMC?

Answer 638

9,994 feet

Question 639

How is 1,500 feet entered in the FMC as a four digit entry?

Answer 639

1500

Question 640

What do five digit entries represent in the FMC?

Answer 640

Feet, rounded to the nearest ten feet for altitudes exceeding 9,994 feet

Question 641

How is 50 feet entered in the FMC as a five digit entry?

Answer 641

00050

Question 642

Fill in the blank: Altitudes can be entered in the FMC as _______.

Answer 642

three digit (XXX), four digit (XXXX), five digit (XXXXX), or flight level (FLXXX) numbers

Question 643

What happens when the airplane is more than 50 nm from T/D and a lower MCP altitude is set?

Answer 643

Executes an engine-out cruise descent

Question 644

How are four digit entries displayed in the FMC?

Answer 644

Rounded to the nearest ten feet

Question 645

What is the correct entry for 9,994 feet in the FMC as a four digit entry?

Answer 645

9994; displays as 9990

Question 646

What must be done to enter altitudes in the FMC correctly?

Answer 646

Follow specific entry rules based on the transition altitude

Question 647

What is the format for entering a five-digit altitude of 50 feet in the Flight Management System?

Answer 647

00050 ## Footnote Displays as 50 feet.

Question 648

How is an altitude of 8,500 feet displayed after entering it as 08500?

Answer 648

FL085 ## Footnote This is the representation after input.

Question 649

What is the maximum negative altitude entry allowed in the Flight Management System?

Answer 649

-1000 feet

Question 650

How are calibrated airspeeds entered into the FMC?

Answer 650

As three digits (XXX) in knots

Question 651

How are Mach numbers entered into the FMC?

Answer 651

As one, two, or three digits following a decimal point

Question 652

What does the slash (/) indicate when entering data pairs in the CDU?

Answer 652

Separates two values

Question 653

What happens if a required slash is omitted when entering data in the FMC?

Answer 653

Results in an INVALID ENTRY message

Question 654

What types of databases does the Flight Management Computer utilize?

Answer 654

* navigation * option settings * performance

Question 655

In the FMC, how is a five-digit altitude of 11,500 feet entered?

Answer 655

11500

Question 656

True or False: Airspeeds can only be entered as calibrated airspeed.

Answer 656

False ## Footnote Airspeeds can also be entered as Mach number.

Question 657

What does the performance database in the FMC supply to the flight crew?

Answer 657

Performance data to calculate pitch and thrust commands ## Footnote Includes airplane drag and engine characteristics, maximum and optimum altitudes, and maximum and minimum speeds.

Question 658

Which data is included in the navigation database of the FMC?

Answer 658

* Airports * Location of VHF navigation aids * SIDs, STARs, approaches, and company routes * Runways * Transition altitudes ## Footnote This data can be displayed on the CDU or ND.

Question 659

How long is each set of navigation data valid in the FMC?

Answer 659

28 days ## Footnote Each set corresponds to the usual navigation chart revision cycle.

Question 660

What happens when the FMC senses a conflict in an AMI value after a new AMI data load?

Answer 660

The CDU displays the message CHECK AIRLINE POLICY ## Footnote AMI stands for Airline Management Information.

Question 661

What does thrust management in the FMC operate in response to?

Answer 661

Flight crew mode control panel inputs or FMC commands ## Footnote FMC autothrottle commands are made while VNAV is active.

Question 662

What are the key functions of thrust management in the FMC?

Answer 662

* Calculates reference thrust limits and thrust settings * Commands thrust levers * Senses and transmits autothrottle failures * Commands thrust equalization through the engine electronic controls ## Footnote Thrust limits are expressed as N1 limits.

Question 663

Fill in the blank: The thrust limits in thrust management are expressed as _______.

Answer 663

N1 limits.

Question 664

What does thrust equalization reference in the FMC?

Answer 664

N1 ## Footnote Thrust equalization is a function of the engine electronic controls.

Question 665

What is the purpose of thrust management in the B787?

Answer 665

Calculates a reference thrust for various thrust settings such as TO, CLB, CRZ, etc. ## Footnote The thrust settings include TO, TO 1, TO 2, D-TO, D-TO 1, D-TO 2, CLB, CLB 1, CLB 2, CON, CRZ, and G/A.

Question 666

What thrust settings are used for takeoff in the B787?

Answer 666

TO, TO 1, TO 2, D-TO, D-TO 1, D-TO 2 ## Footnote D-TO stands for assumed temperature takeoff, while TO 1 and TO 2 are derate takeoff options.

Question 667

How does VNAV affect reference thrust limits?

Answer 667

Changes for the phase of flight ## Footnote The reference thrust limit displays above EICAS N1 indications.

Question 668

What is the range of thrust reduction height that can be specified by the flight crew?

Answer 668

From 400 feet to 9,999 feet ## Footnote The flight crew can also make entries for specific flap settings.

Question 669

What is the benefit of reduced thrust takeoffs?

Answer 669

Lower EGT and extend engine life ## Footnote EGT stands for Exhaust Gas Temperature.

Question 670

What are TO 1 and TO 2 in the context of thrust settings?

Answer 670

Fixed derates that reduce takeoff thrust by specified percentages ## Footnote The derate percentages can be set in one percent increments between maximum takeoff thrust and the maximum certified derate.

Question 671

What is the role of the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) regarding thrust derates?

Answer 671

Provides performance data for these derates ## Footnote This data guides operators in setting appropriate thrust levels.

Question 672

True or False: The thrust setting parameter for TO 1 and TO 2 can be exceeded in normal operations.

Answer 672

False ## Footnote Thrust levers should not be advanced further except in an emergency.

Question 673

Fill in the blank: The flight crew can specify the thrust reduction height on the _______ page.

Answer 673

CDU TAKEOFF REF ## Footnote CDU stands for Control Display Unit.

Question 674

What could happen if thrust is increased following an engine failure during takeoff?

Answer 674

Loss of directional control ## Footnote This emphasizes the importance of adhering to thrust limitations during critical phases of flight.

Question 675

What should be used to calculate takeoff speeds for selected derate or variable takeoff rating conditions?

Answer 675

The takeoff speeds calculated by the EFB ## Footnote EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag.

Question 676

What is a limitation for takeoff thrust settings in the B787?

Answer 676

Thrust levers should not be advanced further except in an emergency. ## Footnote Advancing thrust further after an engine failure may lead to a loss of directional control.

Question 677

How can takeoff thrust be reduced in the B787?

Answer 677

By entering an assumed temperature higher than the actual temperature. ## Footnote The maximum thrust reduction authorized is 25 percent below any certified rating.

Question 678

When should assumed temperature reduced thrust not be used?

Answer 678

If conditions exist that affect braking, such as slush, snow, or ice on the runway, or if potential windshear conditions exist. ## Footnote Assumed temperature thrust settings can be manually overridden if more thrust is needed.

Question 679

What are the fixed climb thrust derate options in the B787?

Answer 679

CLB 1 and CLB 2. ## Footnote CLB 1 has a 5% derate, and CLB 2 has a 15% derate.

Question 680

At what altitude does derated climb thrust increase to achieve CLB thrust?

Answer 680

25,000 feet. ## Footnote Thrust increases linearly with altitude to achieve CLB thrust at 33,000 feet.

Question 681

How does the takeoff derate percentage affect the automatic selection of climb derate?

Answer 681

If the takeoff derate percentage is: * less than 5% then CLB is selected, * greater than or equal to 5% and less than 15% then CLB 1 is selected, * greater than or equal to 15% then CLB 2 is selected.

Question 682

What is the impact of using derated climb thrust on engine maintenance?

Answer 682

It reduces engine maintenance costs, but increases total trip fuel. ## Footnote This trade-off is important for operational efficiency.

Question 683

What sources does the FMC receive fuel data from?

Answer 683

Fuel quantity system or manual entries. ## Footnote Fuel values are displayed as CALC, MANUAL, or SENSED on the PERF INIT page.

Question 684

What happens to the calculated fuel value before engine start?

Answer 684

It is set to agree with the fuel quantity indicating system value. ## Footnote This ensures accurate performance computations.

Question 685

What does the FMC use for performance computations?

Answer 685

The calculated value. ## Footnote This value typically reflects the most accurate fuel data available.

Question 686

What does the FMC use for performance computations before engine start?

Answer 686

The calculated value set to agree with the fuel quantity indicating system value ## Footnote The calculated value is crucial for accurate performance predictions.

Question 687

What happens to the calculated fuel value when the engine starts?

Answer 687

It becomes independent of the fuel quantity system and decreases at the fuel flow rate ## Footnote This ensures real-time accuracy during engine operation.

Question 688

What occurs if a manual fuel quantity is entered on the PERF INIT page before engine start?

Answer 688

The manual entry is deleted and replaced with the TOTALIZER value when the engines start ## Footnote This prevents discrepancies between manual and actual fuel quantities.

Question 689

How does the APU affect the calculated fuel value?

Answer 689

The APU fuel burn schedule is used to decrease the calculated fuel value when the APU is running ## Footnote This scheduling is important for accurate fuel management.

Question 690

What happens to the calculated value during fuel jettison?

Answer 690

It is set equal to the fuel quantity system value ## Footnote After jettisoning, it remains independent of the fuel quantity indicating system.

Question 691

What is displayed on the PERF INIT page when a fuel quantity is input by the flight crew?

Answer 691

The line title changes to MANUAL ## Footnote This indicates that the manual value is now being used instead of the calculated value.

Question 692

What does the FMC use if fuel flow data is invalid?

Answer 692

The fuel quantity indicating system quantity for performance computations ## Footnote This ensures some level of performance calculation even with invalid data.

Question 693

How is fuel used by each engine calculated?

Answer 693

With its related fuel flow signal ## Footnote This allows for accurate monitoring of fuel consumption per engine.

Question 694

What happens if the fuel flow signal is invalid while on the ground?

Answer 694

The display blanks if invalid for greater than two minutes after airborne ## Footnote This is a safety feature to prevent misleading fuel data.

Question 695

What EICAS advisory message is displayed if actual fuel flow exceeds predicted fuel flow significantly?

Answer 695

FUEL FLOW ENG L/R ## Footnote This alerts the crew to a potential engine fuel leak.

Question 696

What triggers the FUEL DISAGREE message on EICAS?

Answer 696

A large difference between the fuel quantity indicating system quantity and calculated value ## Footnote This indicates possible discrepancies in fuel readings.

Question 697

When does the EICAS advisory message INSUFFICIENT FUEL display?

Answer 697

If the estimate is less than the fuel reserve value or 4000 lbs if no reserve value is entered ## Footnote This is critical for flight safety and planning.

Question 698

What do FMC calculated fuel predictions assume?

Answer 698

A clean configuration and do not include APU burn ## Footnote This is important for accurate fuel management during flight.

Question 699

What happens when the actual fuel temperature reaches the minimum value displayed on the PERF INIT page?

Answer 699

The EICAS advisory message FUEL TEMP LOW displays ## Footnote This alerts the crew to potentially dangerous fuel conditions.

Question 700

What is required for the FMC to operate continuously?

Answer 700

Continuous electrical power ## Footnote If electrical power is interrupted, the FMC restarts upon power return.

Question 701

What must be re-entered on the PERF INIT page after an FMC restart?

Answer 701

Performance data ## Footnote The route previously in use is available but must be reactivated.

Question 702

How can the flight crew activate LNAV after a power interruption?

Answer 702

Modify the active waypoint ## Footnote Selecting the applicable active waypoint and proceeding direct or intercepting a course allows LNAV activation.

Question 703

What happens during a single FMC failure?

Answer 703

Spare FMC becomes active ## Footnote The transition occurs automatically and is not apparent to the crew.

Question 704

What remains active during a single FMC failure?

Answer 704

LNAV and VNAV ## Footnote All flight plan and performance data is retained.

Question 705

What is displayed when two FMCs fail in flight?

Answer 705

EICAS advisory message SINGLE FMC ## Footnote The third FMC takes over in a single FMC configuration.

Question 706

What must the flight crew do if two FMCs fail?

Answer 706

Reactivate and execute the flight plan, reselect LNAV and VNAV ## Footnote All data is retained and NDs continue to operate.

Question 707

What is the purpose of a software reset in single FMC operation?

Answer 707

Prevent permanent loss of the FMC ## Footnote This occurs when the FMC encounters an insoluble computation.

Question 708

What symptoms might indicate a software reset occurred?

Answer 708

Active route becomes inactive, performance data erased, LNAV and VNAV disengaged ## Footnote Appropriate CDU help window message accompanies resets.

Question 709

What happens during a triple FMC failure?

Answer 709

Loss of all FMCs and EICAS advisory message FMC displayed ## Footnote Accompanied by loss of PFD mini-map displays, ND map displays, and CDU pages.

Question 710

What capability do TCPs provide during a triple FMC failure?

Answer 710

Enter a single Latitude/Longitude waypoint ## Footnote TCPs provide track, distance to go, and groundspeed for the entered waypoint.

Question 711

What should still be available during a triple FMC failure?

Answer 711

Autothrottles ## Footnote They may be used in conjunction with any valid autopilot roll and/or pitch mode.

Question 712

Fill in the blank: The _______ must have continuous electrical power to operate.

Answer 712

FMC

Question 713

True or False: The backup FMC takes over when the master FMC fails.

Answer 713

False ## Footnote The spare FMC automatically becomes active in case of a master FMC failure.

Question 714

What device is primarily used for inputting downlink message forms in Air Traffic Control datalink functions?

Answer 714

Multifunction keypad ## Footnote The multifunction keypad allows crew members to interact with downlink messages effectively.

Question 715

How are arriving ATC uplink messages indicated to the crew?

Answer 715

By the appearance of the communications alert message 'dot ATC' on the EICAS display, ATC uplink information on the ATC data block, and a Hi-Lo alerting chime ## Footnote This alerting mechanism ensures that the crew is promptly notified of incoming messages.

Question 716

What types of clearance information may be uplinked from ATC?

Answer 716

Clearances such as headings, altitudes, speeds, and route clearance data ## Footnote These clearances are crucial for maintaining safe and efficient flight operations.

Question 717

What options are displayed in the ATC data block message for the crew to respond to a clearance?

Answer 717

ACCEPT and REJECT ## Footnote The crew must decide to accept or reject the clearance based on the information provided.

Question 718

What buttons can be used to complete the action of accepting or rejecting a clearance?

Answer 718

ACCEPT or REJECT switches on the glare shield or soft keys on the COMM display ## Footnote These controls provide flexibility for the crew in managing incoming clearances.

Question 719

What happens when a clearance can be loaded into the FMC?

Answer 719

LOAD FMC buttons appear on both the COMM display and the CDU help window ## Footnote This indicates that the clearance can be integrated into the flight management system.

Question 720

What is the benefit of loading the FMC first before accepting a clearance?

Answer 720

It provides the opportunity to view the clearance on the ND map display as a flight plan modification prior to acceptance ## Footnote This allows for better situational awareness before finalizing decisions.

Question 721

What message is displayed in the CDU help window during the loading of a clearance into the FMC?

Answer 721

ROUTE X UPLINK LOADING ## Footnote This message informs the crew that the clearance is being processed.

Question 722

What happens if an FMC modification is pending when a new ATC modification is received?

Answer 722

The new ATC modification cannot be loaded into the FMC, and the LOAD FMC prompts display in Cyan ## Footnote This indicates that the crew cannot select the option until all current modifications are cleared.

Question 723

What color indicates that the LOAD FMC prompt can be selected once the FMC is clear of all modifications?

Answer 723

Shaded white ## Footnote This visual cue helps the crew understand the status of the FMC loading process.

Question 724

What does FMC stand for in aviation?

Answer 724

Flight Management Computer ## Footnote The FMC is a critical component for flight management and navigation.

Question 725

What is a downlink in the context of the airplane communications system?

Answer 725

Data transferred from the FMC to a ground receiver ## Footnote Downlinking can occur manually or automatically.

Question 726

What is an uplink in aviation communications?

Answer 726

Data transmitted from a ground station to the FMC ## Footnote Uplinks can be initiated by airline operations or in response to downlink requests.

Question 727

What is the purpose of the airplane communications system?

Answer 727

Enables two-way datalink communications between the FMC and airline operations ## Footnote This system is vital for operational efficiency and flight tracking.

Question 728

What does CDU stand for?

Answer 728

Control Display Unit ## Footnote The CDU is used for inputting and displaying information in the FMC.

Question 729

What is the role of the 787 Common Computing Resource?

Answer 729

Supports various flight management functions ## Footnote It integrates multiple systems for efficient operation.

Question 730

What does CMF stand for in the context of aircraft communication?

Answer 730

Comm Management Function ## Footnote CMF manages communication between the aircraft and ground stations.

Question 731

What is the function of the FDCF?

Answer 731

Flight Deck Comm Function ## Footnote It facilitates communication within the flight deck.

Question 732

What types of data receivers are mentioned?

Answer 732

VHF, HF, SATCOM ## Footnote Each type serves different communication needs based on range and technology.

Question 733

Fill in the blank: A _______ occurs when data is transferred from the FMC to a ground receiver.

Answer 733

downlink

Question 734

True or False: Data may be uplinked at the discretion of the airline operations dispatcher.

Answer 734

True

Question 735

What does EICAS stand for?

Answer 735

Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System ## Footnote EICAS provides critical information to the flight crew regarding engine performance and alerts.

Question 736

What are downlinks in the context of datalink communications?

Answer 736

Datalink messages transmitted to a ground station ## Footnote Downlinks include requests for data and reports of FMC data, made manually or automatically.

Question 737

What are uplinks in the context of datalink communications?

Answer 737

Messages transmitted to the airplane ## Footnote Most uplinks require manual selections by the flight crew, while some may be input automatically.

Question 738

How does a flight crew initiate a manual downlink request?

Answer 738

Select a REQUEST prompt ## Footnote REQUEST prompts may be displayed on various pages such as PERF INIT, TAKEOFF REF, DESCENT FORECAST, and others.

Question 739

What happens when the communications function cannot prepare FMC downlinks?

Answer 739

Words FAIL, NO COMM, or VOICE display on the CDU pages ## Footnote These messages indicate issues with data communications management or radio availability.

Question 740

What does the status message 'FAIL' indicate?

Answer 740

The data communications management function is inoperative or the data radios have failed ## Footnote This status prevents the preparation of FMC downlinks.

Question 741

What does the status message 'NO COMM' indicate?

Answer 741

The data radios are operational but not available ## Footnote This status means that while radios are functioning, they are not able to communicate.

Question 742

What does the status message 'VOICE' indicate?

Answer 742

All available radios are operating in the VOICE mode ## Footnote This status signifies that the radios are not available for datalink operations.

Question 743

What is the purpose of the REPORT prompt in datalink communications?

Answer 743

To downlink a report applicable to that page ## Footnote Reports can be generated from various pages, including ROUTE and POS REPORT.

Question 744

Fill in the blank: Uplinks mostly require _______ selections by the flight crew.

Answer 744

manual

Question 745

True or False: Downlink reports can only be made automatically.

Answer 745

False ## Footnote Downlink reports can be made manually or automatically.

Question 746

What pages may display REQUEST prompts for downlink requests?

Answer 746

* PERF INIT * TAKEOFF REF 1/2 * DESCENT FORECAST * RTE * ALTN * ALTN LIST * RTE DATA

Question 747

What must a flight crew do to downlink a position report?

Answer 747

Select the REPORT prompt on the POS REPORT page

Question 748

What can the FMC be configured to do automatically during a flight?

Answer 748

Transmit downlinks of FMC data at predetermined points or in response to specific data requests ## Footnote This process requires no action from the flight crew.

Question 749

What is the difference between uplinked data that is loaded automatically and pending uplinked data?

Answer 749

Automatically loaded data does not require execution; pending uplinked data waits for flight crew action ## Footnote Pending uplinked data can be accepted or rejected by the crew.

Question 750

What prompts are used by the flight crew to respond to pending uplinked data?

Answer 750

ACCEPT/REJECT or LOAD/PURGE prompts, FMC modification ERASE prompt or EXEC key ## Footnote Flight crew must select the applicable prompt to include or discard the uplink.

Question 751

What pages can data be uplinked to from the airline dispatcher?

Answer 751

* PERF INIT * TAKEOFF REF 1/2 and 2/2 * DESCENT FORECAST * RTE * ALTN * ALTN LIST * WIND pages ## Footnote These uplinks are annunciated to the crew by FMC EICAS communications alert.

Question 752

How does the flight crew receive alerts for uplinked data?

Answer 752

Through the FMC EICAS communications alert and a hi-lo chime ## Footnote The uplink is identified by a CDU help window message.

Question 753

What happens to wind uplinks if there is no active route?

Answer 753

They are not annunciated and the

Question 754

What is the purpose of the REQUEST prompt on each page?

Answer 754

To downlink a unique request applicable to that page ## Footnote This allows for specific data requests to be sent.

Question 755

True or False: Flight crew action is always required for uplinked data.

Answer 755

False ## Footnote Some uplinked data loads automatically without crew action.

Question 756

What displays on the PERF INIT, TAKEOFF 1/2 and ALTN 1/2 pages after receipt of uplink data?

Answer 756

ACCEPT and REJECT ## Footnote These prompts indicate the status of the uplinked data.

Question 757

What happens when the ACCEPT prompt is selected?

Answer 757

Displays uplinked data in large font, replaces previous data, changes page to pre uplink format, clears CDU help window message, transmits downlink accept message (if enabled) ## Footnote This process confirms the acceptance of new data.

Question 758

What does the REJECT prompt do?

Answer 758

Replaces uplinked data with previous data, changes page to pre uplink format, clears CDU help window message, transmits downlink reject message (if enabled) ## Footnote This action negates the new data received.

Question 759

How is uplink data initially displayed?

Answer 759

In small font for preview ## Footnote This allows the crew to quickly review the data before accepting or rejecting it.

Question 760

What is the function of the FMC Datalink Uplinks?

Answer 760

To manage the acceptance or rejection of uplinked data ## Footnote This functionality is critical for maintaining accurate flight management.

Question 761

What does FMC stand for in the context of the B787?

Answer 761

Flight Management Computer ## Footnote The Flight Management Computer is a critical system in modern aircraft that automates the tasks of navigation and flight planning.

Question 762

Which page displays general datalink status on the FMC?

Answer 762

FMC COMM page ## Footnote The FMC COMM page provides access to datalink data and displays the status of communication.

Question 763

What information can be accessed via the FMC COMM page?

Answer 763

Datalink data ## Footnote The page includes page select prompts for various MC pages to access specific datalink information.

Question 764

Fill in the blank: The FMC COMM page displays _______ status.

Answer 764

General datalink ## Footnote This status indicates the current operation and readiness of the datalink system.

Question 765

What are the components listed under the FMC COMM page?

Answer 765

* UPLINK * RTE 1 * ALTN * PERF * TAKEOFF * WIND * DES FORECAST * POS REPORT * CLB FORECAST ## Footnote These components represent different types of data and operational statuses relevant to flight management.

Question 766

True or False: The FMC COMM page does not allow access to datalink data.

Answer 766

False ## Footnote The FMC COMM page is specifically designed to provide access to various datalink data.

Question 767

What does FMC stand for in the context of the B787?

Answer 767

Flight Management Computer ## Footnote The Flight Management Computer is a critical system in modern aircraft that automates the tasks of navigation and flight planning.

Question 768

Which page displays general datalink status on the FMC?

Answer 768

FMC COMM page ## Footnote The FMC COMM page provides access to datalink data and displays the status of communication.

Question 769

What information can be accessed via the FMC COMM page?

Answer 769

Datalink data ## Footnote The page includes page select prompts for various MC pages to access specific datalink information.

Question 770

Fill in the blank: The FMC COMM page displays _______ status.

Answer 770

General datalink ## Footnote This status indicates the current operation and readiness of the datalink system.

Question 771

What are the components listed under the FMC COMM page?

Answer 771

* UPLINK * RTE 1 * ALTN * PERF * TAKEOFF * WIND * DES FORECAST * POS REPORT * CLB FORECAST ## Footnote These components represent different types of data and operational statuses relevant to flight management.

Question 772

True or False: The FMC COMM page does not allow access to datalink data.

Answer 772

False ## Footnote The FMC COMM page is specifically designed to provide access to various datalink data.

Question 773

What does ADS-B stand for?

Answer 773

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast ## Footnote ADS-B is a surveillance technology for tracking aircraft.

Question 774

What is the primary function of ADS-B?

Answer 774

To provide surveillance for air traffic control similar to conventional radar ## Footnote It uses satellite-based position data from each airplane.

Question 775

What are the two parts of the ADS-B system?

Answer 775

ADS-B Out and ADS-B In ## Footnote Each part serves a different function in the surveillance system.

Question 776

What is the role of ADS-B Out?

Answer 776

To broadcast the aircraft's position data to ATC ## Footnote This part is essential for air traffic management.

Question 777

What is the role of ADS-B In?

Answer 777

To receive information from other aircraft and ATC ## Footnote This enhances situational awareness for pilots.

Question 778

How does ADS-B improve situational awareness?

Answer 778

By incorporating flight level management into navigation displays and INFO pages ## Footnote This allows pilots to access critical flight information more effectively.

Question 779

True or False: ADS-B is designed to completely replace radar.

Answer 779

False ## Footnote ADS-B is designed to supplement and eventually replace radar as the primary means of tracking.

Question 780

Fill in the blank: ADS-B is used by ATC for _______.

Answer 780

surveillance ## Footnote This is similar to the use of conventional radar.

Question 781

What does ADS-B stand for?

Answer 781

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast ## Footnote ADS-B is a surveillance technology for tracking aircraft.

Question 782

What is the primary function of ADS-B?

Answer 782

To provide surveillance for air traffic control similar to conventional radar ## Footnote It uses satellite-based position data from each airplane.

Question 783

What are the two parts of the ADS-B system?

Answer 783

ADS-B Out and ADS-B In ## Footnote Each part serves a different function in the surveillance system.

Question 784

What is the role of ADS-B Out?

Answer 784

To broadcast the aircraft's position data to ATC ## Footnote This part is essential for air traffic management.

Question 785

What is the role of ADS-B In?

Answer 785

To receive information from other aircraft and ATC ## Footnote This enhances situational awareness for pilots.

Question 786

How does ADS-B improve situational awareness?

Answer 786

By incorporating flight level management into navigation displays and INFO pages ## Footnote This allows pilots to access critical flight information more effectively.

Question 787

True or False: ADS-B is designed to completely replace radar.

Answer 787

False ## Footnote ADS-B is designed to supplement and eventually replace radar as the primary means of tracking.

Question 788

Fill in the blank: ADS-B is used by ATC for _______.

Answer 788

surveillance ## Footnote This is similar to the use of conventional radar.

Question 789

What is ADS-B (Out)?

Answer 789

A broadcast system similar to a Mode S transponder that transmits improved airplane information ## Footnote Includes location, heading, speed, airplane type, flight ID, and altitude

Question 790

How does ATC receive ADS-B (Out) information?

Answer 790

Through a network of ground-based receiving stations

Question 791

What type of information does an airplane broadcast under ADS-B (Out)?

Answer 791

Its own position without information on other airplanes or devices receiving it

Question 792

Is ADS-B (Out) automatic or manual?

Answer 792

Automatic, as no flight crew or controller action is required for transmission

Question 793

What does 'dependent surveillance' mean in the context of ADS-B (Out)?

Answer 793

Surveillance information depends on the navigation and broadcast capability of the airplane

Question 794

What is ADS-B (In)?

Answer 794

A term referring to systems that receive and show ADS-B (Out) surrounding traffic data to the flight crew

Question 795

What information is displayed on the flight deck from ADS-B (In)?

Answer 795

Ground track, speed, and location information of nearby airplanes

Question 796

What is the term 'ownship' in ADS-B terminology?

Answer 796

The airplane the flight crew is currently flying

Question 797

Where do operational and system status messages from ADS-B (In) show?

Answer 797

On the ND, MiniMap, and INFO displays

Question 798

What does the Traffic List function in ADS-B (In) allow the flight crew to do?

Answer 798

Sort airplanes with Mode S or ADS-B transponders within broadcasting range

Question 799

What kind of traffic can be selected from the Traffic List?

Answer 799

Airplanes meeting ADS-B data accuracy criteria

Question 800

What happens to unqualified traffic and non-ADS-B airplanes in the Traffic List?

Answer 800

They are not selectable

Question 801

Is the Traffic List available on the ground?

Answer 801

No

Question 802

What does the In Trail Procedure (ITP) function use to compute separation?

Answer 802

ADS-B data to compute separation from airplanes on adjacent flight levels

Question 803

What does the ITP function allow pilots to request?

Answer 803

Cruise flight level changes with greater situational awareness and reduced ATC workload

Question 804

Who sets the separation criteria for the ITP function?

Answer 804

Each airline

Question 805

Are ADS-B (In) applications required for operation in controlled airspace?

Answer 805

No, they are used for pilot situational awareness only

Question 806

What is ADS-B (Out)?

Answer 806

A broadcast system similar to a Mode S transponder that transmits improved airplane information ## Footnote Includes location, heading, speed, airplane type, flight ID, and altitude

Question 807

How does ATC receive ADS-B (Out) information?

Answer 807

Through a network of ground-based receiving stations

Question 808

What type of information does an airplane broadcast under ADS-B (Out)?

Answer 808

Its own position without information on other airplanes or devices receiving it

Question 809

Is ADS-B (Out) automatic or manual?

Answer 809

Automatic, as no flight crew or controller action is required for transmission

Question 810

What does 'dependent surveillance' mean in the context of ADS-B (Out)?

Answer 810

Surveillance information depends on the navigation and broadcast capability of the airplane

Question 811

What is ADS-B (In)?

Answer 811

A term referring to systems that receive and show ADS-B (Out) surrounding traffic data to the flight crew

Question 812

What information is displayed on the flight deck from ADS-B (In)?

Answer 812

Ground track, speed, and location information of nearby airplanes

Question 813

What is the term 'ownship' in ADS-B terminology?

Answer 813

The airplane the flight crew is currently flying

Question 814

Where do operational and system status messages from ADS-B (In) show?

Answer 814

On the ND, MiniMap, and INFO displays

Question 815

What does the Traffic List function in ADS-B (In) allow the flight crew to do?

Answer 815

Sort airplanes with Mode S or ADS-B transponders within broadcasting range

Question 816

What kind of traffic can be selected from the Traffic List?

Answer 816

Airplanes meeting ADS-B data accuracy criteria

Question 817

What happens to unqualified traffic and non-ADS-B airplanes in the Traffic List?

Answer 817

They are not selectable

Question 818

Is the Traffic List available on the ground?

Answer 818

No

Question 819

What does the In Trail Procedure (ITP) function use to compute separation?

Answer 819

ADS-B data to compute separation from airplanes on adjacent flight levels

Question 820

What does the ITP function allow pilots to request?

Answer 820

Cruise flight level changes with greater situational awareness and reduced ATC workload

Question 821

Who sets the separation criteria for the ITP function?

Answer 821

Each airline

Question 822

Are ADS-B (In) applications required for operation in controlled airspace?

Answer 822

No, they are used for pilot situational awareness only

Question 823

What does ADS-B stand for?

Answer 823

Automatic Dependent Surveillance–Broadcast

Question 824

What is the role of the Integrated Surveillance System (ISS)?

Answer 824

To process raw traffic data from ADS-B (In) and TCAS receivers.

Question 825

List the five hosted applications of the ISS.

Answer 825

* Visual Separation on Approach (VSA) * Surface Traffic (SURF) * Airborne (AIRB) * Traffic List * In Trail Procedure (ITP)

Question 826

What data do ADS-B (In) and TCAS receivers provide to the ISS?

Answer 826

Raw traffic data

Question 827

What type of information is displayed on the Cockpit Display of Traffic Information (CDTI)?

Answer 827

Processed traffic information from ADS-B and TCAS.

Question 828

True or False: The ISS uses only ownship data to filter and sort processed data.

Answer 828

False

Question 829

Fill in the blank: The ISS combines raw traffic data with _______ to feed its applications.

Answer 829

[ownship information]

Question 830

What is the purpose of traffic filtering and sorting in the ISS?

Answer 830

To present relevant traffic information to flight crew.

Question 831

What does VSA stand for in the context of flight management?

Answer 831

Visual Separation on Approach ## Footnote VSA assists flight crews in acquiring and maintaining visual contact and separation.

Question 832

What is the purpose of the CDTI?

Answer 832

To assist the flight crew in visually acquiring and maintaining contact with other airplanes during approach ## Footnote The CDTI allows tracking of selected airplanes from a Traffic List.

Question 833

What does the SURF application control?

Answer 833

Filtering and display of ADS-B traffic near the origin or destination airport ## Footnote It increases accuracy and threshold requirements for ownship and surrounding traffic.

Question 834

What happens to traffic that does not meet ADS-B data accuracy and integrity thresholds?

Answer 834

It can change from an ADS-B (In) symbol to a TCAS symbol ## Footnote This ensures accurate representation of traffic on the airport map relative to runway features.

Question 835

What does AIRB display?

Answer 835

ADS-B traffic on CDTI to assist in visually acquiring enroute traffic ## Footnote AIRB shows unique symbols and information based on ADS-B data received.

Question 836

What factors determine how ADS-B data is displayed?

Answer 836

Accuracy and integrity criteria, traffic selection state, and ownship proximity ## Footnote Different applications have varying criteria for displaying traffic.

Question 837

What is the maximum number of airplanes the traffic processor can display?

Answer 837

30 airplanes ## Footnote If there are more than 30, priority traffic is shown.

Question 838

What does the TFC switch state selection affect?

Answer 838

The information shown on the ND and mini-map ## Footnote States include OFF, TFC FLTR, and TFC ALL.

Question 839

What does the TFC-ALL state display?

Answer 839

ADS-B (In) symbols and flight IDs for all surrounding traffic transmitting ADS-B (Out) data ## Footnote This state provides comprehensive traffic information.

Question 840

Fill in the blank: The _______ application shows ADS-B traffic to assist in visual acquisition.

Answer 840

AIRB

Question 841

True or False: The mini-map shows flight ID and ground speed in the OFF state.

Answer 841

False ## Footnote No ADS-B traffic is displayed in the OFF state.

Question 842

What are the possible ND airplane indications?

Answer 842

* Selected and ITP reference traffic only * ID (Flight ID and ADS-B (In) symbol) * No Data (only ADS-B (In) symbol with altitude and climb/descend arrow) ## Footnote These indications vary based on the TFC state selection.

Question 843

What does VSA stand for in the context of flight management?

Answer 843

Visual Separation on Approach ## Footnote VSA assists flight crews in acquiring and maintaining visual contact and separation.

Question 844

What is the purpose of the CDTI?

Answer 844

To assist the flight crew in visually acquiring and maintaining contact with other airplanes during approach ## Footnote The CDTI allows tracking of selected airplanes from a Traffic List.

Question 845

What does the SURF application control?

Answer 845

Filtering and display of ADS-B traffic near the origin or destination airport ## Footnote It increases accuracy and threshold requirements for ownship and surrounding traffic.

Question 846

What happens to traffic that does not meet ADS-B data accuracy and integrity thresholds?

Answer 846

It can change from an ADS-B (In) symbol to a TCAS symbol ## Footnote This ensures accurate representation of traffic on the airport map relative to runway features.

Question 847

What does AIRB display?

Answer 847

ADS-B traffic on CDTI to assist in visually acquiring enroute traffic ## Footnote AIRB shows unique symbols and information based on ADS-B data received.

Question 848

What factors determine how ADS-B data is displayed?

Answer 848

Accuracy and integrity criteria, traffic selection state, and ownship proximity ## Footnote Different applications have varying criteria for displaying traffic.

Question 849

What is the maximum number of airplanes the traffic processor can display?

Answer 849

30 airplanes ## Footnote If there are more than 30, priority traffic is shown.

Question 850

What does the TFC switch state selection affect?

Answer 850

The information shown on the ND and mini-map ## Footnote States include OFF, TFC FLTR, and TFC ALL.

Question 851

What does the TFC-ALL state display?

Answer 851

ADS-B (In) symbols and flight IDs for all surrounding traffic transmitting ADS-B (Out) data ## Footnote This state provides comprehensive traffic information.

Question 852

Fill in the blank: The _______ application shows ADS-B traffic to assist in visual acquisition.

Answer 852

AIRB

Question 853

True or False: The mini-map shows flight ID and ground speed in the OFF state.

Answer 853

False ## Footnote No ADS-B traffic is displayed in the OFF state.

Question 854

What are the possible ND airplane indications?

Answer 854

* Selected and ITP reference traffic only * ID (Flight ID and ADS-B (In) symbol) * No Data (only ADS-B (In) symbol with altitude and climb/descend arrow) ## Footnote These indications vary based on the TFC state selection.

Question 855

What does the Traffic List display to the flight crew?

Answer 855

A list of airplanes within ADS-B (In) receiving range, including flight ID, distance, category, ground speed, and range ring size ## Footnote The list can show data for up to 127 airplanes and is synchronized on two MFDs.

Question 856

How many airplanes can the Traffic List display at maximum?

Answer 856

Up to 127 airplanes ## Footnote The Traffic List is not available on the ground.

Question 857

What feature allows the Traffic List to be sorted?

Answer 857

By distance from ownship or alphanumerically by flight ID ## Footnote The flight crew can select traffic meeting VSA requirements.

Question 858

True or False: The Traffic List can be viewed while on the ground.

Answer 858

False ## Footnote The Traffic List is not available on the ground.

Question 859

Fill in the blank: The Traffic List shows the _____ of the airplanes within ADS-B (In) receiving range.

Answer 859

flight ID, distance, category, ground speed, and range ring size

Question 860

What is the purpose of the ADS-B Traffic List?

Answer 860

To provide the flight crew with information on nearby airplanes for situational awareness ## Footnote This enhances safety during flight operations.

Question 861

What does VSA stand for in the context of the Traffic List?

Answer 861

Visual Separation Assurance

Question 862

What are the categories of aircraft displayed in the Traffic List?

Answer 862

HVY, LRG, HPRF, BALN, LGT, SML, GND ## Footnote These categories represent different sizes and types of aircraft.

Question 863

What is the significance of the range ring size in the Traffic List?

Answer 863

It indicates the distance from ownship to the displayed traffic ## Footnote Range rings can be selected to aid in visualizing traffic proximity.

Question 864

What type of data is synchronized on both MFDs when displaying the Traffic List?

Answer 864

Traffic data and selections ## Footnote This ensures all flight crew members have the same information.

Question 865

What does the Traffic List display to the flight crew?

Answer 865

A list of airplanes within ADS-B (In) receiving range, including flight ID, distance, category, ground speed, and range ring size ## Footnote The list can show data for up to 127 airplanes and is synchronized on two MFDs.

Question 866

How many airplanes can the Traffic List display at maximum?

Answer 866

Up to 127 airplanes ## Footnote The Traffic List is not available on the ground.

Question 867

What feature allows the Traffic List to be sorted?

Answer 867

By distance from ownship or alphanumerically by flight ID ## Footnote The flight crew can select traffic meeting VSA requirements.

Question 868

True or False: The Traffic List can be viewed while on the ground.

Answer 868

False ## Footnote The Traffic List is not available on the ground.

Question 869

Fill in the blank: The Traffic List shows the _____ of the airplanes within ADS-B (In) receiving range.

Answer 869

flight ID, distance, category, ground speed, and range ring size

Question 870

What is the purpose of the ADS-B Traffic List?

Answer 870

To provide the flight crew with information on nearby airplanes for situational awareness ## Footnote This enhances safety during flight operations.

Question 871

What does VSA stand for in the context of the Traffic List?

Answer 871

Visual Separation Assurance

Question 872

What are the categories of aircraft displayed in the Traffic List?

Answer 872

HVY, LRG, HPRF, BALN, LGT, SML, GND ## Footnote These categories represent different sizes and types of aircraft.

Question 873

What is the significance of the range ring size in the Traffic List?

Answer 873

It indicates the distance from ownship to the displayed traffic ## Footnote Range rings can be selected to aid in visualizing traffic proximity.

Question 874

What type of data is synchronized on both MFDs when displaying the Traffic List?

Answer 874

Traffic data and selections ## Footnote This ensures all flight crew members have the same information.

Question 875

What is the purpose of the B787 FCOM?

Answer 875

Systems Description ## Footnote FCOM stands for Flight Crew Operating Manual, which provides essential information on the aircraft systems.

Question 876

What does the Traffic Sort Criteria Key allow?

Answer 876

Sorting traffic by: * Alphanumerically by flight (ID) number * Distance from ownship ## Footnote This sorting helps pilots prioritize and manage traffic information effectively.

Question 877

What is the function of the Selected Traffic Box?

Answer 877

Displays selected target traffic with: * Green check + text * Traffic highlighted (green) with groundspeed value ## Footnote Only traffic transmitting VSA qualified ADS-B data can be selected.

Question 878

What does the Qualified Traffic Box indicate?

Answer 878

Selectable traffic that: * Transmits VSA qualified ADS-B data * Replaces current selected traffic if chosen ## Footnote Only one airplane can be selected at a time.

Question 879

What type of traffic does the Unqualified Traffic Box represent?

Answer 879

Unselectable traffic that does not meet VSA data criteria ## Footnote This indicates that the traffic cannot be interacted with due to insufficient data.

Question 880

What is meant by 'Traffic Flight (Identification) Number'?

Answer 880

ATC designated call sign ## Footnote This is used for identifying aircraft in communication with Air Traffic Control.

Question 881

What does 'Traffic Distance' refer to?

Answer 881

Lateral distance in nautical miles to traffic from ownship ## Footnote This measurement is critical for situational awareness and collision avoidance.

Question 882

Fill in the blank: Selected traffic always remains at the _____ of each page of the list.

Answer 882

top

Question 883

What is the In Trail Procedure (ITP) application used for?

Answer 883

The ITP application is used to make a list of nearby traffic and allows the flight crew to select a desired altitude and create an ATC request to climb or descend to that altitude.

Question 884

What altitude range does the ITP application operate within?

Answer 884

From FL240 up to the airplane service ceiling.

Question 885

What data does the ITP application utilize to function?

Answer 885

ADS-B data.

Question 886

How many airplanes can be designated as ITP reference airplanes?

Answer 886

Up to two airplanes.

Question 887

What criteria must ITP reference airplanes meet?

Answer 887

* Within two flight levels of ownship * Ahead or behind and within 45° of ownship track * ITP distance at least 15 NM with a ground speed closure differential of 20 knots or less * ITP distance at least 20 NM with a ground speed closure differential of 30 knots or less

Question 888

What happens if the desired flight level is available but there are airplanes between the current and desired flight levels?

Answer 888

The application determines if these airplanes can be used as ITP reference airplanes.

Question 889

What is displayed to the crew regarding flight levels in the ITP application?

Answer 889

Available flight levels, ITP reference airplanes, and flight level availability times.

Question 890

What is the maximum angular deviation for reference airplanes relative to ownship track?

Answer 890

Within 45° of ownship track.

Question 891

What is the significance of the initial ITP view?

Answer 891

It centers nearby traffic on the current ownship flight level.

Question 892

What occurs when the flight crew selects a destination altitude in the ITP application?

Answer 892

An ITP level request (COMM) page is automatically created.

Question 893

True or False: An ITP request may include just one reference airplane.

Answer 893

True.

Question 894

Fill in the blank: The ITP application uses _______ to calculate when ownship and the ITP reference airplane paths intersect.

Answer 894

ADS-B data.

Question 895

What can block flight levels in the ITP application?

Answer 895

Traffic preventing the climb or descent.

Question 896

What is the minimum ITP distance for a closure differential of 20 knots or less?

Answer 896

At least 15 NM.

Question 897

What is the minimum ITP distance for a closure differential of 30 knots or less?

Answer 897

At least 20 NM.

Question 898

What types of reference airplanes can be used for climbs and descents?

Answer 898

Both ahead, both behind, or one ahead and one behind.

Question 899

What data does the ADS-B (In) system provide to the Navigation Display (ND) and MiniMap?

Answer 899

Additional traffic details from surrounding airplanes ## Footnote A maximum of 30 ADS-B and TCAS targets can be displayed.

Question 900

How are surrounding airplanes that do not send ADS-B data represented on the ND?

Answer 900

As TCAS targets ## Footnote ADS-B (In) symbols are integrated with TCAS for better identification.

Question 901

What additional information is displayed on the Navigation Display for ADS-B traffic?

Answer 901

New traffic flight ID symbols and ground speed ## Footnote Flight ID and ground speed are not shown on the MiniMap to reduce clutter.

Question 902

How can ADS-B traffic be selected on the Navigation Display?

Answer 902

With the cursor on the ND or from the Traffic List using the PICK TFC function ## Footnote A maximum of one target can be selected at a time.

Question 903

What shows around selected traffic on the Navigation Display?

Answer 903

A dashed range ring ## Footnote The radius can be entered on the Traffic List.

Question 904

What is the purpose of completing the FMC preflight?

Answer 904

To optimize FMC accuracy ## Footnote Data entry is required in all minimum data locations.

Question 905

What data does the FMC provide to the Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)?

Answer 905

Zero Fuel Weight, Origin airport, and takeoff runway ## Footnote This data is used to compute optimal V-speeds.

Question 906

What prompts are displayed on the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page for V-speeds?

Answer 906

REJECT and ACCEPT prompts ## Footnote These are displayed at LSK SL and SR.

Question 907

What happens when the flight crew selects the ACCEPT prompt on the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page?

Answer 907

The V-speeds are displayed in large font on the CDU pages and on the PFD speed tape ## Footnote V1, VR, and V2 are the takeoff V-speeds.

Question 908

What is one alternative to using the EFB to provide V-speeds?

Answer 908

Manually entering the desired V-speeds ## Footnote The crew can also receive V-speeds via datalink from the Airline Company.

Question 909

True or False: The FMC preflight does not require data entry in all minimum required data locations.

Answer 909

False ## Footnote Data entry is essential for FMC accuracy.

Question 910

What data does the ADS-B (In) system provide to the Navigation Display (ND) and MiniMap?

Answer 910

Additional traffic details from surrounding airplanes ## Footnote A maximum of 30 ADS-B and TCAS targets can be displayed.

Question 911

How are surrounding airplanes that do not send ADS-B data represented on the ND?

Answer 911

As TCAS targets ## Footnote ADS-B (In) symbols are integrated with TCAS for better identification.

Question 912

What additional information is displayed on the Navigation Display for ADS-B traffic?

Answer 912

New traffic flight ID symbols and ground speed ## Footnote Flight ID and ground speed are not shown on the MiniMap to reduce clutter.

Question 913

How can ADS-B traffic be selected on the Navigation Display?

Answer 913

With the cursor on the ND or from the Traffic List using the PICK TFC function ## Footnote A maximum of one target can be selected at a time.

Question 914

What shows around selected traffic on the Navigation Display?

Answer 914

A dashed range ring ## Footnote The radius can be entered on the Traffic List.

Question 915

What is the purpose of completing the FMC preflight?

Answer 915

To optimize FMC accuracy ## Footnote Data entry is required in all minimum data locations.

Question 916

What data does the FMC provide to the Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)?

Answer 916

Zero Fuel Weight, Origin airport, and takeoff runway ## Footnote This data is used to compute optimal V-speeds.

Question 917

What prompts are displayed on the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page for V-speeds?

Answer 917

REJECT and ACCEPT prompts ## Footnote These are displayed at LSK SL and SR.

Question 918

What happens when the flight crew selects the ACCEPT prompt on the TAKEOFF REF 1/2 page?

Answer 918

The V-speeds are displayed in large font on the CDU pages and on the PFD speed tape ## Footnote V1, VR, and V2 are the takeoff V-speeds.

Question 919

What is one alternative to using the EFB to provide V-speeds?

Answer 919

Manually entering the desired V-speeds ## Footnote The crew can also receive V-speeds via datalink from the Airline Company.

Question 920

True or False: The FMC preflight does not require data entry in all minimum required data locations.

Answer 920

False ## Footnote Data entry is essential for FMC accuracy.

Question 921

What is the primary tool expected to provide V-speeds on the B787?

Answer 921

EFB ## Footnote EFB stands for Electronic Flight Bag.

Question 922

What is the first step in the preflight page sequence for the FMC?

Answer 922

Identification (IDENT) page ## Footnote This page is displayed when power is applied to the FMC.

Question 923

What is one of the options for entering V-speeds and takeoff data on the B787?

Answer 923

Manually enter the desired V-speeds ## Footnote The crew can also have data uplinked by datalink.

Question 924

Fill in the blank: The _______ page follows the identification page in the preflight flow.

Answer 924

Position initialization (POS INIT) page

Question 925

True or False: The EFB is the only method for entering V-speeds and takeoff data on the B787.

Answer 925

False ## Footnote The crew can manually enter data or receive it via datalink.

Question 926

What does using datalink for V-speeds reduce?

Answer 926

The number of required flight crew actions ## Footnote Datalink allows for automatic data entry.

Question 927

List the first three pages in the B787 preflight page sequence.

Answer 927

* Identification (IDENT) page * Position initialization (POS INIT) page * Route (RTE) page

Question 928

What page is displayed after the route (RTE) page in the preflight sequence?

Answer 928

Departures page ## Footnote This page does not have a prompt.

Question 929

What is the purpose of the thrust limit (THRUST LIM) page in the preflight sequence?

Answer 929

To initialize thrust settings for takeoff ## Footnote This page is part of the performance initialization.

Question 930

Fill in the blank: The last page in the minimum preflight sequence is the _______.

Answer 930

Takeoff reference (TAKEOFF REF 1/2) page

Question 931

What is the function of the EFB - Onboard Performance Tool page?

Answer 931

To assist in performance calculations for takeoff ## Footnote This tool is integrated into the preflight process.

Question 932

What is the function of the prompt in the lower right during preflight?

Answer 932

Directs the flight crew through the minimum requirements for preflight completion ## Footnote Selecting the prompt key displays the next page in the flow.

Question 933

What happens if a required entry is missed during preflight?

Answer 933

A prompt on the TAKEOFF page leads the flight crew to the preflight page missing data ## Footnote This ensures that all necessary information is completed before takeoff.

Question 934

Is the entry of inertial position mandatory for FMC preflight?

Answer 934

No, it is optional ## Footnote The IRS has continuous access to GPS position.

Question 935

What minimum route data must be entered for FMC preflight?

Answer 935

Origin and destination airports, and a route leg ## Footnote This data is essential for proper flight planning.

Question 936

What performance data is required for preflight?

Answer 936

Airplane weights, fuel reserves, cost index, and cruise altitude ## Footnote This information is critical for flight safety and efficiency.

Question 937

What specific data is required for takeoff?

Answer 937

Flap setting and center of gravity ## Footnote This ensures the aircraft is configured correctly for takeoff.

Question 938

What are supplementary pages in the FMC?

Answer 938

Pages that have no prompts and interrupt the usual sequence ## Footnote They are sometimes required for additional data entry.

Question 939

How can SIDs and STARs be entered into the route?

Answer 939

Using the DEPARTURES or ARRIVALS pages ## Footnote This allows for proper routing in compliance with air traffic control.

Question 940

Where are route discontinuities removed?

Answer 940

On the ROUTE and RTE LEGS pages ## Footnote Modifying the route ensures a smooth flight path.

Question 941

How are speed and altitude restrictions managed?

Answer 941

Entered and removed on the RTE LEGS page ## Footnote This is crucial for maintaining safe flight profiles.

Question 942

What information is added on the ALTN page?

Answer 942

Alternate airports ## Footnote This is important for contingency planning.

Question 943

What kind of data is referenced on the REF NAV DATA page?

Answer 943

Waypoints, navigation, airport, and runway data ## Footnote This information is essential for navigation and approach procedures.

Question 944

How can VNAV performance be improved during preflight?

Answer 944

By entering forecast winds and temperatures ## Footnote This data is entered on the WIND page.

Question 945

What does the initialization/reference index page allow?

Answer 945

Manual selection of FMC pages ## Footnote It provides access to pages used during preflight and not usually used in flight.

Question 946

What happens when INDEX is selected from any FMC page?

Answer 946

Returns to the INIT/REF INDEX page ## Footnote This helps navigate back to the main reference for preflight.

Question 947

What initiates the FMC takeoff phase?

Answer 947

Selection of takeoff/go around (TO/GA)

Question 948

What is the first step in preparing for the takeoff phase?

Answer 948

Entry of the TAKEOFF REF page data

Question 949

When does the takeoff phase transition to the climb phase?

Answer 949

When the FMC commands climb thrust

Question 950

What phase starts after the top of climb point?

Answer 950

Cruise phase

Question 951

Which page is used to make last minute changes to the departure runway?

Answer 951

TAKEOFF REF page

Question 952

Which page is used to make last minute changes to the SID?

Answer 952

DEPARTURES page

Question 953

What page is used to modify climb parameters and monitor airplane climb performance?

Answer 953

CLIMB page

Question 954

What page is used to modify the route and monitor route progress?

Answer 954

RTE X LEGS page

Question 955

What page is used to monitor the overall progress of the flight?

Answer 955

PROGRESS page

Question 956

Which page allows the selection of alternate climb thrust limits?

Answer 956

THRUST LIM page

Question 957

What page is used to select an approach during a turn-back?

Answer 957

DEP/ARR INDEX page

Question 958

What must be modified to agree when changes are made to departure runway and SID?

Answer 958

TAKEOFF REF and DEPARTURES pages

Question 959

What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed with correct takeoff parameters?

Answer 959

The FMC commands the selected takeoff thrust

Question 960

What is the target speed during the takeoff roll?

Answer 960

Between V2+15 and V2+25 knots

Question 961

What activates LNAV when armed before takeoff?

Answer 961

At 50 feet radio altitude

Question 962

What activates VNAV after takeoff?

Answer 962

At 400 feet above runway elevation

Question 963

At what point does VNAV command acceleration to a speed during climb?

Answer 963

At acceleration height or below acceleration height

Question 964

What speed does VNAV command for acceleration during climb?

Answer 964

5 knots below the flap placard speed

Question 965

What does the FMC command at the climb thrust reduction point?

Answer 965

Reduction to the armed climb thrust

Question 966

What speed does VNAV command after passing the transition altitude?

Answer 966

Economy climb speed

Question 967

What takes priority during climb, waypoint speed constraints or transition speed?

Answer 967

Waypoint speed constraints, provided they are greater than transition speed

Question 968

True or False: During the climb, VNAV does not comply with the LEGS page waypoint altitude and speed constraints.

Answer 968

False

Question 969

Fill in the blank: The commanded climb speed is maintained until entering the _______.

Answer 969

[cruise phase]

Question 970

What initiates the FMC takeoff phase?

Answer 970

Selection of takeoff/go around (TO/GA)

Question 971

What is the first step in preparing for the takeoff phase?

Answer 971

Entry of the TAKEOFF REF page data

Question 972

When does the takeoff phase transition to the climb phase?

Answer 972

When the FMC commands climb thrust

Question 973

What phase starts after the top of climb point?

Answer 973

Cruise phase

Question 974

Which page is used to make last minute changes to the departure runway?

Answer 974

TAKEOFF REF page

Question 975

Which page is used to make last minute changes to the SID?

Answer 975

DEPARTURES page

Question 976

What page is used to modify climb parameters and monitor airplane climb performance?

Answer 976

CLIMB page

Question 977

What page is used to modify the route and monitor route progress?

Answer 977

RTE X LEGS page

Question 978

What page is used to monitor the overall progress of the flight?

Answer 978

PROGRESS page

Question 979

Which page allows the selection of alternate climb thrust limits?

Answer 979

THRUST LIM page

Question 980

What page is used to select an approach during a turn-back?

Answer 980

DEP/ARR INDEX page

Question 981

What must be modified to agree when changes are made to departure runway and SID?

Answer 981

TAKEOFF REF and DEPARTURES pages

Question 982

What happens when the TO/GA switch is pushed with correct takeoff parameters?

Answer 982

The FMC commands the selected takeoff thrust

Question 983

What is the target speed during the takeoff roll?

Answer 983

Between V2+15 and V2+25 knots

Question 984

What activates LNAV when armed before takeoff?

Answer 984

At 50 feet radio altitude

Question 985

What activates VNAV after takeoff?

Answer 985

At 400 feet above runway elevation

Question 986

At what point does VNAV command acceleration to a speed during climb?

Answer 986

At acceleration height or below acceleration height

Question 987

What speed does VNAV command for acceleration during climb?

Answer 987

5 knots below the flap placard speed

Question 988

What does the FMC command at the climb thrust reduction point?

Answer 988

Reduction to the armed climb thrust

Question 989

What speed does VNAV command after passing the transition altitude?

Answer 989

Economy climb speed

Question 990

What takes priority during climb, waypoint speed constraints or transition speed?

Answer 990

Waypoint speed constraints, provided they are greater than transition speed

Question 991

True or False: During the climb, VNAV does not comply with the LEGS page waypoint altitude and speed constraints.

Answer 991

False

Question 992

Fill in the blank: The commanded climb speed is maintained until entering the _______.

Answer 992

[cruise phase]

Question 993

What does VNAV comply with during the climb?

Answer 993

VNAV complies with the LEGS page waypoint altitude and speed constraints.

Question 994

What is indicated by the magenta color during the climb?

Answer 994

The commanded speed.

Question 995

What message is displayed if the climb speed profile violates a waypoint altitude constraint?

Answer 995

UNABLE NEXT ALTITUDE.

Question 996

What must be manually selected if a steeper climb angle is required?

Answer 996

A different speed profile.

Question 997

What happens when the altitude window is set to the required altitude?

Answer 997

The airplane levels at the set altitude.

Question 998

What does VNAV SPD change to when an unplanned level-off is required?

Answer 998

VNAV ALT.

Question 999

How can the climb be continued after leveling off?

Answer 999

By setting the altitude window to a higher altitude and pushing the altitude selector.

Question 1000

What happens if the altitude window is set above other altitude constraints?

Answer 1000

Each altitude constraint can be deleted by each push of the altitude selector.

Question 1001

What can be deleted by selecting the CLB DIR > prompt on the CLB page?

Answer 1001

All waypoint altitude climb constraints to the T/C.

Question 1002

What is the purpose of the climb page?

Answer 1002

To evaluate, monitor, and modify the climb path.

Question 1003

Where does the data on the climb page come from?

Answer 1003

From preflight entries made on the route and performance pages, and from the airline policy file.

Question 1004

What is the first of the three pages selected with the VNAV function key?

Answer 1004

The climb page.

Question 1005

What happens to the climb page data when the FMC changes to cruise mode?

Answer 1005

The climb page data is blanked.

Question 1006

What are the possible climb speed commands for the FMC?

Answer 1006

* Economy * Select * Engine out * RTA

Question 1007

What does the Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT) display on the B787?

Answer 1007

Displays cruise altitude entered on PERF INIT page ## Footnote Valid entries are: XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, or FLXXX. Altitude displays in feet or flight level depending on transition altitude.

Question 1008

How can the cruise altitude be changed on the B787?

Answer 1008

By two methods: * Manually entered from the CDU * Entered from the MCP ## Footnote A modified cruise altitude displays in shaded white until executed. The MCP method changes altitude without modification or execution.

Question 1009

What is ECON SPD based on?

Answer 1009

Cost index in CAS or Mach ## Footnote Used by FMC at altitudes above all waypoint speed constraints, speed restrictions, and speed transition altitudes.

Question 1010

When does SEL SPD display on the B787?

Answer 1010

Displays when intermediate level off required below an existing speed constraint or when flight crew enters speed ## Footnote Valid entries are CAS or Mach.

Question 1011

What does RTA SPD indicate?

Answer 1011

Displays when an RTA is active ## Footnote The FMC commanded speed is magenta.

Question 1012

What is the color coding for speeds below and above the CAS/Mach transition altitude?

Answer 1012

Below: CAS is magenta, Mach is white; Above: Mach is magenta, CAS is white ## Footnote This indicates the active speed mode in relation to altitude.

Question 1013

What does the Speed Transition (SPD TRANS) line display?

Answer 1013

Displays the transition speed/altitude from various sources ## Footnote This is crucial for understanding speed changes during flight.

Question 1014

What does the Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT) display on the B787?

Answer 1014

Displays cruise altitude entered on PERF INIT page ## Footnote Valid entries are: XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, or FLXXX. Altitude displays in feet or flight level depending on transition altitude.

Question 1015

How can the cruise altitude be changed on the B787?

Answer 1015

By two methods: * Manually entered from the CDU * Entered from the MCP ## Footnote A modified cruise altitude displays in shaded white until executed. The MCP method changes altitude without modification or execution.

Question 1016

What is ECON SPD based on?

Answer 1016

Cost index in CAS or Mach ## Footnote Used by FMC at altitudes above all waypoint speed constraints, speed restrictions, and speed transition altitudes.

Question 1017

When does SEL SPD display on the B787?

Answer 1017

Displays when intermediate level off required below an existing speed constraint or when flight crew enters speed ## Footnote Valid entries are CAS or Mach.

Question 1018

What does RTA SPD indicate?

Answer 1018

Displays when an RTA is active ## Footnote The FMC commanded speed is magenta.

Question 1019

What is the color coding for speeds below and above the CAS/Mach transition altitude?

Answer 1019

Below: CAS is magenta, Mach is white; Above: Mach is magenta, CAS is white ## Footnote This indicates the active speed mode in relation to altitude.

Question 1020

What does the Speed Transition (SPD TRANS) line display?

Answer 1020

Displays the transition speed/altitude from various sources ## Footnote This is crucial for understanding speed changes during flight.

Question 1021

What does the speed transition line display?

Answer 1021

The transition speed/altitude from sources such as: * Navigation database value for the origin airport * Value specified from the airline policy page * Greater of the transition speed associated with the origin airport or flaps up manoeuvre speed ## Footnote Example: 250/10000

Question 1022

What color is the speed transition line when it is FMC command speed?

Answer 1022

Magenta ## Footnote Not displayed above transition

Question 1023

What can be done with the speed transition line?

Answer 1023

It can be deleted

Question 1024

How are speed restrictions for altitudes less than cruise altitude entered?

Answer 1024

Manually entered with dashes before entry by flight crew ## Footnote Valid entry is a CAS and altitude (example 240/8000)

Question 1025

What happens to an entry for speed restriction before it is executed?

Answer 1025

Shaded white until executed; magenta when it is FMC command speed

Question 1026

What does selecting ECON do?

Answer 1026

Changes climb speed to ECON and must be executed ## Footnote A prompt displays when the climb speed is not ECON

Question 1027

What types of climb are displayed in the page title?

Answer 1027

Types of climb include: * ECON - speed based on a cost index * LIM SPD - speed based on airplane configuration limiting speed * MCP SPD - MCP speed intervention selected * EO - engine out mode selected * XXXT - fixed CAS climb speed profile or when engine failure detected ## Footnote XXX is flaps up manoeuvre speed

Question 1028

What does the speed transition line display?

Answer 1028

The transition speed/altitude from sources such as: * Navigation database value for the origin airport * Value specified from the airline policy page * Greater of the transition speed associated with the origin airport or flaps up manoeuvre speed ## Footnote Example: 250/10000

Question 1029

What color is the speed transition line when it is FMC command speed?

Answer 1029

Magenta ## Footnote Not displayed above transition

Question 1030

What can be done with the speed transition line?

Answer 1030

It can be deleted

Question 1031

How are speed restrictions for altitudes less than cruise altitude entered?

Answer 1031

Manually entered with dashes before entry by flight crew ## Footnote Valid entry is a CAS and altitude (example 240/8000)

Question 1032

What happens to an entry for speed restriction before it is executed?

Answer 1032

Shaded white until executed; magenta when it is FMC command speed

Question 1033

What does selecting ECON do?

Answer 1033

Changes climb speed to ECON and must be executed ## Footnote A prompt displays when the climb speed is not ECON

Question 1034

What types of climb are displayed in the page title?

Answer 1034

Types of climb include: * ECON - speed based on a cost index * LIM SPD - speed based on airplane configuration limiting speed * MCP SPD - MCP speed intervention selected * EO - engine out mode selected * XXXT - fixed CAS climb speed profile or when engine failure detected ## Footnote XXX is flaps up manoeuvre speed

Question 1035

What is the transition altitude (TRANS ALT)?

Answer 1035

Transition altitude for origin airport contained in navigation database. FMC uses 18,000 feet if transition altitude is not available. ## Footnote Manually change transition altitude here or on DESCENT FORECAST page. Valid entries are XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, or FLXXX.

Question 1036

What does the maximum angle (MAX ANGLE) display?

Answer 1036

Displays maximum angle of climb speed. ## Footnote Select - displays speed in the scratchpad for pilot selection to the speed line.

Question 1037

What happens when 'Engine Out' (ENG OUT) is selected below the speed transition or restriction altitude?

Answer 1037

Displays MOD EO CLB page and deletes climb speed transition or restriction data. ## Footnote Select (below engine-out maximum altitude) - displays MOD EO CLB page.

Question 1038

What does the 'Engine Out' (ENG OUT) selection do when above engine-out maximum altitude?

Answer 1038

Displays MOD EO D/D or MOD EO LRC D/D page and lowers cruise altitude (IL) to engine-out maximum altitude if that altitude is less than the active cruise altitude. ## Footnote Shaded white until the modification executed. Upon execution, thrust reference limit becomes CON in all cases above.

Question 1039

What does the Climb Direct (CLB DIR) function display?

Answer 1039

Displays when climb altitude constraint exists between current altitude and FMC cruise altitude. ## Footnote Select - deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude or FMC cruise altitude, whichever is lower.

Question 1040

What does selecting 'Climb' (CLB) Forecast do?

Answer 1040

Displays CLIMB FORECAST page. ## Footnote This function helps in analyzing the expected climb performance.

Question 1041

Fill in the blank: The FMC uses _______ feet if transition altitude is not available.

Answer 1041

18,000

Question 1042

What displays in large font on the FMC Takeoff and Climb page?

Answer 1042

Waypoint speed or altitude constraints ## Footnote FMC refers to Flight Management Computer, which manages flight plans and navigation.

Question 1043

What font size do FMC predictions display in?

Answer 1043

Small font ## Footnote This indicates that the predictions are secondary to the constraints.

Question 1044

During which flight phases is manual entry allowed for waypoint speed or altitude constraints?

Answer 1044

Climb, cruise, or descent phase ## Footnote Manual entry allows pilots to adjust constraints as necessary.

Question 1045

What color indicates an FMC commanded speed or altitude?

Answer 1045

Magenta ## Footnote Magenta highlights the commands that the FMC is controlling.

Question 1046

Valid entries for speed can be which two formats?

Answer 1046

Airspeed or Mach (XXX/, 84/) ## Footnote Here, 'XXX' represents an airspeed value and '84' represents a Mach number.

Question 1047

What formats can altitude entries take?

Answer 1047

Thousands of feet or flight level (19000, FL190) ## Footnote Altitude can be entered in various forms, simplifying communication.

Question 1048

How should 9,000 feet be entered into the FMC?

Answer 1048

090 or 9000 ## Footnote This allows for flexibility in input formats.

Question 1049

What does the suffix 'A' indicate in altitude constraints?

Answer 1049

Cross at or above altitude ## Footnote This allows pilots to specify crossing requirements clearly.

Question 1050

What does a blank suffix indicate in altitude constraints?

Answer 1050

Cross at altitude ## Footnote This is the default crossing instruction without any specific conditions.

Question 1051

How are altitude blocks entered in the FMC?

Answer 1051

Lower altitude followed by 'A' and higher altitude followed by 'B' ## Footnote Example: 220A240B indicates crossing between 22,000 and 24,000 feet.

Question 1052

What do dashes display in the predicted descent region?

Answer 1052

Dashes display prior to descent path calculation ## Footnote This indicates that the descent has not yet been calculated.

Question 1053

What is required for descent path calculation?

Answer 1053

An altitude constraint below cruise altitude ## Footnote This ensures that the aircraft can descend safely.

Question 1054

What does the ACTIVATE function do in the B787 flight management system?

Answer 1054

Activates inactive flight plan; displays RTE DATA prompt ## Footnote This function is essential for initiating the flight plan for takeoff and climb phases.

Question 1055

What information does the RTE DATA display provide?

Answer 1055

Displays route data page ## Footnote This page contains specific details about the flight route, including waypoints and altitudes.

Question 1056

What does the MAP CTR STEP function change?

Answer 1056

Changes centered waypoint on ND ## Footnote ND stands for Navigation Display, which shows the aircraft's position relative to the planned route.

Question 1057

When does the ACTIVATE prompt display?

Answer 1057

When RTE and RTE LEGS flight plan is inactive ## Footnote This indicates that the flight plan needs to be activated before proceeding.

Question 1058

What happens after the ACTIVATE prompt is selected?

Answer 1058

RTE DATA displays ## Footnote This allows the crew to review the route data immediately after activation.

Question 1059

What is replaced on the thrust limit page during flight?

Answer 1059

Takeoff thrust limits with applicable thrust limits for climb ## Footnote This ensures that the aircraft operates within safe thrust parameters during climb.

Question 1060

What thrust limits are available for selection on the thrust limit page?

Answer 1060

* Fixed thrust derates for climb * Go-around thrust limits * Continuous thrust limits * Cruise thrust limits ## Footnote These options provide flexibility in managing aircraft performance during different phases of flight.

Question 1061

What does INIT/REF INDEX refer to in the B787?

Answer 1061

Index used for initiating and referencing flight data ## Footnote This index helps streamline the process of entering and retrieving flight-related information.

Question 1062

What does the ACTIVATE function do in the B787 flight management system?

Answer 1062

Activates inactive flight plan; displays RTE DATA prompt ## Footnote This function is essential for initiating the flight plan for takeoff and climb phases.

Question 1063

What information does the RTE DATA display provide?

Answer 1063

Displays route data page ## Footnote This page contains specific details about the flight route, including waypoints and altitudes.

Question 1064

What does the MAP CTR STEP function change?

Answer 1064

Changes centered waypoint on ND ## Footnote ND stands for Navigation Display, which shows the aircraft's position relative to the planned route.

Question 1065

When does the ACTIVATE prompt display?

Answer 1065

When RTE and RTE LEGS flight plan is inactive ## Footnote This indicates that the flight plan needs to be activated before proceeding.

Question 1066

What happens after the ACTIVATE prompt is selected?

Answer 1066

RTE DATA displays ## Footnote This allows the crew to review the route data immediately after activation.

Question 1067

What is replaced on the thrust limit page during flight?

Answer 1067

Takeoff thrust limits with applicable thrust limits for climb ## Footnote This ensures that the aircraft operates within safe thrust parameters during climb.

Question 1068

What thrust limits are available for selection on the thrust limit page?

Answer 1068

* Fixed thrust derates for climb * Go-around thrust limits * Continuous thrust limits * Cruise thrust limits ## Footnote These options provide flexibility in managing aircraft performance during different phases of flight.

Question 1069

What does INIT/REF INDEX refer to in the B787?

Answer 1069

Index used for initiating and referencing flight data ## Footnote This index helps streamline the process of entering and retrieving flight-related information.

Question 1070

What is the purpose of the Engine Out (EO) VNAV climb guidance?

Answer 1070

To provide guidance during engine out climb phase ## Footnote The EO VNAV climb guidance is available on the EO CLB page.

Question 1071

What must the flight crew do to utilize the EO CLB page?

Answer 1071

Select and execute the EO CLB page ## Footnote The EO CLB page provides engine out performance limitations.

Question 1072

When does the engine out climb phase change to the engine out cruise phase?

Answer 1072

At the top of climb

Question 1073

What type of data is available on the EO CLB page?

Answer 1073

Engine out performance limitations ## Footnote Manual entries are allowed after execution.

Question 1074

What does VNAV provide after executing the EO CLB page?

Answer 1074

EO guidance in the climb ## Footnote Reference thrust limit changes to CON.

Question 1075

Fill in the blank: The EO CLB page must be __________ by the flight crew.

Answer 1075

executed

Question 1076

True or False: The EO CLB page can only be executed with one engine operating.

Answer 1076

False ## Footnote Engine out data is available with both engines operating.

Question 1077

What happens to the thrust limit after executing the EO CLB page?

Answer 1077

Changes to CON

Question 1078

What is displayed on the modified EO CLB page?

Answer 1078

Engine out performance limitations

Question 1079

What is the transition altitude mentioned in the EO CLB page?

Answer 1079

18000

Question 1080

What does the Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT) display?

Answer 1080

Displays cruise altitude if less than MAX ALT, displays MAX ALT if less than cruise altitude ## Footnote Manual entry is allowed.

Question 1081

What is the Engine Out Speed (EO SPD)?

Answer 1081

Displays engine out climb speed, valid entry is XXX for CAS and 0.XXX for Mach ## Footnote Trailing zeros can be omitted, and a manual entry may cause MAX ALT to change.

Question 1082

What does Maximum Altitude (MAX ALT) display?

Answer 1082

Displays lower of maximum altitude at engine out climb speed or cruise speed ## Footnote Entry not allowed.

Question 1083

What does the ALL ENG selection modify?

Answer 1083

Modifies page to display all engine (ALL ENG) performance data.

Question 1084

What is the Engine Out Departure configuration for all engines?

Answer 1084

1 all 5G 60%.

Question 1085

What is the purpose of the DEP /ARR INDEX in the B787?

Answer 1085

Used to access departure and arrival information.

Question 1086

What information is displayed on the EO CLB Page?

Answer 1086

Engine Out Climb performance data.

Question 1087

Fill in the blank: Manual entry in the Cruise Altitude can modify _______.

Answer 1087

MAX ALT.

Question 1088

True or False: The Maximum Altitude can be manually entered.

Answer 1088

False.

Question 1089

What does the Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT) display?

Answer 1089

Displays cruise altitude if less than MAX ALT, displays MAX ALT if less than cruise altitude ## Footnote Manual entry is allowed.

Question 1090

What is the Engine Out Speed (EO SPD)?

Answer 1090

Displays engine out climb speed, valid entry is XXX for CAS and 0.XXX for Mach ## Footnote Trailing zeros can be omitted, and a manual entry may cause MAX ALT to change.

Question 1091

What does Maximum Altitude (MAX ALT) display?

Answer 1091

Displays lower of maximum altitude at engine out climb speed or cruise speed ## Footnote Entry not allowed.

Question 1092

What does the ALL ENG selection modify?

Answer 1092

Modifies page to display all engine (ALL ENG) performance data.

Question 1093

What is the Engine Out Departure configuration for all engines?

Answer 1093

1 all 5G 60%.

Question 1094

What is the purpose of the DEP /ARR INDEX in the B787?

Answer 1094

Used to access departure and arrival information.

Question 1095

What information is displayed on the EO CLB Page?

Answer 1095

Engine Out Climb performance data.

Question 1096

Fill in the blank: Manual entry in the Cruise Altitude can modify _______.

Answer 1096

MAX ALT.

Question 1097

True or False: The Maximum Altitude can be manually entered.

Answer 1097

False.

Question 1098

What is an Engine Out Standard Instrument Departure (EO SID)?

Answer 1098

Engine out SIDs can be created by the airline for specific runways ## Footnote EO SIDs are designed to ensure safe departures in the event of an engine failure.

Question 1099

What conditions must be met for the FMC to modify the route to include an EO SID?

Answer 1099

The conditions are: * An engine failure is sensed * Flaps extended * The navigation database has an EO SID for the departure runway ## Footnote These conditions ensure that the EO SID is relevant to the current flight situation.

Question 1100

What happens if no EO SID exists in the navigation database?

Answer 1100

-NONE- is displayed ## Footnote This indicates that there are no available engine out departures for the selected runway.

Question 1101

What is the purpose of the Arrivals Page during a turn-back situation?

Answer 1101

To provide the flight crew quick access to arrivals data for the origin airport ## Footnote This allows for efficient decision-making without changing the destination on the route page.

Question 1102

When should the DEP ARR function key be selected to show the ARRIVALS page?

Answer 1102

During climb, less than 400 miles from the origin, and while nearer to the origin than the destination ## Footnote This ensures that the crew has the necessary information to manage the flight effectively.

Question 1103

Fill in the blank: The modification of an EO SID can be _______ or erased.

Answer 1103

executed ## Footnote This flexibility allows the flight crew to adapt the flight plan as necessary.

Question 1104

True or False: The arrivals page can be accessed by changing the destination airport.

Answer 1104

False ## Footnote The arrivals page allows access without changing the destination, which is crucial in emergency situations.

Question 1105

What is an Engine Out Standard Instrument Departure (EO SID)?

Answer 1105

Engine out SIDs can be created by the airline for specific runways ## Footnote EO SIDs are designed to ensure safe departures in the event of an engine failure.

Question 1106

What conditions must be met for the FMC to modify the route to include an EO SID?

Answer 1106

The conditions are: * An engine failure is sensed * Flaps extended * The navigation database has an EO SID for the departure runway ## Footnote These conditions ensure that the EO SID is relevant to the current flight situation.

Question 1107

What happens if no EO SID exists in the navigation database?

Answer 1107

-NONE- is displayed ## Footnote This indicates that there are no available engine out departures for the selected runway.

Question 1108

What is the purpose of the Arrivals Page during a turn-back situation?

Answer 1108

To provide the flight crew quick access to arrivals data for the origin airport ## Footnote This allows for efficient decision-making without changing the destination on the route page.

Question 1109

When should the DEP ARR function key be selected to show the ARRIVALS page?

Answer 1109

During climb, less than 400 miles from the origin, and while nearer to the origin than the destination ## Footnote This ensures that the crew has the necessary information to manage the flight effectively.

Question 1110

Fill in the blank: The modification of an EO SID can be _______ or erased.

Answer 1110

executed ## Footnote This flexibility allows the flight crew to adapt the flight plan as necessary.

Question 1111

True or False: The arrivals page can be accessed by changing the destination airport.

Answer 1111

False ## Footnote The arrivals page allows access without changing the destination, which is crucial in emergency situations.

Question 1112

What is the starting point of the cruise phase in a flight?

Answer 1112

The top of climb ## Footnote The cruise phase begins once the aircraft reaches its cruising altitude.

Question 1113

What are the primary FMC pages used during cruise?

Answer 1113

* RTE X LEGS * CRZ * PROGRESS ## Footnote These pages are essential for managing flight routes and progress during the cruise phase.

Question 1114

What is the purpose of the RTE LEGS pages?

Answer 1114

To modify the route ## Footnote The RTE LEGS pages allow pilots to adjust the flight path as needed.

Question 1115

What information do the CRZ pages display?

Answer 1115

VNAV related data ## Footnote VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation, which is crucial for managing altitude and descent profiles.

Question 1116

What type of data does the PROGRESS pages show?

Answer 1116

Flight progress data ## Footnote This data helps the flight crew monitor the current status of the flight.

Question 1117

What does the POS REF page verify?

Answer 1117

The FMC position ## Footnote This page is used to ensure the aircraft's position is accurately represented in the FMC.

Question 1118

What information is displayed on the RTE DATA page?

Answer 1118

Progress data for each waypoint ## Footnote This page provides detailed information about the progress of the flight through each waypoint.

Question 1119

What is the function of the WINDS page?

Answer 1119

To enter forecast wind and temperature ## Footnote Accurate wind and temperature data are essential for performance calculations.

Question 1120

What kind of information can be found on the REF NAV DATA page?

Answer 1120

* Data about waypoints * Navaids * Airports * Runways ## Footnote This page also allows the crew to inhibit navaids if necessary.

Question 1121

What is the purpose of the RTE X page?

Answer 1121

To select a route offset ## Footnote Route offsets can help avoid obstacles or manage air traffic.

Question 1122

What does the FIX INFO page display?

Answer 1122

Data about waypoints ## Footnote This page can also transfer data to create new waypoints and fixes.

Question 1123

What does the SELECT DESIRED WAYPOINT page show?

Answer 1123

A list of duplicate waypoints from the navigation database ## Footnote The flight crew must select the correct waypoint from this list.

Question 1124

What is the function of the POS REPORT page?

Answer 1124

To display data for a position report ## Footnote Position reports are important for maintaining situational awareness.

Question 1125

What happens to the CLB page at the top of climb?

Answer 1125

It changes to CRZ ## Footnote This indicates the transition from climb to cruise mode.

Question 1126

What modifications can be made to the route as described in LNAV Modifications?

Answer 1126

* Add and delete waypoints * Remove discontinuities * Intercept a course * Change waypoint's sequence ## Footnote These modifications allow for dynamic route adjustments during flight.

Question 1127

What is the significance of the RTE LEGS page modifications?

Answer 1127

They allow the flight crew to make necessary route adjustments ## Footnote Modifications ensure the flight remains on the optimal path.

Question 1128

What are the identifying features that assist the flight crew in modifying a RTE LEGS page?

Answer 1128

* ERASE * INTC CRS TO * INTC CRS FROM ## Footnote These features help the crew make necessary modifications to the route legs.

Question 1129

What happens to modified entries on the RTE LEGS page?

Answer 1129

They display in shaded white. ## Footnote This visual cue indicates that the entries have been altered.

Question 1130

How can waypoints be added to the route?

Answer 1130

Waypoints can be added at any point, followed by route discontinuities. ## Footnote The process involves entering the waypoint name in the scratchpad and selecting the appropriate line in the flight plan.

Question 1131

What is the first step in adding a waypoint to the RTE LEGS page?

Answer 1131

Enter the waypoint name in the scratchpad. ## Footnote This initiates the process of adding a waypoint to the flight plan.

Question 1132

What is the second step after entering a waypoint name in the scratchpad?

Answer 1132

Locate the desired line in the flight plan and select the adjacent line select key. ## Footnote This action inserts the waypoint into the selected line of the flight plan.

Question 1133

What does the FMC assume when a waypoint like OED is added?

Answer 1133

The FMC assumes a direct route from the waypoint above it. ## Footnote For example, if OED is added after BTG, the route is assumed to be BTG direct OED.

Question 1134

What follows a newly added waypoint in the RTE LEGS page?

Answer 1134

A route discontinuity follows the waypoint. ## Footnote This indicates that there is a break in the flight path that needs to be addressed.

Question 1135

Fill in the blank: Modified entries on the RTE LEGS page are displayed in _______.

Answer 1135

shaded white. ## Footnote This helps the flight crew visually identify changes made to the route.

Question 1136

True or False: Waypoints can only be added at the beginning of the route.

Answer 1136

False. ## Footnote Waypoints can be added at any point in the route.

Question 1137

What does MOD indicate in the context of waypoint modification?

Answer 1137

MOD (shaded white) replaces ACT when modification in progress ## Footnote ACT (white) replaces MOD when ERASE selected or execute key selected.

Question 1138

What color is the waypoint name when it is modified but not yet executed?

Answer 1138

Shaded white ## Footnote The waypoint name remains shaded white until executed.

Question 1139

What happens when a modified waypoint is entered into the route after a waypoint that is not part of the active route?

Answer 1139

Creates a route discontinuity ## Footnote The FMC requires routing beyond the modified waypoint.

Question 1140

How is a discontinuity removed from the route?

Answer 1140

By entering an applicable waypoint in boxes ## Footnote This action resolves the discontinuity.

Question 1141

What does the ERASE function do in the FMC?

Answer 1141

Removes all modifications and shows active data ## Footnote Displays when the FMC contains modified data.

Question 1142

What does the title 'ROUTE DISCONTINUITY' signify?

Answer 1142

It separates route segments when there is a discontinuity ## Footnote Performance predictions to the destination on the PROGRESS page are calculated assuming direct routing.

Question 1143

Which page is used to delete waypoints from the route?

Answer 1143

RTE LEGS page ## Footnote The active waypoint cannot be deleted.

Question 1144

What are the two methods to remove a waypoint from the route?

Answer 1144

* Change the waypoints sequence * Delete the waypoint with the DELETE function key ## Footnote A discontinuity is created when a waypoint is removed using the DELETE function.

Question 1145

Fill in the blank: The data in the route ______ does not change before and after the deleted waypoint.

Answer 1145

does not change ## Footnote This is true regardless of the method used for deletion.

Question 1146

What is the purpose of the DELETE function key in the flight management system?

Answer 1146

Arms the delete function and selects DELETE to the scratchpad ## Footnote This function allows for the removal of waypoints from the active route.

Question 1147

What happens when a waypoint is deleted from the active route?

Answer 1147

Boxes replace the deleted waypoint and a route discontinuity displays ## Footnote This indicates that the waypoint has been successfully removed from the flight plan.

Question 1148

Does changing the sequence of waypoints cause route discontinuities?

Answer 1148

No ## Footnote Waypoints moved from one position in the flight plan to another do not result in route discontinuities.

Question 1149

How can a waypoint be copied from the flight plan?

Answer 1149

Find the applicable waypoint on one of the RTE LEGS pages and select the line select key adjacent to the waypoint ## Footnote This allows for easy modification of the flight plan.

Question 1150

What is the result of modifying a flight plan to fly directly from BTG to OAK?

Answer 1150

RBL is removed from the flight plan and routing is direct from BTG to OAK to AVE ## Footnote This modification does not cause a route discontinuity.

Question 1151

Fill in the blank: The active route shows ______ followed by OAK and AVE.

Answer 1151

RBL

Question 1152

True or False: Several waypoints can be removed from the flight plan at a time.

Answer 1152

True ## Footnote This can be done using the method involving the line select key.

Question 1153

What is a discontinuity in flight management navigation?

Answer 1153

A discontinuity exists when two waypoints are not connected by a route segment.

Question 1154

How can you remove a discontinuity in a flight plan?

Answer 1154

Connect a route segment after the discontinuity to the route segment before the discontinuity.

Question 1155

What is the procedure to enter a waypoint into a discontinuity?

Answer 1155

Copy the subsequent waypoint from the route into the scratchpad and enter it into the discontinuity, just as when adding a waypoint.

Question 1156

Fill in the blank: A route segment must be _______ to remove a discontinuity.

Answer 1156

[connected]

Question 1157

What does 'LNAV' stand for in navigation?

Answer 1157

[Lateral Navigation]

Question 1158

True or False: A route segment can be created without connecting waypoints.

Answer 1158

False

Question 1159

What should be done to the scratchpad when dealing with waypoints?

Answer 1159

Copy the subsequent waypoint from the route into the scratchpad.

Question 1160

What is the significance of route data in flight management?

Answer 1160

Route data provides information about the planned flight path and waypoints.

Question 1161

What are the two main sections mentioned for the B787 in the context of navigation?

Answer 1161

* B787 FCOM * B787 FCTM

Question 1162

What altitude is indicated for the waypoints in the example?

Answer 1162

FL350

Question 1163

What is a discontinuity in flight management navigation?

Answer 1163

A discontinuity exists when two waypoints are not connected by a route segment.

Question 1164

How can you remove a discontinuity in a flight plan?

Answer 1164

Connect a route segment after the discontinuity to the route segment before the discontinuity.

Question 1165

What is the procedure to enter a waypoint into a discontinuity?

Answer 1165

Copy the subsequent waypoint from the route into the scratchpad and enter it into the discontinuity, just as when adding a waypoint.

Question 1166

Fill in the blank: A route segment must be _______ to remove a discontinuity.

Answer 1166

[connected]

Question 1167

What does 'LNAV' stand for in navigation?

Answer 1167

[Lateral Navigation]

Question 1168

True or False: A route segment can be created without connecting waypoints.

Answer 1168

False

Question 1169

What should be done to the scratchpad when dealing with waypoints?

Answer 1169

Copy the subsequent waypoint from the route into the scratchpad.

Question 1170

What is the significance of route data in flight management?

Answer 1170

Route data provides information about the planned flight path and waypoints.

Question 1171

What are the two main sections mentioned for the B787 in the context of navigation?

Answer 1171

* B787 FCOM * B787 FCTM

Question 1172

What altitude is indicated for the waypoints in the example?

Answer 1172

FL350

Question 1173

What is a route discontinuity in flight management?

Answer 1173

A route discontinuity occurs when the active route has a break after a waypoint, requiring navigation adjustments to continue. ## Footnote Example: The active route has a discontinuity after BTG.

Question 1174

How can a route discontinuity be removed?

Answer 1174

By selecting a subsequent waypoint to the scratchpad and entering it into the route boxes. ## Footnote Example: To fly direct from BTG to OAK, copy OAK to the scratchpad.

Question 1175

What happens when a waypoint not already in the route is entered in the boxes?

Answer 1175

It moves the discontinuity one waypoint further down the route.

Question 1176

What does LNAV do when passing the last active route waypoint?

Answer 1176

Maintains the current heading and displays the EICAS advisory message FMC INTERCEPT HDG.

Question 1177

What is the first way to activate LNAV?

Answer 1177

Push the LNAV switch when within 2.5 miles of the active leg on an intercept heading.

Question 1178

What is the second way to activate LNAV when more than 2.5 miles from the active leg?

Answer 1178

Push the LNAV switch while on an intercept heading to arm LNAV and display the intercept path on the ND map.

Question 1179

What is the third way to activate LNAV?

Answer 1179

Fly direct to a waypoint or create an intercept course to a waypoint using the INTC CRS TO prompt.

Question 1180

Fill in the blank: LNAV is activated by pushing the LNAV switch when the airplane is within _______ miles of the active leg.

Answer 1180

2.5

Question 1181

What is the result of entering a waypoint in the RTE LEGS page active waypoint line?

Answer 1181

It allows the airplane to fly direct to that waypoint.

Question 1182

What does the INTC CRS TO prompt do?

Answer 1182

Creates an intercept course to the specified waypoint.

Question 1183

True or False: If the intercept angle is large, the airplane may undershoot the active leg when activating LNAV.

Answer 1183

False

Question 1184

What is displayed on the ND map when LNAV is armed while more than 2.5 miles from the active leg?

Answer 1184

The intercept path.

Question 1185

What happens if LNAV is not active and the airplane is on an intercept heading to the active leg?

Answer 1185

LNAV can be activated by pushing the LNAV switch.

Question 1186

What does 'Direct To' in flight management refer to?

Answer 1186

Direct course from airplane present position to entered waypoint

Question 1187

What happens when the 'Execute' command is used in 'Direct To'?

Answer 1187

Proceed direct to active waypoint

Question 1188

What is the purpose of 'Intercept Course' in flight management?

Answer 1188

Displays current required track to fly inbound course to the waypoint after execution

Question 1189

What is created when 'Abeam Points' (ABEAM PTS) is selected?

Answer 1189

Place bearing distance waypoint on the Direct To leg abeam the bypassed waypoint

Question 1190

What does ABEAM PTS create if the bypassed waypoint is a latitude/longitude waypoint?

Answer 1190

Creates latitude/longitude waypoint on the Direct To leg abeam the bypassed waypoint

Question 1191

What happens to altitude/speed constraints for bypassed waypoints when ABEAM PTS is selected?

Answer 1191

Constraints are removed

Question 1192

When does the ABEAM PTS prompt display?

Answer 1192

Whenever the active waypoint name is modified

Question 1193

What does the 'Route Copy' (RTE COPY) function do?

Answer 1193

Copies the active route into the inactive route

Question 1194

What happens to the previous inactive route when RTE COPY is selected?

Answer 1194

Erases previous inactive route

Question 1195

What is displayed on the line title after executing RTE COPY?

Answer 1195

RTE COPY and line data displays COMPLETE

Question 1196

True or False: Abeam waypoints created from designated position reporting waypoints become position reporting waypoints.

Answer 1196

True

Question 1197

Fill in the blank: 'Intercept Course' is modified by entry in _______ line or by selecting intercept course to.

Answer 1197

[INTC CRS TO]

Question 1198

What does INTC CRS TO stand for?

Answer 1198

Intercept Course To ## Footnote This term is used in flight management to denote the course to an active waypoint.

Question 1199

What is displayed when the active waypoint name is modified in the FMC?

Answer 1199

Displays boxes if entered waypoint not in the active route ## Footnote This indicates that the entered waypoint is not part of the current flight plan.

Question 1200

What is the valid entry range for intercept course when boxes are displayed?

Answer 1200

From 000° through 360° ## Footnote This range allows pilots to set an intercept course in any direction.

Question 1201

How does the system display the entered or selected value for intercept course?

Answer 1201

Displays in large font ## Footnote This ensures clarity and visibility for the pilots.

Question 1202

What happens when the current route course is displayed?

Answer 1202

Selects it as intercept course to active waypoint ## Footnote This allows for easy adjustment of the intercept course.

Question 1203

What are the steps to change the intercept course?

Answer 1203

Enter inbound intercept course in scratchpad, select INTC CRS TO line ## Footnote These steps allow pilots to modify the intercept course effectively.

Question 1204

What suffix is added to the waypoint name in the scratchpad when creating an intercept course from a waypoint?

Answer 1204

Outbound course ## Footnote This denotes the direction of the course being created.

Question 1205

Can an intercept course be created from a waypoint not in the route?

Answer 1205

Yes ## Footnote The FMC allows for flexibility in navigation planning.

Question 1206

What does the FMC calculate when a waypoint and course pair are entered?

Answer 1206

Calculates a route leg with the waypoint as the origin of the entered course ## Footnote This helps in establishing a clear navigation path.

Question 1207

When creating an intercept course from BTG, what is the example course entered?

Answer 1207

BTG090 ## Footnote This indicates a 090° course from the waypoint BTG.

Question 1208

What is displayed when the course intercept is line selected to the active waypoint line?

Answer 1208

Course (090°) displays in the leg direction ## Footnote This provides immediate feedback on the navigation input.

Question 1209

What does INTC CRS TO stand for?

Answer 1209

Intercept Course To ## Footnote This term is used in flight management to denote the course to an active waypoint.

Question 1210

What is displayed when the active waypoint name is modified in the FMC?

Answer 1210

Displays boxes if entered waypoint not in the active route ## Footnote This indicates that the entered waypoint is not part of the current flight plan.

Question 1211

What is the valid entry range for intercept course when boxes are displayed?

Answer 1211

From 000° through 360° ## Footnote This range allows pilots to set an intercept course in any direction.

Question 1212

How does the system display the entered or selected value for intercept course?

Answer 1212

Displays in large font ## Footnote This ensures clarity and visibility for the pilots.

Question 1213

What happens when the current route course is displayed?

Answer 1213

Selects it as intercept course to active waypoint ## Footnote This allows for easy adjustment of the intercept course.

Question 1214

What are the steps to change the intercept course?

Answer 1214

Enter inbound intercept course in scratchpad, select INTC CRS TO line ## Footnote These steps allow pilots to modify the intercept course effectively.

Question 1215

What suffix is added to the waypoint name in the scratchpad when creating an intercept course from a waypoint?

Answer 1215

Outbound course ## Footnote This denotes the direction of the course being created.

Question 1216

Can an intercept course be created from a waypoint not in the route?

Answer 1216

Yes ## Footnote The FMC allows for flexibility in navigation planning.

Question 1217

What does the FMC calculate when a waypoint and course pair are entered?

Answer 1217

Calculates a route leg with the waypoint as the origin of the entered course ## Footnote This helps in establishing a clear navigation path.

Question 1218

When creating an intercept course from BTG, what is the example course entered?

Answer 1218

BTG090 ## Footnote This indicates a 090° course from the waypoint BTG.

Question 1219

What is displayed when the course intercept is line selected to the active waypoint line?

Answer 1219

Course (090°) displays in the leg direction ## Footnote This provides immediate feedback on the navigation input.

Question 1220

What does LNAV Modifications allow you to do?

Answer 1220

Intercept Course From Waypoint and Outbound Course ## Footnote LNAV (Lateral Navigation) Modifications are used to adjust flight paths based on waypoints.

Question 1221

How do you enter the outbound course in the FMC?

Answer 1221

Enter the waypoint name and outbound course in the scratchpad ## Footnote The scratchpad is a temporary display area for inputting commands.

Question 1222

What happens when you select the active waypoint line?

Answer 1222

The outbound course displays ## Footnote The waypoint name is not used in this display.

Question 1223

What is the valid input range for course entry in the FMC?

Answer 1223

Any course from 000° through 360° ## Footnote The course can be changed until executed.

Question 1224

What does the SELECT DESIRED WPT page display?

Answer 1224

It displays when the FMC encounters more than one location for the same waypoint name ## Footnote This allows the pilot to select the correct waypoint.

Question 1225

What is the purpose of entering P/P in the FMC?

Answer 1225

To enter Present Position and outbound course in the scratchpad ## Footnote This is useful for setting a course based on the current position.

Question 1226

What does the INTC CRS FROM function do?

Answer 1226

Displays outbound course from entered waypoint ## Footnote It shows modifications to the active waypoint name.

Question 1227

Fill in the blank: The FMC calculates a new route leg with _______ as the origin.

Answer 1227

BTG ## Footnote BTG is used as an example waypoint in the text.

Question 1228

True or False: The waypoint name is used in the display of the active outbound course.

Answer 1228

False ## Footnote The waypoint name is not displayed when showing the outbound course.

Question 1229

What is displayed after entering a waypoint name in the SELECT DESIRED WAYPOINT page?

Answer 1229

A list of possible locations for the entered waypoint name ## Footnote The pilot can select the correct waypoint from this list.

Question 1230

What information is provided about the waypoint ENO in the SELECT DESIRED WAYPOINT page?

Answer 1230

It lists multiple locations with coordinates for the waypoint ENO ## Footnote Examples include SYMRNA and ENODAK with their respective coordinates.

Question 1231

What does 5G stand for in aviation context?

Answer 1231

5G refers to a system that incorporates advanced communication technologies, particularly in aircraft systems.

Question 1232

What is the purpose of the B787 FCOM?

Answer 1232

The B787 FCOM (Flight Crew Operations Manual) provides operational procedures and guidelines for the B787 aircraft.

Question 1233

What does QRH stand for in aviation?

Answer 1233

QRH stands for Quick Reference Handbook.

Question 1234

What does FAM stand for?

Answer 1234

FAM stands for Flight Attendant Manual.

Question 1235

What is the function of the B787 FCTM?

Answer 1235

The B787 FCTM (Flight Crew Training Manual) assists in training pilots on the B787 aircraft systems and operations.

Question 1236

What is the significance of the LEGS page in flight management?

Answer 1236

The LEGS page displays the flight plan waypoints and allows for navigation modifications.

Question 1237

What is the process to make PLUSS the active waypoint?

Answer 1237

Move PLUSS to the scratchpad, then to IL, and enter the V2 inbound course to PLUSS.

Question 1238

What indicates a successful airway intercept to PLUSS?

Answer 1238

The LEGS page displays PLUSS as the active waypoint.

Question 1239

How can the LATERAL OFFSET page be accessed?

Answer 1239

By selecting the OFST function key, the OFFSET prompt on the INIT REF INDEX page, or the LOAD SLOP command button.

Question 1240

What visual indication does the offset route have before execution?

Answer 1240

It displays as a white, dashed line on the ND.

Question 1241

What happens after executing the offset modification?

Answer 1241

The offset route displays as a dashed magenta line.

Question 1242

What does the solid magenta line represent on the ND?

Answer 1242

The original route.

Question 1243

What occurs when executing the offset modification without a START waypoint?

Answer 1243

The airplane turns to capture the offset course.

Question 1244

How do active route waypoints behave when on the route offset?

Answer 1244

They sequence normally.

Question 1245

What occurs at the SLOP START waypoint with SLOP OFFSET ON?

Answer 1245

The airplane turns right to the offset distance and follows the parallel track.

Question 1246

Fill in the blank: The OFFSET prompt displays for the active route when the airplane is _______.

Answer 1246

in flight.

Question 1247

True or False: The dashed magenta line represents the original route after executing an offset modification.

Answer 1247

False.

Question 1248

What does 5G stand for in aviation context?

Answer 1248

5G refers to a system that incorporates advanced communication technologies, particularly in aircraft systems.

Question 1249

What is the purpose of the B787 FCOM?

Answer 1249

The B787 FCOM (Flight Crew Operations Manual) provides operational procedures and guidelines for the B787 aircraft.

Question 1250

What does QRH stand for in aviation?

Answer 1250

QRH stands for Quick Reference Handbook.

Question 1251

What does FAM stand for?

Answer 1251

FAM stands for Flight Attendant Manual.

Question 1252

What is the function of the B787 FCTM?

Answer 1252

The B787 FCTM (Flight Crew Training Manual) assists in training pilots on the B787 aircraft systems and operations.

Question 1253

What is the significance of the LEGS page in flight management?

Answer 1253

The LEGS page displays the flight plan waypoints and allows for navigation modifications.

Question 1254

What is the process to make PLUSS the active waypoint?

Answer 1254

Move PLUSS to the scratchpad, then to IL, and enter the V2 inbound course to PLUSS.

Question 1255

What indicates a successful airway intercept to PLUSS?

Answer 1255

The LEGS page displays PLUSS as the active waypoint.

Question 1256

How can the LATERAL OFFSET page be accessed?

Answer 1256

By selecting the OFST function key, the OFFSET prompt on the INIT REF INDEX page, or the LOAD SLOP command button.

Question 1257

What visual indication does the offset route have before execution?

Answer 1257

It displays as a white, dashed line on the ND.

Question 1258

What happens after executing the offset modification?

Answer 1258

The offset route displays as a dashed magenta line.

Question 1259

What does the solid magenta line represent on the ND?

Answer 1259

The original route.

Question 1260

What occurs when executing the offset modification without a START waypoint?

Answer 1260

The airplane turns to capture the offset course.

Question 1261

How do active route waypoints behave when on the route offset?

Answer 1261

They sequence normally.

Question 1262

What occurs at the SLOP START waypoint with SLOP OFFSET ON?

Answer 1262

The airplane turns right to the offset distance and follows the parallel track.

Question 1263

Fill in the blank: The OFFSET prompt displays for the active route when the airplane is _______.

Answer 1263

in flight.

Question 1264

True or False: The dashed magenta line represents the original route after executing an offset modification.

Answer 1264

False.

Question 1265

What does SLOP stand for in aviation?

Answer 1265

Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure ## Footnote SLOP is a procedure that allows aircraft to offset laterally from their intended flight path.

Question 1266

What are the valid entries for OFFSET Distance?

Answer 1266

L or R followed by magnitude XX.X, or XX.X followed by L or R ## Footnote XX.X represents any number from 0.1 to 99.0 NM, in 0.1 NM increments.

Question 1267

What displays on the ND when a valid offset distance is entered?

Answer 1267

START WAYPOINT in 2L and END WAYPOINT in 3L lines titles ## Footnote The ND shows a dashed magenta line from the current position.

Question 1268

What is indicated when no start waypoint has been entered?

Answer 1268

The offset displays on the ND as a dashed magenta line from the current position ## Footnote The ND also displays a 30° entry and exit path to the offset.

Question 1269

What happens if the current leg is non-offsetable?

Answer 1269

Box prompts display ## Footnote This indicates that an offset cannot be applied to that leg.

Question 1270

How can an offset be removed?

Answer 1270

By deleting the offset, entering an offset value of zero, executing a direct to, or entering a PPOS hold ## Footnote PPOS hold refers to a position hold based on the aircraft's current location.

Question 1271

What displays when there is no active route or no offset-able legs?

Answer 1271

Blank ## Footnote This indicates that no offset can be applied due to the lack of a valid route.

Question 1272

What valid entries are allowed for START WAYPOINT?

Answer 1272

Waypoints in the active, modified, or pending active route ## Footnote A non-offsetable leg will display a help window message indicating that an offset cannot be applied.

Question 1273

What message is displayed when a non-offsetable leg is encountered?

Answer 1273

NO OFFSET AT LEG XXXXXXX ## Footnote This message indicates that the leg cannot support an offset.

Question 1274

What does the END WAYPOINT display when a valid end waypoint is entered?

Answer 1274

Dashes ## Footnote This indicates the ability to enter a valid end waypoint.

Question 1275

What happens when a flight plan change results in a non-offsetable leg in the lateral offset?

Answer 1275

The help window message OFFSET ENDS AT YYYYYYY displays ## Footnote YYYYYY represents the flight plan default Offset End waypoint.

Question 1276

What is shown when a valid direction/distance is entered and no end waypoint exists?

Answer 1276

FMC calculated end point in the active route ## Footnote This is based on the current offset parameters set by the pilot.

Question 1277

What does the help window message OFFSET ENDS AT indicate?

Answer 1277

That the offset will terminate before reaching the entered end waypoint ## Footnote The entered end waypoint continues to display in large font.

Question 1278

What occurs when the entered end waypoint is deleted?

Answer 1278

The offset extends to the next downtrack valid Offset End waypoint ## Footnote The new waypoint displays in small font.

Question 1279

What does SLOP stand for in aviation?

Answer 1279

Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure ## Footnote SLOP is a procedure that allows aircraft to offset laterally from their intended flight path.

Question 1280

What are the valid entries for OFFSET Distance?

Answer 1280

L or R followed by magnitude XX.X, or XX.X followed by L or R ## Footnote XX.X represents any number from 0.1 to 99.0 NM, in 0.1 NM increments.

Question 1281

What displays on the ND when a valid offset distance is entered?

Answer 1281

START WAYPOINT in 2L and END WAYPOINT in 3L lines titles ## Footnote The ND shows a dashed magenta line from the current position.

Question 1282

What is indicated when no start waypoint has been entered?

Answer 1282

The offset displays on the ND as a dashed magenta line from the current position ## Footnote The ND also displays a 30° entry and exit path to the offset.

Question 1283

What happens if the current leg is non-offsetable?

Answer 1283

Box prompts display ## Footnote This indicates that an offset cannot be applied to that leg.

Question 1284

How can an offset be removed?

Answer 1284

By deleting the offset, entering an offset value of zero, executing a direct to, or entering a PPOS hold ## Footnote PPOS hold refers to a position hold based on the aircraft's current location.

Question 1285

What displays when there is no active route or no offset-able legs?

Answer 1285

Blank ## Footnote This indicates that no offset can be applied due to the lack of a valid route.

Question 1286

What valid entries are allowed for START WAYPOINT?

Answer 1286

Waypoints in the active, modified, or pending active route ## Footnote A non-offsetable leg will display a help window message indicating that an offset cannot be applied.

Question 1287

What message is displayed when a non-offsetable leg is encountered?

Answer 1287

NO OFFSET AT LEG XXXXXXX ## Footnote This message indicates that the leg cannot support an offset.

Question 1288

What does the END WAYPOINT display when a valid end waypoint is entered?

Answer 1288

Dashes ## Footnote This indicates the ability to enter a valid end waypoint.

Question 1289

What happens when a flight plan change results in a non-offsetable leg in the lateral offset?

Answer 1289

The help window message OFFSET ENDS AT YYYYYYY displays ## Footnote YYYYYY represents the flight plan default Offset End waypoint.

Question 1290

What is shown when a valid direction/distance is entered and no end waypoint exists?

Answer 1290

FMC calculated end point in the active route ## Footnote This is based on the current offset parameters set by the pilot.

Question 1291

What does the help window message OFFSET ENDS AT indicate?

Answer 1291

That the offset will terminate before reaching the entered end waypoint ## Footnote The entered end waypoint continues to display in large font.

Question 1292

What occurs when the entered end waypoint is deleted?

Answer 1292

The offset extends to the next downtrack valid Offset End waypoint ## Footnote The new waypoint displays in small font.

Question 1293

What does SLOP stand for?

Answer 1293

Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure ## Footnote SLOP is used to enhance the safety of aircraft operations by allowing a lateral offset from the centerline of the route.

Question 1294

What is the default setting for SLOP?

Answer 1294

OFF ## Footnote The default status is indicated in large font green.

Question 1295

What does the line title display when SLOP is not active?

Answer 1295

START SLOP ## Footnote This indicates that the SLOP procedure can be initiated.

Question 1296

What is indicated when the line title displays END SLOP?

Answer 1296

SLOP is active ## Footnote This shows that the Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure is currently being utilized.

Question 1297

What does the NOW> display indicate?

Answer 1297

SLOP OFFSET is ON ## Footnote It also indicates that an offset is not active, the active leg is offsetable, and a MOD SLOP offset does not exist.

Question 1298

What color and font size is used to display SLOP offset when active?

Answer 1298

Magenta line ## Footnote The line appears at the offset distance shown when LNAV is active and the autopilot is engaged.

Question 1299

What is the valid entry format for SLOP OFFSET Distance?

Answer 1299

X (0.1 to 2.0 NM) ## Footnote Leading and trailing zeroes, and decimal points are optional.

Question 1300

What happens when no SLOP START waypoint is entered?

Answer 1300

Displays dashes ## Footnote This occurs when START SLOP NOW> is in 2R.

Question 1301

What is the purpose of the Cruise Page?

Answer 1301

Monitor and change cruise altitude and speed ## Footnote It facilitates manual or automatic speed changes and supports various climb and descent operations.

Question 1302

What can be accomplished from the cruise page?

Answer 1302

* Cruise climbs * Cruise descents * Step climbs ## Footnote These operations can be performed to optimize flight performance.

Question 1303

True or False: The cruise page allows only manual selection of speed changes.

Answer 1303

False ## Footnote Speed changes can also be automatically selected with the selection of other VNAV modes.

Question 1304

What does VNAV stand for?

Answer 1304

Vertical Navigation ## Footnote VNAV is a system that automates the vertical profile of a flight.

Question 1305

In VNAV economy mode, what is the basis for page data?

Answer 1305

Operating at ECON SPD ## Footnote ECON SPD is determined by the cost index.

Question 1306

What happens when the flight crew enters a selected speed in VNAV?

Answer 1306

Page data changes ## Footnote This reflects the new speed input by the crew.

Question 1307

What does the FMC display during engine out mode?

Answer 1307

Airplane capabilities with one engine inoperative ## Footnote This helps crews understand performance limitations.

Question 1308

What is the purpose of long range cruise (LRC) mode?

Answer 1308

To maximize airplane range ## Footnote LRC mode optimizes fuel efficiency and distance.

Question 1309

Fill in the blank: Economy cruise speed is based on _______.

Answer 1309

[cost index]

Question 1310

What is indicated by 'FL' in aviation terms?

Answer 1310

Flight Level ## Footnote Flight Level is a standardized altitude reference in aviation.

Question 1311

What does the acronym 'KORD' refer to?

Answer 1311

Chicago O'Hare International Airport ## Footnote KORD is the ICAO code for this airport.

Question 1312

What does 'ETA' stand for?

Answer 1312

Estimated Time of Arrival ## Footnote ETA is used to indicate when an aircraft is expected to arrive at its destination.

Question 1313

What is the significance of the 'cost index' in flight operations?

Answer 1313

It determines the balance between time and fuel cost ## Footnote A higher cost index prioritizes speed, while a lower index favors fuel savings.

Question 1314

Identify the mode that reflects the airplane's capabilities with one engine inoperative.

Answer 1314

Engine Out Mode

Question 1315

True or False: The cruise page displays information based on maximum speed settings.

Answer 1315

False ## Footnote The cruise page is based on ECON SPD, not maximum speed.

Question 1316

Fill in the blank: The 'STEP TO' feature indicates a change in _______.

Answer 1316

[altitude]

Question 1317

What does 'N1' refer to in aviation?

Answer 1317

Engine speed setting ## Footnote N1 is the speed of the first stage of a jet engine.

Question 1318

What does 'RECMD' stand for in flight planning?

Answer 1318

Recommended ## Footnote RECMD indicates the suggested flight level or speed.

Question 1319

What does the term 'ACT ECON CRZ' refer to?

Answer 1319

Actual Economy Cruise ## Footnote This term is used in the context of current operational cruise settings.

Question 1320

What does the page title indicate in the cruise management system?

Answer 1320

Indicates active (ACT) or modified (MOD) cruise, often containing ECON for economy cruise.

Question 1321

What does 'CO CRZ' signify in the cruise page titles?

Answer 1321

Engine out mode with CO speed selected.

Question 1322

What is indicated by 'ECON CRZ' in the cruise titles?

Answer 1322

Speed based on cost index.

Question 1323

What does 'EO CRZ' represent?

Answer 1323

Engine out mode with EO SPD selected.

Question 1324

What does 'EO D/D' indicate?

Answer 1324

Engine out mode with the airplane altitude above the maximum altitude for engine out performance.

Question 1325

What is displayed by 'EO LRC CRZ'?

Answer 1325

Displays after descending to engine out maximum altitude.

Question 1326

What does 'LRC CRZ' mean?

Answer 1326

Long range cruise selected.

Question 1327

What is indicated by 'MCP SPD CRZ'?

Answer 1327

Selected MCP cruise speed.

Question 1328

What does the 'Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT)' display?

Answer 1328

Displays cruise altitude entered on PERF INIT page.

Question 1329

What are valid entries for cruise altitude?

Answer 1329

XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, OR FLXXX.

Question 1330

How does the altitude display in the cruise system?

Answer 1330

Displays in feet or flight level depending on the transition altitude.

Question 1331

What happens when a new entry is made for cruise altitude?

Answer 1331

Changes the page title to CRZ CLB or CRZ DES.

Question 1332

What occurs when changing the MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector?

Answer 1332

Enters the MCP altitude as the active cruise altitude without creating a modification.

Question 1333

What does the page title indicate in the cruise management system?

Answer 1333

Indicates active (ACT) or modified (MOD) cruise, often containing ECON for economy cruise.

Question 1334

What does 'CO CRZ' signify in the cruise page titles?

Answer 1334

Engine out mode with CO speed selected.

Question 1335

What is indicated by 'ECON CRZ' in the cruise titles?

Answer 1335

Speed based on cost index.

Question 1336

What does 'EO CRZ' represent?

Answer 1336

Engine out mode with EO SPD selected.

Question 1337

What does 'EO D/D' indicate?

Answer 1337

Engine out mode with the airplane altitude above the maximum altitude for engine out performance.

Question 1338

What is displayed by 'EO LRC CRZ'?

Answer 1338

Displays after descending to engine out maximum altitude.

Question 1339

What does 'LRC CRZ' mean?

Answer 1339

Long range cruise selected.

Question 1340

What is indicated by 'MCP SPD CRZ'?

Answer 1340

Selected MCP cruise speed.

Question 1341

What does the 'Cruise Altitude (CRZ ALT)' display?

Answer 1341

Displays cruise altitude entered on PERF INIT page.

Question 1342

What are valid entries for cruise altitude?

Answer 1342

XXX, XXXX, XXXXX, OR FLXXX.

Question 1343

How does the altitude display in the cruise system?

Answer 1343

Displays in feet or flight level depending on the transition altitude.

Question 1344

What happens when a new entry is made for cruise altitude?

Answer 1344

Changes the page title to CRZ CLB or CRZ DES.

Question 1345

What occurs when changing the MCP altitude and pushing the altitude selector?

Answer 1345

Enters the MCP altitude as the active cruise altitude without creating a modification.

Question 1346

What does ECON SPD display?

Answer 1346

Displays target speed or Mach in magenta

Question 1347

What is shown in the page title when MOD is active?

Answer 1347

Displays in shaded white until the modification is erased or executed

Question 1348

When does SEL SPD display?

Answer 1348

Displays when flight crew enters speed

Question 1349

What types of speeds can be displayed depending on VNAV mode?

Answer 1349

* LRC SPD * ECON * RTA SPD * EO SPD * CO SPD

Question 1350

What does N1 display?

Answer 1350

Required N1 setting to maintain level flight at the target airspeed

Question 1351

What does the RTA PROGRESS select option display?

Answer 1351

Displays RTA PROGRESS 3/4

Question 1352

What does the ECON select option do?

Answer 1352

Selects VNAV ECON mode

Question 1353

When is ECON displayed?

Answer 1353

When an RTA waypoint is not in the flight plan and VNAV is not in the economy mode

Question 1354

What does the RTA/ECON select option do?

Answer 1354

Selects RTA speed mode

Question 1355

What does the destination ETA/FUEL display show?

Answer 1355

Displays estimated time of arrival and calculated fuel remaining at the destination

Question 1356

What additional information does the destination ETA/FUEL display provide when DIVERT NOW is selected?

Answer 1356

Displays the same data for the alternate airport

Question 1357

What does the line title display when a route modification is pending?

Answer 1357

Displays ETA/FUEL W/MOD

Question 1358

What are the calculations for ETA/FUEL based on?

Answer 1358

Based on optimum step climbs and cruise altitudes

Question 1359

What does OPT stand for?

Answer 1359

Optimum Altitude

Question 1360

What does MAX stand for?

Answer 1360

Maximum Altitude

Question 1361

What does RECMD stand for?

Answer 1361

Recommended Altitude

Question 1362

What does OPT stand for in the context of altitude calculation?

Answer 1362

Optimum Altitude ## Footnote Calculation based on gross weight, cost index, cruise speed schedule, and cruise center of gravity (cg).

Question 1363

What factors influence the calculation of MAX altitude?

Answer 1363

Factors include: * Current gross weight * Calculated fuel burn * Temperature * Number of engines operating * Cruise reference thrust limit * Speed * Residual rate of climb * Cruise cg ## Footnote The MAX altitude does not reflect the effect of speed if speed intervention is selected.

Question 1364

What is the purpose of the RECMD altitude?

Answer 1364

Displays the most economical altitude for the next 250 - 500 NM ## Footnote Based on gross weight, cruise speed schedule, and entered forecast winds and temperatures.

Question 1365

When is the OPT altitude not calculated?

Answer 1365

During an RTA cruise segment ## Footnote RTA refers to Required Time of Arrival.

Question 1366

What happens to the OPT, MAX, and RECMD headers when RTA CRZ mode is active?

Answer 1366

They are blank ## Footnote Indicates that these altitudes are not computed during RTA mode.

Question 1367

What is the default step size for calculating recommended altitude?

Answer 1367

Assumed 2,000 feet ## Footnote If the step size is zero, this default is used.

Question 1368

What is the required distance from T/D or destination airport for the recommended altitude to be set to CRZ ALT?

Answer 1368

Within 200 NM of T/D or within 500 NM of destination airport ## Footnote T/D refers to Top of Descent.

Question 1369

Fill in the blank: The cruise reference thrust limit can be set by the _______.

Answer 1369

[airline]

Question 1370

True or False: The calculation of RECMD altitude considers the forecast winds at cruise altitudes.

Answer 1370

True ## Footnote RECMD altitude is based on entered forecast winds and temperatures.

Question 1371

What does the Engine Out (ENG OUT) selection refer to?

Answer 1371

A specific operational mode for engine failure scenarios ## Footnote Details are not provided in the text.

Question 1372

What does selecting 'Engine Out (ENG OUT)' do in the B787 flight management system?

Answer 1372

Displays MOD XXX CRZ page title; changes command speed line title to EO SPD ## Footnote XXX is the active all-engine cruise speed mode before ENG OUT is selected.

Question 1373

What happens below engine-out maximum altitude when 'Engine Out' is executed?

Answer 1373

Thrust reference limit changes to CON and page title becomes ACT EO CRZ ## Footnote This indicates that the system is now in engine-out cruise mode.

Question 1374

What occurs above engine-out maximum altitude when 'Engine Out' is selected?

Answer 1374

Sets CRZ ALT to engine-out maximum altitude; thrust reference limit becomes CON and page title becomes ACT ## Footnote This reflects the need to adjust cruise altitude when experiencing an engine-out scenario.

Question 1375

What does the EO D/D page display?

Answer 1375

Changes fuel burn calculations based on single engine performance and includes APU predicted burn ## Footnote This is crucial for managing fuel efficiency during an engine-out situation.

Question 1376

What is shown when 'Long Range Cruise (LRC)' is selected?

Answer 1376

Displays long range cruise page ## Footnote This option is utilized to optimize fuel consumption during long flights.

Question 1377

What is the purpose of engine-out VNAV guidance?

Answer 1377

Displays on the EO CRZ or EO D/D page; calculates engine-out guidance for driftdown (D/D) ## Footnote This is essential for maintaining optimal flight path and safety during engine failure.

Question 1378

What happens to the EO D/D page when reaching the engine-out cruise altitude?

Answer 1378

Changes to the EO CRZ page ## Footnote This transition indicates a shift in operational mode once the target altitude is achieved.

Question 1379

How does airplane gross weight affect maximum altitude in an engine-out scenario?

Answer 1379

As airplane gross weight decreases, maximum altitude increases ## Footnote This allows for potential step climbs to higher altitudes.

Question 1380

What is the default target speed when ENG OUT is first selected?

Answer 1380

EO SPD ## Footnote This sets the speed target for the aircraft in an engine-out configuration.

Question 1381

Fill in the blank: The page title changes to _______ when the thrust reference limit becomes CON.

Answer 1381

ACT EO CRZ ## Footnote This indicates active engine-out cruise mode.

Question 1382

What does selecting 'Engine Out (ENG OUT)' do in the B787 flight management system?

Answer 1382

Displays MOD XXX CRZ page title; changes command speed line title to EO SPD ## Footnote XXX is the active all-engine cruise speed mode before ENG OUT is selected.

Question 1383

What happens below engine-out maximum altitude when 'Engine Out' is executed?

Answer 1383

Thrust reference limit changes to CON and page title becomes ACT EO CRZ ## Footnote This indicates that the system is now in engine-out cruise mode.

Question 1384

What occurs above engine-out maximum altitude when 'Engine Out' is selected?

Answer 1384

Sets CRZ ALT to engine-out maximum altitude; thrust reference limit becomes CON and page title becomes ACT ## Footnote This reflects the need to adjust cruise altitude when experiencing an engine-out scenario.

Question 1385

What does the EO D/D page display?

Answer 1385

Changes fuel burn calculations based on single engine performance and includes APU predicted burn ## Footnote This is crucial for managing fuel efficiency during an engine-out situation.

Question 1386

What is shown when 'Long Range Cruise (LRC)' is selected?

Answer 1386

Displays long range cruise page ## Footnote This option is utilized to optimize fuel consumption during long flights.

Question 1387

What is the purpose of engine-out VNAV guidance?

Answer 1387

Displays on the EO CRZ or EO D/D page; calculates engine-out guidance for driftdown (D/D) ## Footnote This is essential for maintaining optimal flight path and safety during engine failure.

Question 1388

What happens to the EO D/D page when reaching the engine-out cruise altitude?

Answer 1388

Changes to the EO CRZ page ## Footnote This transition indicates a shift in operational mode once the target altitude is achieved.

Question 1389

How does airplane gross weight affect maximum altitude in an engine-out scenario?

Answer 1389

As airplane gross weight decreases, maximum altitude increases ## Footnote This allows for potential step climbs to higher altitudes.

Question 1390

What is the default target speed when ENG OUT is first selected?

Answer 1390

EO SPD ## Footnote This sets the speed target for the aircraft in an engine-out configuration.

Question 1391

Fill in the blank: The page title changes to _______ when the thrust reference limit becomes CON.

Answer 1391

ACT EO CRZ ## Footnote This indicates active engine-out cruise mode.

Question 1392

What does the cruise page title display when Long Range Cruise (LRC) is selected?

Answer 1392

Displays LRC D/D ## Footnote LRC indicates the Long Range Cruise mode selected for optimal fuel efficiency.

Question 1393

What is displayed on the cruise page when MCP speed is selected?

Answer 1393

Displays MCP SPD D/D ## Footnote MCP refers to the Mode Control Panel, which allows pilots to set the desired speed.

Question 1394

What does EO LRC CRZ indicate?

Answer 1394

Displays EO LRC CRZ when reaching engine out cruise altitude ## Footnote EO refers to Engine Out, indicating the operational mode when one engine is inoperative.

Question 1395

What is indicated when EO SPD is selected and the airplane is below the engine-out maximum altitude?

Answer 1395

Displays EO CRZ CLB or EO CRZ DES ## Footnote EO CRZ CLB indicates a climb, while EO CRZ DES indicates a descent in engine-out conditions.

Question 1396

What happens if a manual entry of an altitude is made above the maximum engine-out altitude?

Answer 1396

Results in the CDU help window message, 'MAX ALT FLXXX' ## Footnote CDU stands for Control Display Unit, which provides feedback on entered values.

Question 1397

What does the Engine Out Speed (EO SPD) display?

Answer 1397

Displays the target speed or Mach in magenta ## Footnote Magenta indicates a selected value, highlighting the importance for pilots.

Question 1398

What occurs when a speed is manually entered on the cruise page?

Answer 1398

Changes the line title to SEL SPD ## Footnote SEL SPD indicates the selected speed which overrides the default.

Question 1399

What does selecting Company Speed (CO SPD) do?

Answer 1399

Modifies the page with company speed, engine out data from the airline policy page ## Footnote CO SPD is tailored to the airline's operational policies.

Question 1400

What does ALL Engine (ENG) selection display?

Answer 1400

Displays a MOD XXX CRZ page with performance based on both engines operating ## Footnote This mode allows for two-engine economy VNAV modes to be selected.

Question 1401

What is the Long Range Cruise (LRC) mode used for?

Answer 1401

Optimizes fuel efficiency during flight ## Footnote LRC is crucial for long-distance flights to conserve fuel.

Question 1402

What does the cruise page title display when Long Range Cruise (LRC) is selected?

Answer 1402

Displays LRC D/D ## Footnote LRC indicates the Long Range Cruise mode selected for optimal fuel efficiency.

Question 1403

What is displayed on the cruise page when MCP speed is selected?

Answer 1403

Displays MCP SPD D/D ## Footnote MCP refers to the Mode Control Panel, which allows pilots to set the desired speed.

Question 1404

What does EO LRC CRZ indicate?

Answer 1404

Displays EO LRC CRZ when reaching engine out cruise altitude ## Footnote EO refers to Engine Out, indicating the operational mode when one engine is inoperative.

Question 1405

What is indicated when EO SPD is selected and the airplane is below the engine-out maximum altitude?

Answer 1405

Displays EO CRZ CLB or EO CRZ DES ## Footnote EO CRZ CLB indicates a climb, while EO CRZ DES indicates a descent in engine-out conditions.

Question 1406

What happens if a manual entry of an altitude is made above the maximum engine-out altitude?

Answer 1406

Results in the CDU help window message, 'MAX ALT FLXXX' ## Footnote CDU stands for Control Display Unit, which provides feedback on entered values.

Question 1407

What does the Engine Out Speed (EO SPD) display?

Answer 1407

Displays the target speed or Mach in magenta ## Footnote Magenta indicates a selected value, highlighting the importance for pilots.

Question 1408

What occurs when a speed is manually entered on the cruise page?

Answer 1408

Changes the line title to SEL SPD ## Footnote SEL SPD indicates the selected speed which overrides the default.

Question 1409

What does selecting Company Speed (CO SPD) do?

Answer 1409

Modifies the page with company speed, engine out data from the airline policy page ## Footnote CO SPD is tailored to the airline's operational policies.

Question 1410

What does ALL Engine (ENG) selection display?

Answer 1410

Displays a MOD XXX CRZ page with performance based on both engines operating ## Footnote This mode allows for two-engine economy VNAV modes to be selected.

Question 1411

What is the Long Range Cruise (LRC) mode used for?

Answer 1411

Optimizes fuel efficiency during flight ## Footnote LRC is crucial for long-distance flights to conserve fuel.

Question 1412

What are the two types of climbs VNAV can calculate during the cruise phase?

Answer 1412

Cruise climbs and step climbs ## Footnote These types of climbs can be entered by the flight crew, while optimum step climbs are calculated by the FMC.

Question 1413

What must be done before VNAV commands a climb?

Answer 1413

The new climb altitude must be selected in the MCP altitude window ## Footnote This is a prerequisite for initiating a climb.

Question 1414

What happens when the altitude selector is pushed after setting a higher altitude in the MCP?

Answer 1414

The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude and the airplane climbs to the new cruise altitude ## Footnote The reference thrust limit during this operation is CLB.

Question 1415

What does the VNAV page title display during a cruise climb?

Answer 1415

CRZ CLB ## Footnote This indicates the airplane is climbing to cruise altitude.

Question 1416

What does the VNAV page title display after level off at cruise altitude?

Answer 1416

ECON CRZ ## Footnote This indicates the end of the cruise climb phase.

Question 1417

How can a planned step climb be initiated?

Answer 1417

Data can be entered on the RTE LEGS page ## Footnote The FMC performance predictions assume the airplane will start the climb at the identified waypoint.

Question 1418

What information does the FMC display regarding a step climb?

Answer 1418

The distance and ETA to the step point on the PROGRESS page ## Footnote The corresponding altitude profile point and identifier is shown on the ND.

Question 1419

What advisory message displays if a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a planned step climb point?

Answer 1419

VNAV STEP CLIMB ## Footnote This occurs when the altitude difference is greater than 3,500 feet.

Question 1420

Fill in the blank: The reference thrust limit during a cruise climb is _______.

Answer 1420

CLB

Question 1421

What are the two types of climbs VNAV can calculate during the cruise phase?

Answer 1421

Cruise climbs and step climbs ## Footnote These types of climbs can be entered by the flight crew, while optimum step climbs are calculated by the FMC.

Question 1422

What must be done before VNAV commands a climb?

Answer 1422

The new climb altitude must be selected in the MCP altitude window ## Footnote This is a prerequisite for initiating a climb.

Question 1423

What happens when the altitude selector is pushed after setting a higher altitude in the MCP?

Answer 1423

The cruise altitude is set to the MCP altitude and the airplane climbs to the new cruise altitude ## Footnote The reference thrust limit during this operation is CLB.

Question 1424

What does the VNAV page title display during a cruise climb?

Answer 1424

CRZ CLB ## Footnote This indicates the airplane is climbing to cruise altitude.

Question 1425

What does the VNAV page title display after level off at cruise altitude?

Answer 1425

ECON CRZ ## Footnote This indicates the end of the cruise climb phase.

Question 1426

How can a planned step climb be initiated?

Answer 1426

Data can be entered on the RTE LEGS page ## Footnote The FMC performance predictions assume the airplane will start the climb at the identified waypoint.

Question 1427

What information does the FMC display regarding a step climb?

Answer 1427

The distance and ETA to the step point on the PROGRESS page ## Footnote The corresponding altitude profile point and identifier is shown on the ND.

Question 1428

What advisory message displays if a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a planned step climb point?

Answer 1428

VNAV STEP CLIMB ## Footnote This occurs when the altitude difference is greater than 3,500 feet.

Question 1429

Fill in the blank: The reference thrust limit during a cruise climb is _______.

Answer 1429

CLB

Question 1430

What is the purpose of entering the cruise altitude as an altitude constraint in the FMC?

Answer 1430

To initiate a planned step climb at the waypoint

Question 1431

What does the FMC calculate when a non-zero value is entered on the STEP SIZE line?

Answer 1431

Step climb points that minimize trip cost

Question 1432

What factors influence the calculation of step climb points in the FMC?

Answer 1432

* Lateral flight plan * Entered COST INDEX (for ECON and RTA speed modes only) * Entered forecast winds and temperatures * CRZ ALT * Gross weight * STEP SIZE

Question 1433

What is the maximum altitude at the step point in relation to the calculated STEP TO altitude?

Answer 1433

The calculated STEP TO altitude is less than or equal to the maximum altitude

Question 1434

What happens if a climb is not initiated within 5 minutes after passing a calculated step climb point?

Answer 1434

The EICAS advisory message VNAV STEP CLIMB displays

Question 1435

What is the altitude difference that triggers the VNAV STEP CLIMB message?

Answer 1435

Greater than 3,500 feet

Question 1436

Fill in the blank: The FMC assumes the step climb starts at the _______.

Answer 1436

waypoint

Question 1437

True or False: Multiple step climbs are possible based on performance and route length.

Answer 1437

True

Question 1438

What is the abbreviation for Flight Management, Navigation in the B787 documentation?

Answer 1438

FMC

Question 1439

What does the acronym EICAS stand for?

Answer 1439

Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System

Question 1440

What are the sources of information the FMC uses to calculate step climb points?

Answer 1440

* Lateral flight plan * Entered COST INDEX * Forecast winds and temperatures * CRZ ALT * Gross weight * STEP SIZE

Question 1441

What is the significance of the STEP SIZE line on the PERF INIT or CRZ page?

Answer 1441

It affects the calculation of step climb points

Question 1442

What is the purpose of STEP SIZE in the FMC?

Answer 1442

Used for calculation of optimum step point and step climb predictions ## Footnote Displays the default step climb size of ICAO. Valid entries are altitudes from 0 to 9000 in 1000 foot increments.

Question 1443

What happens when a '0' value is entered for STEP SIZE?

Answer 1443

Causes the FMC to compute ETA and fuel predictions for a constant cruise altitude ## Footnote Deletion of a manual entry defaults back to ICAO.

Question 1444

What does the line title TO STEP CLIMB indicate?

Answer 1444

The cruise climb start point is the next VNAV event ## Footnote Displays the ETA and DTG to the point where the step climb starts.

Question 1445

What replaces ETA and DTG if the airplane passes the step climb point without starting to climb?

Answer 1445

NOW ## Footnote If the FMC calculates a step climb is not advised, the ETA and DTG are replaced with the word NONE.

Question 1446

Under what conditions does the line title STEP TO display?

Answer 1446

When an active route exists, no pending activation or flight plan modification, and other specific conditions are met ## Footnote Conditions include being more than 200 mm from T/D, more than 500 nm from destination, and no engine-out driftdown active.

Question 1447

What does the FMC calculate performance based on?

Answer 1447

Accomplishing step climbs at calculated step climb points throughout the flight plan ## Footnote The FMC uses entered forecast winds and temperatures to evaluate step climbs.

Question 1448

What can be done to a calculated step climb altitude displayed in small font?

Answer 1448

It can be overwritten to evaluate another step climb ## Footnote The FMC calculates the step climb location using entered forecast winds and temperatures.

Question 1449

What is the purpose of STEP SIZE in the FMC?

Answer 1449

Used for calculation of optimum step point and step climb predictions ## Footnote Displays the default step climb size of ICAO. Valid entries are altitudes from 0 to 9000 in 1000 foot increments.

Question 1450

What happens when a '0' value is entered for STEP SIZE?

Answer 1450

Causes the FMC to compute ETA and fuel predictions for a constant cruise altitude ## Footnote Deletion of a manual entry defaults back to ICAO.

Question 1451

What does the line title TO STEP CLIMB indicate?

Answer 1451

The cruise climb start point is the next VNAV event ## Footnote Displays the ETA and DTG to the point where the step climb starts.

Question 1452

What replaces ETA and DTG if the airplane passes the step climb point without starting to climb?

Answer 1452

NOW ## Footnote If the FMC calculates a step climb is not advised, the ETA and DTG are replaced with the word NONE.

Question 1453

Under what conditions does the line title STEP TO display?

Answer 1453

When an active route exists, no pending activation or flight plan modification, and other specific conditions are met ## Footnote Conditions include being more than 200 mm from T/D, more than 500 nm from destination, and no engine-out driftdown active.

Question 1454

What does the FMC calculate performance based on?

Answer 1454

Accomplishing step climbs at calculated step climb points throughout the flight plan ## Footnote The FMC uses entered forecast winds and temperatures to evaluate step climbs.

Question 1455

What can be done to a calculated step climb altitude displayed in small font?

Answer 1455

It can be overwritten to evaluate another step climb ## Footnote The FMC calculates the step climb location using entered forecast winds and temperatures.

Question 1456

What happens when zero is entered for step size in the FMC?

Answer 1456

The FMC calculates performance data at the entered CRZ ALT with no step climbs.

Question 1457

What effect does preflight entry of a non-zero increment have on the FMC?

Answer 1457

It causes the FMC to calculate STEP TO altitudes correct for the direction of flight based on the entered CRZ ALT.

Question 1458

When inflight changes to CRZ ALT occur, what do they affect?

Answer 1458

They affect the calculation of STEP TO altitudes when using ICAO step size.

Question 1459

How is STEP TO altitude displayed on the LEGS page?

Answer 1459

By entering 'S' (following altitude) on a waypoint.

Question 1460

What is the next higher altitude when using a non-zero step size?

Answer 1460

The STEP TO altitude is calculated by adding the step size increment to the current CRZ ALT.

Question 1461

What message is displayed when entering an altitude above maximum altitude?

Answer 1461

The scratchpad message MAX ALT FLXXX.

Question 1462

Under what conditions will the scratchpad display be blank?

Answer 1462

When there is no active flight plan, within 200 NM of the T/D, within 500 NM of the destination airport with no planned steps, or engine out driftdown is active.

Question 1463

What does 'AT' indicate on the LEGS page?

Answer 1463

Displays when the altitude in 1R is not an entered step climb.

Question 1464

What information does 'AT XXXXXXX' provide?

Answer 1464

Displays the LEGS page step climb waypoint when the FMC calculates the step climb can occur within 5 NM of the step climb waypoint.

Question 1465

What does 'AVAIL AT' signify?

Answer 1465

Displays when a STEP TO the next step altitude cannot occur within 5 NM of the planned step waypoint due to thrust or buffet.

Question 1466

What is indicated by 'TO FLXXX'?

Answer 1466

Displays when the airplane is more than 200 NM from the T/D or more than 500 NM from the destination airport with engine out driftdown active.

Question 1467

Fill in the blank: Entering a non-zero increment or ICAO step size causes the FMC to calculate _______.

Answer 1467

STEP TO altitudes correct for the direction of flight based on the entered CRZ ALT.

Question 1468

True or False: The data line displays ETA and DTG to the climb point for all step climbs.

Answer 1468

True.

Question 1469

What happens when zero is entered for step size in the FMC?

Answer 1469

The FMC calculates performance data at the entered CRZ ALT with no step climbs.

Question 1470

What effect does preflight entry of a non-zero increment have on the FMC?

Answer 1470

It causes the FMC to calculate STEP TO altitudes correct for the direction of flight based on the entered CRZ ALT.

Question 1471

When inflight changes to CRZ ALT occur, what do they affect?

Answer 1471

They affect the calculation of STEP TO altitudes when using ICAO step size.

Question 1472

How is STEP TO altitude displayed on the LEGS page?

Answer 1472

By entering 'S' (following altitude) on a waypoint.

Question 1473

What is the next higher altitude when using a non-zero step size?

Answer 1473

The STEP TO altitude is calculated by adding the step size increment to the current CRZ ALT.

Question 1474

What message is displayed when entering an altitude above maximum altitude?

Answer 1474

The scratchpad message MAX ALT FLXXX.

Question 1475

Under what conditions will the scratchpad display be blank?

Answer 1475

When there is no active flight plan, within 200 NM of the T/D, within 500 NM of the destination airport with no planned steps, or engine out driftdown is active.

Question 1476

What does 'AT' indicate on the LEGS page?

Answer 1476

Displays when the altitude in 1R is not an entered step climb.

Question 1477

What information does 'AT XXXXXXX' provide?

Answer 1477

Displays the LEGS page step climb waypoint when the FMC calculates the step climb can occur within 5 NM of the step climb waypoint.

Question 1478

What does 'AVAIL AT' signify?

Answer 1478

Displays when a STEP TO the next step altitude cannot occur within 5 NM of the planned step waypoint due to thrust or buffet.

Question 1479

What is indicated by 'TO FLXXX'?

Answer 1479

Displays when the airplane is more than 200 NM from the T/D or more than 500 NM from the destination airport with engine out driftdown active.

Question 1480

Fill in the blank: Entering a non-zero increment or ICAO step size causes the FMC to calculate _______.

Answer 1480

STEP TO altitudes correct for the direction of flight based on the entered CRZ ALT.

Question 1481

True or False: The data line displays ETA and DTG to the climb point for all step climbs.

Answer 1481

True.

Question 1482

What does FCOM stand for in the context of the B787?

Answer 1482

Flight Crew Operations Manual ## Footnote FCOM provides operational information and procedures for flight crews.

Question 1483

What does QRH stand for?

Answer 1483

Quick Reference Handbook ## Footnote QRH is used for quick access to emergency procedures and checklists.

Question 1484

What does FAM refer to?

Answer 1484

Flight Attendant Manual ## Footnote FAM contains procedures and guidelines for flight attendants.

Question 1485

What does FCTM stand for?

Answer 1485

Flight Crew Training Manual ## Footnote FCTM includes training information and operational guidance for flight crews.

Question 1486

What is the purpose of the FMC Cruise mode?

Answer 1486

To maintain a constant speed between two waypoints during cruise ## Footnote The FMC controls speed after the end waypoint or top of descent.

Question 1487

What does VNAV stand for?

Answer 1487

Vertical Navigation ## Footnote VNAV allows for automated altitude management during flight.

Question 1488

What is a calculated step climb in aviation?

Answer 1488

A planned altitude increase during the cruise phase of flight ## Footnote This is executed based on fuel efficiency and air traffic control.

Question 1489

When does the T/D display activate on the B787?

Answer 1489

When within 200 NM of the T/D or within 500 NM of the destination airport ## Footnote T/D stands for Top of Descent.

Question 1490

Fill in the blank: A speed for a cruise segment can be specified, which has a _______ and an end waypoint.

Answer 1490

start waypoint

Question 1491

What are the two parameters displayed when the airplane is approaching the T/D?

Answer 1491

* ETA (Estimated Time of Arrival) * DTG (Distance to Go) ## Footnote These metrics help pilots manage descent and arrival.

Question 1492

True or False: The FMC controls the speed after the end waypoint during a cruise segment.

Answer 1492

True

Question 1493

What is the significance of the ECON mode in B787 flight management?

Answer 1493

It optimizes fuel efficiency during flight ## Footnote ECON mode adjusts speed and altitude for cost-effective operations.

Question 1494

What is the importance of modifications in the FMC?

Answer 1494

Modifications must be executed to change flight parameters ## Footnote This allows for adjustments based on flight conditions or operational needs.

Question 1495

What is the start waypoint for constant speed cruise on the B787?

Answer 1495

BTG at Mach 0.800 ## Footnote Entry for constant speed cruise begins at BTG.

Question 1496

What is the end waypoint for constant speed cruise on the B787?

Answer 1496

OAK ## Footnote Constant speed cruise ends at OAK unless otherwise specified.

Question 1497

What happens if an RTA waypoint exists at RBL or OAK during constant speed cruise?

Answer 1497

The RTA is deleted ## Footnote The presence of an RTA waypoint leads to its deletion when entering constant speed cruise.

Question 1498

What should be entered if no end waypoint is specified for constant speed cruise?

Answer 1498

Top of descent ## Footnote The constant speed cruise automatically terminates at top of descent if no end waypoint is indicated.

Question 1499

What does the FMC do if an RTA waypoint is entered?

Answer 1499

Selects the end waypoint ## Footnote The FMC selects the end waypoint to ensure timely arrival at the RTA waypoint.

Question 1500

What is displayed on the CRZ page during cruise descent?

Answer 1500

ACT ECON CRZ DES ## Footnote The CRZ page shows the active economy cruise descent indication.

Question 1501

What effect does setting an altitude below the current altitude in the MCP altitude window have?

Answer 1501

Causes the airplane to descend to the new altitude ## Footnote This occurs if the altitude change is initiated more than 50 NM from the top of descent.

Question 1502

What happens to speed transition or restriction altitudes during cruise descent?

Answer 1502

Those altitudes and speeds are deleted ## Footnote This occurs if the new altitude is below the SPD TRANS or SPD RESTR displayed on the DES page.

Question 1503

What does the autothrottle do during cruise descent?

Answer 1503

Sets a calculated thrust value for approximately 1250 feet per minute descent ## Footnote This allows for a controlled descent rate while maintaining commanded cruise speed.

Question 1504

Fill in the blank: The cruise phase during descent is displayed on the _______ page.

Answer 1504

VNAV ## Footnote The VNAV page indicates the cruise phase when descending to a new cruise altitude.

Question 1505

What does the VNAV page title display after level off at a new cruise altitude?

Answer 1505

Cruise phase ## Footnote VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation, which manages the vertical profile of the flight.

Question 1506

What is an early descent in the context of flight management?

Answer 1506

A descent started prior to the T/D (Top of Descent) ## Footnote The VNAV descent page becomes active during an early descent.

Question 1507

What activates the DES NOW function during cruise?

Answer 1507

Setting an altitude below the current altitude in the MCP altitude window and pushing the altitude selector when within 50 NM of the T/D or if the MCP altitude is below the highest descent altitude constraint in the VNAV descent profile ## Footnote MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.

Question 1508

What happens to the autothrottle during the DES NOW function?

Answer 1508

Sets thrust to maintain the target descent rate and then annunciates HOLD ## Footnote The pitch maintains the commanded speed during this process.

Question 1509

What is the function of the thrust levers during descent?

Answer 1509

To manually position and adjust the descent rate ## Footnote This allows pilots to have manual control over the descent parameters.

Question 1510

How can an early descent be accomplished using the MCP altitude?

Answer 1510

Set a lower MCP altitude, page forward to the VNAV DES page, and line select DES NOW, then execute ## Footnote This allows for planned descent management.

Question 1511

What does the DES NOW prompt indicate?

Answer 1511

It is shown when the descent phase is not active and the airplane is airborne ## Footnote Selecting the DES NOW prompt initiates a VNAV ECON descent.

Question 1512

What is the target descent rate during a VNAV ECON descent initiated by DES NOW?

Answer 1512

Approximately 1250 feet per minute at ECON speed ## Footnote ECON speed is the most economical speed for fuel efficiency.

Question 1513

What does VNAV command upon reaching the planned descent path?

Answer 1513

Commands pitch to capture the path and maintain ECON speed with idle thrust ## Footnote This is essential for efficient descent management.

Question 1514

What happens if the airplane approaches a constraint altitude before reaching the constraint waypoint?

Answer 1514

VNAV commands level off and changes to VNAV PTH until the planned descent path is intercepted ## Footnote VNAV PTH refers to Vertical Navigation Path mode.

Question 1515

What information does the reference navigation data page display?

Answer 1515

Data about waypoints, navaids, airports, and runways ## Footnote This page is crucial for ensuring accurate navigation and flight management.

Question 1516

What is the purpose of inhibiting FMC position updates from radio navaids?

Answer 1516

To maintain control over navigation data and ensure accuracy ## Footnote This can be useful in certain operational contexts.

Question 1517

What does the VNAV page title display after level off at a new cruise altitude?

Answer 1517

Cruise phase ## Footnote VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation, which manages the vertical profile of the flight.

Question 1518

What is an early descent in the context of flight management?

Answer 1518

A descent started prior to the T/D (Top of Descent) ## Footnote The VNAV descent page becomes active during an early descent.

Question 1519

What activates the DES NOW function during cruise?

Answer 1519

Setting an altitude below the current altitude in the MCP altitude window and pushing the altitude selector when within 50 NM of the T/D or if the MCP altitude is below the highest descent altitude constraint in the VNAV descent profile ## Footnote MCP stands for Mode Control Panel.

Question 1520

What happens to the autothrottle during the DES NOW function?

Answer 1520

Sets thrust to maintain the target descent rate and then annunciates HOLD ## Footnote The pitch maintains the commanded speed during this process.

Question 1521

What is the function of the thrust levers during descent?

Answer 1521

To manually position and adjust the descent rate ## Footnote This allows pilots to have manual control over the descent parameters.

Question 1522

How can an early descent be accomplished using the MCP altitude?

Answer 1522

Set a lower MCP altitude, page forward to the VNAV DES page, and line select DES NOW, then execute ## Footnote This allows for planned descent management.

Question 1523

What does the DES NOW prompt indicate?

Answer 1523

It is shown when the descent phase is not active and the airplane is airborne ## Footnote Selecting the DES NOW prompt initiates a VNAV ECON descent.

Question 1524

What is the target descent rate during a VNAV ECON descent initiated by DES NOW?

Answer 1524

Approximately 1250 feet per minute at ECON speed ## Footnote ECON speed is the most economical speed for fuel efficiency.

Question 1525

What does VNAV command upon reaching the planned descent path?

Answer 1525

Commands pitch to capture the path and maintain ECON speed with idle thrust ## Footnote This is essential for efficient descent management.

Question 1526

What happens if the airplane approaches a constraint altitude before reaching the constraint waypoint?

Answer 1526

VNAV commands level off and changes to VNAV PTH until the planned descent path is intercepted ## Footnote VNAV PTH refers to Vertical Navigation Path mode.

Question 1527

What information does the reference navigation data page display?

Answer 1527

Data about waypoints, navaids, airports, and runways ## Footnote This page is crucial for ensuring accurate navigation and flight management.

Question 1528

What is the purpose of inhibiting FMC position updates from radio navaids?

Answer 1528

To maintain control over navigation data and ensure accuracy ## Footnote This can be useful in certain operational contexts.

Question 1529

What does IDENT refer to in the B787 systems description?

Answer 1529

IDENT refers to Identification including Flight Management and Navigation systems.

Question 1530

What is displayed when a valid waypoint, navaid, airport, or runway is entered from the navigation database?

Answer 1530

The Navigation Data Page displays valid entries.

Question 1531

What happens to entry changes when the page is exited and then reselected?

Answer 1531

Entry changes turn to dashes.

Question 1532

What information does the LATITUDE display provide?

Answer 1532

Displays latitude of the entered identifier.

Question 1533

What does MAG VAR display when a navaid identifier is entered?

Answer 1533

Displays magnetic variation.

Question 1534

What does LENGTH display when a runway identifier is entered?

Answer 1534

Displays runway length.

Question 1535

What valid entries can be used for NAVAID INHIBIT?

Answer 1535

* VOR * VOR/DME * VORTAC * DME

Question 1536

What is the effect of using NAVAID INHIBIT?

Answer 1536

It inhibits the use of entered navaids for updating by the FMCs.

Question 1537

What happens to entries at flight completion for NAVAID INHIBIT?

Answer 1537

Entries are blanked.

Question 1538

What is the function of deleting or overwriting in NAVAID INHIBIT?

Answer 1538

Removes a previous inhibit.

Question 1539

What valid entries can be used for VOR ONLY INHIBIT?

Answer 1539

VOR identifiers from the navigation database.

Question 1540

What is inhibited by VOR ONLY INHIBIT?

Answer 1540

Inhibits only the VOR portion of the entered navaid for updating.

Question 1541

What happens to entries at flight completion for VOR ONLY INHIBIT?

Answer 1541

Entries are blanked.

Question 1542

What is displayed when VOR/DME NAV is selected OFF?

Answer 1542

ALL is displayed.

Question 1543

What does the INDEX function do?

Answer 1543

Selects and displays the INIT/REF INDEX page.

Question 1544

What does FREQ display when a valid navaid identifier is entered?

Answer 1544

Displays frequency of the entered identifier.

Question 1545

Fill in the blank: Valid entries for NAVAID INHIBIT are _______.

Answer 1545

VOR, VOR/DME, VORTAC, or DME identifiers.

Question 1546

What does FMC stand for in the context of flight management?

Answer 1546

Flight Management Computer ## Footnote The FMC is a key component in modern aircraft that automates various in-flight tasks.

Question 1547

What information does the Frequency (FREQ) display when an identifier is entered?

Answer 1547

Displays frequency of entered identifier when it is a navaid ## Footnote Navaids are navigational aids used in aviation.

Question 1548

What does the LONGITUDE display when an identifier is entered?

Answer 1548

Displays longitude of entered identifier ## Footnote Longitude is a geographic coordinate that specifies the east-west position of a point on the Earth's surface.

Question 1549

What does the ELEVATION display when an identifier is a navaid, airport, or runway?

Answer 1549

Displays elevation of entered identifier ## Footnote Elevation is the height above a specific reference point, usually sea level.

Question 1550

How many identical FIX INFORMATION pages are used to create waypoint fixes?

Answer 1550

Four ## Footnote These pages facilitate the creation and management of waypoints for navigation.

Question 1551

What happens when the ERASE FIX prompt is selected?

Answer 1551

The FIX INFORMATION page can be cleared ## Footnote This function allows for the removal of existing waypoints or fixes.

Question 1552

What is the significance of Magnetic/True Bearing in navigation?

Answer 1552

Depends on airplane location ## Footnote The bearing indicates the direction to a waypoint relative to magnetic or true north.

Question 1553

Fill in the blank: The fix information page can be cleared by selecting the _______ prompt.

Answer 1553

ERASE FIX ## Footnote This prompt is used to remove specific fix information from the display.

Question 1554

What is indicated by the BRG / DIS format in the FIX section?

Answer 1554

Bearing and distance to the fix ## Footnote This information is crucial for navigation and route planning.

Question 1555

True or False: The DTG value represents the distance to the fix.

Answer 1555

True ## Footnote DTG stands for Distance To Go, indicating how far the aircraft is from the waypoint.

Question 1556

What does the ALT value indicate in the FIX information?

Answer 1556

Altitude ## Footnote This represents the height of the aircraft above a specific reference point.

Question 1557

What does FCOM stand for in the context of B787?

Answer 1557

Flight Crew Operating Manual ## Footnote FCOM provides detailed information about the aircraft's systems and operating procedures.

Question 1558

What is the purpose of the QRH in the B787?

Answer 1558

Quick Reference Handbook ## Footnote QRH is used for emergency procedures and checklists.

Question 1559

What types of valid entries can be made in the Fix Information Page?

Answer 1559

* Airports * Navaids * Place bearing distance * Place bearing/place bearing * Along-track * Latitude/longitude * Waypoints from the navigation database ## Footnote These entries help in navigation and route planning.

Question 1560

How is a selected fix indicated on the Navigation Display (ND)?

Answer 1560

Highlighted by a green circle ## Footnote This visual cue helps pilots quickly identify the selected fix.

Question 1561

What is the format for distance only entries on the Fix Information Page?

Answer 1561

Must start with a slash (/) ## Footnote This format allows for distances up to 5400 NM.

Question 1562

What information is displayed when the circle from the fix intersects the active route?

Answer 1562

* ETA * DTG * Predicted altitude ## Footnote This information is crucial for flight navigation and planning.

Question 1563

What does ETA stand for and what does it display?

Answer 1563

Estimated Time of Arrival; displays time to the intersection point ## Footnote ETA is vital for flight timing and coordination.

Question 1564

Fill in the blank: The __________ displays the distance to go to the intersection point.

Answer 1564

DTG ## Footnote DTG stands for Distance To Go.

Question 1565

What does ALT represent on the navigation display?

Answer 1565

Predicted altitude at the intersection point ## Footnote This information aids in altitude management during flight.

Question 1566

What function does the 'Select' command perform concerning a fix?

Answer 1566

Copies the fix place/bearing/distance into the scratchpad ## Footnote This allows for easy insertion into the flight plan.

Question 1567

What is displayed when a bearing and distance from the fix are entered?

Answer 1567

A waypoint fix point on the ND ## Footnote This helps in visualizing navigation paths.

Question 1568

What does the ABEAM prompt indicate?

Answer 1568

The entered fix exists in the navigation database and an active route exists ## Footnote This helps ensure that the flight path is correctly aligned with navigational aids.

Question 1569

What does the 'ERASE FIX' command do?

Answer 1569

Removes the selected fix from the navigation system ## Footnote This function is important for managing waypoints during flight.

Question 1570

What does the Fix Information Page allow the user to do?

Answer 1570

Select a line select key for one of the BRG/DIS entries to copy the fix place/bearing/distance definition into the scratchpad ## Footnote This fix can be placed into the route on a LEGS page as a waypoint.

Question 1571

What is displayed by the Bearing/Distance From (BRG/DIS FR)?

Answer 1571

The bearing and distance of the airplane from the fix.

Question 1572

What types of valid entries can be made for Predicted Distance to ETA or Altitude (PRED ETA-ALT)?

Answer 1572

Altitude, flight level, or time ## Footnote Time entry must be followed by 'Z'.

Question 1573

What happens when an altitude or flight level is entered in PRED ETA-ALT?

Answer 1573

Displays the predicted along-track distance and altitude or flight level on this line.

Question 1574

How is the predicted airplane position represented on the ND route line when entering an altitude or flight level?

Answer 1574

As a green circle with the entered altitude/flight level.

Question 1575

What does entering a time in PRED ETA-ALT display?

Answer 1575

The predicted along-track distance and time.

Question 1576

How is the predicted airplane position represented on the ND route line when entering a time?

Answer 1576

As a green circle with the entered ETA.

Question 1577

What information does the Route Data Page display?

Answer 1577

Data for each waypoint on the ACT RTE X LEGS page, including ETA and calculated fuel remaining ## Footnote Manual entry is not possible.

Question 1578

What is the purpose of the WIND page in the Route Data Page?

Answer 1578

Allows access to wind data for the active route.

Question 1579

Is the Route Data Page available for inactive routes?

Answer 1579

No, it is available only for the active route.

Question 1580

What does the Fix Information Page allow the user to do?

Answer 1580

Select a line select key for one of the BRG/DIS entries to copy the fix place/bearing/distance definition into the scratchpad ## Footnote This fix can be placed into the route on a LEGS page as a waypoint.

Question 1581

What is displayed by the Bearing/Distance From (BRG/DIS FR)?

Answer 1581

The bearing and distance of the airplane from the fix.

Question 1582

What types of valid entries can be made for Predicted Distance to ETA or Altitude (PRED ETA-ALT)?

Answer 1582

Altitude, flight level, or time ## Footnote Time entry must be followed by 'Z'.

Question 1583

What happens when an altitude or flight level is entered in PRED ETA-ALT?

Answer 1583

Displays the predicted along-track distance and altitude or flight level on this line.

Question 1584

How is the predicted airplane position represented on the ND route line when entering an altitude or flight level?

Answer 1584

As a green circle with the entered altitude/flight level.

Question 1585

What does entering a time in PRED ETA-ALT display?

Answer 1585

The predicted along-track distance and time.

Question 1586

How is the predicted airplane position represented on the ND route line when entering a time?

Answer 1586

As a green circle with the entered ETA.

Question 1587

What information does the Route Data Page display?

Answer 1587

Data for each waypoint on the ACT RTE X LEGS page, including ETA and calculated fuel remaining ## Footnote Manual entry is not possible.

Question 1588

What is the purpose of the WIND page in the Route Data Page?

Answer 1588

Allows access to wind data for the active route.

Question 1589

Is the Route Data Page available for inactive routes?

Answer 1589

No, it is available only for the active route.

Question 1590

What does the FMC use for performance predictions far ahead of the airplane?

Answer 1590

Entered winds ## Footnote The FMC combines entered wind data with sensed wind data for performance predictions based on distance from the aircraft.

Question 1591

What happens to the accuracy of the recommended altitude displayed on the cruise page when forecast wind and temperature information is inaccurate?

Answer 1591

It degrades ## Footnote Inaccurate forecast data negatively impacts the FMC's altitude recommendations.

Question 1592

What factors can cause fluctuations in the FMC calculated ECON climb speed?

Answer 1592

Top of climb near a waypoint with a large track change and significant wind velocity ## Footnote Fluctuations do not occur with manually entered climb speeds.

Question 1593

What is the purpose of the Wind Page in the FMC?

Answer 1593

To enter forecast winds and temperatures at waypoints for VNAV performance ## Footnote The Wind Page allows for data entry at up to four altitudes.

Question 1594

How is the outside air temperature (OAT) entered on the Wind Page?

Answer 1594

For any one altitude ## Footnote The FMC calculates temperature for entered altitudes using the standard lapse rate.

Question 1595

In what order are altitudes displayed on the Wind Page after entry?

Answer 1595

Ascending order ## Footnote Altitudes can be entered in any order but will be sorted automatically.

Question 1596

Fill in the blank: The FMC mixes entered winds with _______ for predictions in between.

Answer 1596

Sensed winds ## Footnote Sensed winds are used for predictions close to the airplane.

Question 1597

True or False: The wind speed and direction are entered for specific altitudes on the Wind Page.

Answer 1597

True ## Footnote Data entry includes wind speed and direction for each specified altitude.

Question 1598

What is the significance of the 45-degree track change in relation to FMC calculations?

Answer 1598

It can cause fluctuations in ECON climb speed ## Footnote Significant track changes near waypoints influence climb speed calculations.

Question 1599

What is the function of the ETA shown in the data?

Answer 1599

Estimated Time of Arrival ## Footnote ETA provides information on the expected arrival time at a waypoint.

Question 1600

What does RTA stand for in aviation?

Answer 1600

Required Time Of Arrival ## Footnote RTA is used to manage arrival times at specific fixes.

Question 1601

What is the valid entry time range for RTA?

Answer 1601

0000.00 to 2359.59 ## Footnote Entry of seconds is optional.

Question 1602

What does a suffix of 'A' indicate when used with RTA?

Answer 1602

Arrive at or after entered time ## Footnote Suffixes modify the conditions for arriving at the RTA fix.

Question 1603

What happens when RTA is deleted?

Answer 1603

Terminates RTA and returns ECON as the command speed ## Footnote ECON refers to the economic speed setting for flight.

Question 1604

What does DTG stand for?

Answer 1604

Distance To Go ## Footnote DTG shows the remaining distance to the destination.

Question 1605

What does ETA stand for?

Answer 1605

Estimated Time Of Arrival ## Footnote ETA calculates the expected arrival time at a specified fix.

Question 1606

What does the display show after entering a FIX in 1L?

Answer 1606

Calculated altitude and ETA at RTA fix ## Footnote This information helps pilots understand their flight status.

Question 1607

What is indicated when the display shows 'ON TIME'?

Answer 1607

The airplane will arrive at the RTA fix time ## Footnote This indicates that the flight is on schedule.

Question 1608

What is displayed when no takeoff time has been entered and the current time is later than the calculated time?

Answer 1608

NOW in the data line ## Footnote This alerts pilots that they have missed the calculated takeoff time.

Question 1609

What does the display show for Recommended Takeoff (RECMD T/O) until a FIX is entered?

Answer 1609

T/O in line title and dashes ## Footnote This indicates that the takeoff time is not yet determined.

Question 1610

What is the purpose of manual entry in the flight management system?

Answer 1610

Recalculates all flight plan time predictions ## Footnote This allows for adjustments based on real-time changes.

Question 1611

True or False: The time error display shows 'EADTV MM-CC' when the ETA is earlier than the DTA fix time.

Answer 1611

True ## Footnote This indicates a timing discrepancy that needs addressing.

Question 1612

What does the RNP Progress Page display?

Answer 1612

Leg segment data including arcs, courses, heading leg segments, special procedural instructions, and track leg segments ## Footnote RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance, which is a specification for aircraft navigation accuracy.

Question 1613

What is indicated by the leg segment data for arcs?

Answer 1613

Distance in miles, ARC, turn direction (example: 24 ARC L) ## Footnote The turn direction indicates whether the turn is to the left (L) or right (R).

Question 1614

How are courses displayed on the RNP Progress Page?

Answer 1614

As magnetic (xxx°) or true (xxx° T) ## Footnote Magnetic courses are based on the Earth's magnetic field, while true courses are based on geographic north.

Question 1615

What does 'xxx° HDG' signify in the leg segment data?

Answer 1615

Heading leg segments ## Footnote HDG stands for heading, indicating the direction the aircraft should fly.

Question 1616

What are the special procedural instructions that may appear on the RNP Progress Page?

Answer 1616

HOLD AT, PROC TURN, or PROC HOLD ## Footnote These instructions guide pilots on specific procedures to follow during flight.

Question 1617

What does 'xxx° TRK' represent in the leg segment data?

Answer 1617

Track leg segments ## Footnote TRK stands for track, indicating the actual path the aircraft is following over the ground.

Question 1618

What does the display show when the calculated great circle route leg directions differ from chart values?

Answer 1618

Dashes for an undefined course ## Footnote This indicates that the system cannot determine a valid course based on the data available.

Question 1619

What is the purpose of the Waypoint Identifier on the RNP Progress Page?

Answer 1619

Displays the next waypoint ## Footnote Waypoints are fixed locations used for navigation.

Question 1620

How are Required Navigation Performance (RNP) and Actual Navigation Performance displayed?

Answer 1620

Same as 5L POS REF 2/4, with manual entry in large font ## Footnote This indicates both the required and actual performance metrics for navigation.

Question 1621

What does the Crosstrack Error (XTK ERROR) display indicate?

Answer 1621

Present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course ## Footnote LNAV stands for lateral navigation, which helps maintain the aircraft's path.

Question 1622

What does an XTK ERROR of 'L' or 'R' signify?

Answer 1622

Indicates left or right of course ## Footnote This shows the direction the aircraft is off from its intended path.

Question 1623

What happens when the crosstrack error exceeds 99.99 NM?

Answer 1623

Displays as 99.99 NM ## Footnote This is the maximum error displayed, indicating a significant deviation from the intended course.

Question 1624

What does the Lateral RNP display show during an approach?

Answer 1624

The lowest applicable RNP for the selected approach ## Footnote This helps pilots ensure they meet the required navigation performance for safe landings.

Question 1625

Is manual entry allowed at 6L on the RNP Progress Page?

Answer 1625

No, entry not allowed ## Footnote This restriction is in place to prevent incorrect data entry during critical phases of flight.

Question 1626

How is the RNP displayed if not available from the navigation database?

Answer 1626

Displays the default RNP for the approach flight phase from the FMC ## Footnote FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, which is used for flight planning and navigation.

Question 1627

How is the Distance To Go displayed?

Answer 1627

As a numerical value indicating the remaining distance to the destination ## Footnote This is crucial for pilots to manage fuel and time effectively.

Question 1628

What does the RNP Progress Page display?

Answer 1628

Leg segment data including arcs, courses, heading leg segments, special procedural instructions, and track leg segments ## Footnote RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance, which is a specification for aircraft navigation accuracy.

Question 1629

What is indicated by the leg segment data for arcs?

Answer 1629

Distance in miles, ARC, turn direction (example: 24 ARC L) ## Footnote The turn direction indicates whether the turn is to the left (L) or right (R).

Question 1630

How are courses displayed on the RNP Progress Page?

Answer 1630

As magnetic (xxx°) or true (xxx° T) ## Footnote Magnetic courses are based on the Earth's magnetic field, while true courses are based on geographic north.

Question 1631

What does 'xxx° HDG' signify in the leg segment data?

Answer 1631

Heading leg segments ## Footnote HDG stands for heading, indicating the direction the aircraft should fly.

Question 1632

What are the special procedural instructions that may appear on the RNP Progress Page?

Answer 1632

HOLD AT, PROC TURN, or PROC HOLD ## Footnote These instructions guide pilots on specific procedures to follow during flight.

Question 1633

What does 'xxx° TRK' represent in the leg segment data?

Answer 1633

Track leg segments ## Footnote TRK stands for track, indicating the actual path the aircraft is following over the ground.

Question 1634

What does the display show when the calculated great circle route leg directions differ from chart values?

Answer 1634

Dashes for an undefined course ## Footnote This indicates that the system cannot determine a valid course based on the data available.

Question 1635

What is the purpose of the Waypoint Identifier on the RNP Progress Page?

Answer 1635

Displays the next waypoint ## Footnote Waypoints are fixed locations used for navigation.

Question 1636

How are Required Navigation Performance (RNP) and Actual Navigation Performance displayed?

Answer 1636

Same as 5L POS REF 2/4, with manual entry in large font ## Footnote This indicates both the required and actual performance metrics for navigation.

Question 1637

What does the Crosstrack Error (XTK ERROR) display indicate?

Answer 1637

Present crosstrack error from the desired LNAV course ## Footnote LNAV stands for lateral navigation, which helps maintain the aircraft's path.

Question 1638

What does an XTK ERROR of 'L' or 'R' signify?

Answer 1638

Indicates left or right of course ## Footnote This shows the direction the aircraft is off from its intended path.

Question 1639

What happens when the crosstrack error exceeds 99.99 NM?

Answer 1639

Displays as 99.99 NM ## Footnote This is the maximum error displayed, indicating a significant deviation from the intended course.

Question 1640

What does the Lateral RNP display show during an approach?

Answer 1640

The lowest applicable RNP for the selected approach ## Footnote This helps pilots ensure they meet the required navigation performance for safe landings.

Question 1641

Is manual entry allowed at 6L on the RNP Progress Page?

Answer 1641

No, entry not allowed ## Footnote This restriction is in place to prevent incorrect data entry during critical phases of flight.

Question 1642

How is the RNP displayed if not available from the navigation database?

Answer 1642

Displays the default RNP for the approach flight phase from the FMC ## Footnote FMC stands for Flight Management Computer, which is used for flight planning and navigation.

Question 1643

How is the Distance To Go displayed?

Answer 1643

As a numerical value indicating the remaining distance to the destination ## Footnote This is crucial for pilots to manage fuel and time effectively.

Question 1644

What does the RNP Progress Page display?

Answer 1644

The distance remaining from airplane present position to the next waypoint, regardless of cross-track error. ## Footnote RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.

Question 1645

What is displayed on the Glidepath in the FMC?

Answer 1645

The FMC computed glidepath for the approach. ## Footnote Glidepath is crucial for maintaining the correct descent angle during an approach.

Question 1646

How are waypoint speed or altitude constraints displayed?

Answer 1646

In large font for constraints and in small font for FMC predicted value when no restrictions are specified. ## Footnote This helps pilots quickly identify restrictions.

Question 1647

What does the Vertical Navigation Performance display?

Answer 1647

Both vertical RNP and ANP for the current leg. ## Footnote ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance.

Question 1648

What is the valid display range for vertical ANP?

Answer 1648

0 to 999 feet. ## Footnote This range indicates the accuracy of the vertical navigation.

Question 1649

What are the valid manual entry values for vertical navigation?

Answer 1649

10 to 999 feet, with an optional suffix '/'. ## Footnote Manual entries are important for adjusting navigation parameters.

Question 1650

What does the Vertical Track Error (VTK ERROR) indicate?

Answer 1650

The present vertical error from the FMC computed glidepath. ## Footnote This helps in assessing the aircraft's vertical position relative to the desired glidepath.

Question 1651

What does the Vertical RNP (Approach) display?

Answer 1651

The lowest applicable vertical RNP for the approach. ## Footnote This is essential for determining the minimum navigation performance required for the approach.

Question 1652

How are manual entries for vertical RNP displayed?

Answer 1652

In large font. ## Footnote This distinction helps pilots recognize their inputs easily.

Question 1653

What is the format for displaying values from the navigation database?

Answer 1653

In small font. ## Footnote This helps differentiate between pilot entries and system-generated values.

Question 1654

What does the RNP Progress Page display?

Answer 1654

The distance remaining from airplane present position to the next waypoint, regardless of cross-track error. ## Footnote RNP stands for Required Navigation Performance.

Question 1655

What is displayed on the Glidepath in the FMC?

Answer 1655

The FMC computed glidepath for the approach. ## Footnote Glidepath is crucial for maintaining the correct descent angle during an approach.

Question 1656

How are waypoint speed or altitude constraints displayed?

Answer 1656

In large font for constraints and in small font for FMC predicted value when no restrictions are specified. ## Footnote This helps pilots quickly identify restrictions.

Question 1657

What does the Vertical Navigation Performance display?

Answer 1657

Both vertical RNP and ANP for the current leg. ## Footnote ANP stands for Actual Navigation Performance.

Question 1658

What is the valid display range for vertical ANP?

Answer 1658

0 to 999 feet. ## Footnote This range indicates the accuracy of the vertical navigation.

Question 1659

What are the valid manual entry values for vertical navigation?

Answer 1659

10 to 999 feet, with an optional suffix '/'. ## Footnote Manual entries are important for adjusting navigation parameters.

Question 1660

What does the Vertical Track Error (VTK ERROR) indicate?

Answer 1660

The present vertical error from the FMC computed glidepath. ## Footnote This helps in assessing the aircraft's vertical position relative to the desired glidepath.

Question 1661

What does the Vertical RNP (Approach) display?

Answer 1661

The lowest applicable vertical RNP for the approach. ## Footnote This is essential for determining the minimum navigation performance required for the approach.

Question 1662

How are manual entries for vertical RNP displayed?

Answer 1662

In large font. ## Footnote This distinction helps pilots recognize their inputs easily.

Question 1663

What is the format for displaying values from the navigation database?

Answer 1663

In small font. ## Footnote This helps differentiate between pilot entries and system-generated values.

Question 1664

What is the starting point of the descent phase?

Answer 1664

The top of descent point. ## Footnote The descent phase continues to the end of descent point.

Question 1665

When does the approach phase start?

Answer 1665

When the airplane is in the descent phase and flaps are out of up. ## Footnote The approach starts no later than sequencing the final approach fix.

Question 1666

When can alternates be selected or updated during a flight?

Answer 1666

From preflight through the approach phase of flight. ## Footnote Diversion to an alternate can be accomplished during all phases of flight.

Question 1667

What is the only automatic page change in the descent/approach phases?

Answer 1667

VNAV selected page change from cruise to descent at the top of descent. ## Footnote Refer to Early Descent for additional information.

Question 1668

Which pages are used to manage LNAV and VNAV during descent?

Answer 1668

RTE LEGS and PROGRESS pages for LNAV; DES page for VNAV. ## Footnote This follows the same management as in the cruise phase.

Question 1669

What is the purpose of the DESCENT FORECAST page?

Answer 1669

To enter forecast wind data to aid descent planning.

Question 1670

What does the OFFPATH DES page analyze?

Answer 1670

Descent performance with and without the use of speedbrakes.

Question 1671

What does the ALTN page manage?

Answer 1671

The selection of alternate airports and diversions.

Question 1672

What happens if an unplanned level-off is required?

Answer 1672

Setting the altitude window to the required altitude causes the airplane to level at that altitude. ## Footnote VNAV PTH changes to VNAV ALT.

Question 1673

What does the descent page monitor?

Answer 1673

The descent path and allows for revision of descent speeds. ## Footnote Descent speeds can be economy (ECON) or fixed speed (SEL).

Question 1674

What is the default VNAV descent mode?

Answer 1674

ECON mode. ## Footnote A fixed speed descent is flown when speed intervention is used.

Question 1675

What occurs when the descent page is blank?

Answer 1675

The title reads DES until an altitude constraint below the cruise altitude is entered.

Question 1676

What does the ECON mode control during descent?

Answer 1676

Descent speed at the economy speed until reaching a lower speed restriction.

Question 1677

What does the fixed speed mode control during descent?

Answer 1677

Descent speed at the fixed speed until a lower speed restriction is reached.

Question 1678

What does E/D AT stand for?

Answer 1678

End Of Descent At ## Footnote Refers to the point in the descent phase with the lowest altitude constraint.

Question 1679

What is displayed on the Descent Page regarding E/D?

Answer 1679

The end of descent altitude and waypoint ## Footnote Displays in magenta when altitude becomes the FMC altitude target.

Question 1680

What happens if no E/D point exists?

Answer 1680

The page is blank

Question 1681

What does ECON SPD represent?

Answer 1681

Economy speed based on cost index ## Footnote Displays CAS and Mach values.

Question 1682

What does SEL SPD indicate?

Answer 1682

Selected Speed ## Footnote Displays when flight crew enters speed and shows constraint speed on transition into a selected speed segment.

Question 1683

What are valid entries for SEL SPD?

Answer 1683

* CAS * Mach

Question 1684

What does RTA SPD represent?

Answer 1684

Displays when an RTA is active

Question 1685

When is the FMC commanded speed displayed in magenta?

Answer 1685

When it is the FMC speed target

Question 1686

What is the typical transition speed (SPD TRANS) relative to the destination airport limiting speed?

Answer 1686

Usually 10 knots less than the limiting speed

Question 1687

What default speed displays when no airport limit speed exists?

Answer 1687

240 knots

Question 1688

What is the default transition altitude if no altitude exists in the navigation database?

Answer 1688

10,000 feet

Question 1689

What does it mean when speed displays in magenta?

Answer 1689

It is the FMC speed target

Question 1690

What happens when speed is deleted under SPD TRANS altitude?

Answer 1690

The airplane flies economy or selected speed if not limited by a waypoint constraint or speed restriction.

Question 1691

What does SPD RESTR stand for?

Answer 1691

Speed Restriction ## Footnote Refers to speed restrictions at altitudes higher than E/D altitude not associated with specific waypoints.

Question 1692

How are speed restrictions entered in the FMC?

Answer 1692

Manually entered as CAS and altitude (example: 240/8000) ## Footnote CAS stands for Calibrated Airspeed.

Question 1693

What indicates a FMC command speed?

Answer 1693

Speed and altitude displayed in magenta ## Footnote Magenta indicates target values set by the FMC.

Question 1694

What does OFFPATH DES represent?

Answer 1694

Off Path Descent ## Footnote It allows the display of the OFFPATH DES page in the FMC.

Question 1695

What information does AT XXXXX provide?

Answer 1695

Next waypoint constraint from the RTE LEGS page ## Footnote XXXXX can include waypoint identifier, HOLD AT, AT VECTORS, or AT (INTC).

Question 1696

What happens when there is no constraint in the OFFPATH DES page?

Answer 1696

It is displayed as blank ## Footnote Indicates no speed/altitude constraint exists.

Question 1697

What does VNAV command?

Answer 1697

Lesser of constraint speed or present performance speed ## Footnote VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.

Question 1698

What does WPT/ALT display?

Answer 1698

Reference vertical bearing waypoint identifier and altitude ## Footnote Displays pilot entered data if available.

Question 1699

What does the descent page display when no pilot entry is made?

Answer 1699

Defaults to the next descent waypoint constraint ## Footnote The constraint is displayed in 1R.

Question 1700

What is displayed for window altitude constraints when the airplane is above the upper altitude?

Answer 1700

Upper altitude is displayed ## Footnote If below, the lower altitude is shown.

Question 1701

What do dashes indicate in the descent portion of the flight plan?

Answer 1701

No constraint exists ## Footnote Used to signify the absence of constraints.

Question 1702

What does SPD RESTR stand for?

Answer 1702

Speed Restriction ## Footnote Refers to speed restrictions at altitudes higher than E/D altitude not associated with specific waypoints.

Question 1703

How are speed restrictions entered in the FMC?

Answer 1703

Manually entered as CAS and altitude (example: 240/8000) ## Footnote CAS stands for Calibrated Airspeed.

Question 1704

What indicates a FMC command speed?

Answer 1704

Speed and altitude displayed in magenta ## Footnote Magenta indicates target values set by the FMC.

Question 1705

What does OFFPATH DES represent?

Answer 1705

Off Path Descent ## Footnote It allows the display of the OFFPATH DES page in the FMC.

Question 1706

What information does AT XXXXX provide?

Answer 1706

Next waypoint constraint from the RTE LEGS page ## Footnote XXXXX can include waypoint identifier, HOLD AT, AT VECTORS, or AT (INTC).

Question 1707

What happens when there is no constraint in the OFFPATH DES page?

Answer 1707

It is displayed as blank ## Footnote Indicates no speed/altitude constraint exists.

Question 1708

What does VNAV command?

Answer 1708

Lesser of constraint speed or present performance speed ## Footnote VNAV stands for Vertical Navigation.

Question 1709

What does WPT/ALT display?

Answer 1709

Reference vertical bearing waypoint identifier and altitude ## Footnote Displays pilot entered data if available.

Question 1710

What does the descent page display when no pilot entry is made?

Answer 1710

Defaults to the next descent waypoint constraint ## Footnote The constraint is displayed in 1R.

Question 1711

What is displayed for window altitude constraints when the airplane is above the upper altitude?

Answer 1711

Upper altitude is displayed ## Footnote If below, the lower altitude is shown.

Question 1712

What do dashes indicate in the descent portion of the flight plan?

Answer 1712

No constraint exists ## Footnote Used to signify the absence of constraints.

Question 1713

What does the FPA display in the descent page?

Answer 1713

The current flight path angle of the airplane ## Footnote Display is blank for FPA greater than positive 0.05°

Question 1714

What does V/B represent in the descent page?

Answer 1714

The calculated vertical bearing required to achieve the waypoint altitude displayed at line select key 3R

Question 1715

What information does V/S provide in the descent page?

Answer 1715

The vertical speed required to achieve the waypoint altitude displayed at line select key 3R

Question 1716

When is the display blank in the descent page?

Answer 1716

If no waypoint/altitude combination is displayed at line select key 3R or if the airplane is below the altitude displayed at line select key 3R

Question 1717

What does selecting 'Forecast' display?

Answer 1717

The DESCENT FORECAST page

Question 1718

What happens when 'Descent Direct (DES DIR)' is selected?

Answer 1718

Deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude

Question 1719

What does 'Descent Now (DES NOW)' do?

Answer 1719

Activates the FMC descent phase and starts a 1250 feet per minute descent schedule until intercepting the planned descent path

Question 1720

When does 'Descent Now (DES NOW)' display?

Answer 1720

When the descent phase is not active and the airplane is airborne

Question 1721

What is activated when selecting RTA?

Answer 1721

RTA speed ## Footnote Displays ECON prompt when RTA waypoint has been entered and ECON is the active descent speed

Question 1722

What does the acronym RTA stand for?

Answer 1722

Required Time Of Arrival

Question 1723

Fill in the blank: The _______ is displayed when an RTA waypoint has been entered and ECON is the active descent speed.

Answer 1723

ECON prompt

Question 1724

What does the FPA display in the descent page?

Answer 1724

The current flight path angle of the airplane ## Footnote Display is blank for FPA greater than positive 0.05°

Question 1725

What does V/B represent in the descent page?

Answer 1725

The calculated vertical bearing required to achieve the waypoint altitude displayed at line select key 3R

Question 1726

What information does V/S provide in the descent page?

Answer 1726

The vertical speed required to achieve the waypoint altitude displayed at line select key 3R

Question 1727

When is the display blank in the descent page?

Answer 1727

If no waypoint/altitude combination is displayed at line select key 3R or if the airplane is below the altitude displayed at line select key 3R

Question 1728

What does selecting 'Forecast' display?

Answer 1728

The DESCENT FORECAST page

Question 1729

What happens when 'Descent Direct (DES DIR)' is selected?

Answer 1729

Deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude

Question 1730

What does 'Descent Now (DES NOW)' do?

Answer 1730

Activates the FMC descent phase and starts a 1250 feet per minute descent schedule until intercepting the planned descent path

Question 1731

When does 'Descent Now (DES NOW)' display?

Answer 1731

When the descent phase is not active and the airplane is airborne

Question 1732

What is activated when selecting RTA?

Answer 1732

RTA speed ## Footnote Displays ECON prompt when RTA waypoint has been entered and ECON is the active descent speed

Question 1733

What does the acronym RTA stand for?

Answer 1733

Required Time Of Arrival

Question 1734

Fill in the blank: The _______ is displayed when an RTA waypoint has been entered and ECON is the active descent speed.

Answer 1734

ECON prompt

Question 1735

What is the purpose of the DES TO waypoint?

Answer 1735

The waypoint for a direct-to descent, usually the E/D waypoint from the active route.

Question 1736

What happens when within 150 feet of the DES TO altitude for a waypoint other than the E/D waypoint?

Answer 1736

The display automatically changes the DES TO waypoint to the E/D waypoint from the DES page.

Question 1737

What does DTG stand for?

Answer 1737

Distance To Go.

Question 1738

What does the DTG display indicate?

Answer 1738

The distance from the airplane's present position to the entered waypoint, regardless of cross-track error.

Question 1739

What is shown under Speed/Altitude (SPD/ALT)?

Answer 1739

Displays the speed/altitude constraint for the entered waypoint.

Question 1740

What does 'TO CLEAN' indicate?

Answer 1740

Distance to the clean descent circle; negative when a clean descent is no longer possible.

Question 1741

What assumption does a clean circle make regarding drag devices?

Answer 1741

Assumes no drag devices are used for descent.

Question 1742

What does 'TO DRAG' indicate?

Answer 1742

Distance to the drag descent circle; negative when a drag descent is no longer possible.

Question 1743

What assumption does a drag circle make regarding speedbrakes?

Answer 1743

Assumes speedbrakes are UP for descent.

Question 1744

When is a direct descent to the DES TO waypoint at a SPD/ALT constraint possible?

Answer 1744

When the airplane is outside the clean or drag circle.

Question 1745

What does the DISPLAY prompt do when set to ON?

Answer 1745

Displays the clean and drag circles on the ND.

Question 1746

What condition is required for the drag circle to display?

Answer 1746

The airplane position must be inside the clean circle.

Question 1747

What does selecting ON in the Offpath Descent Page do?

Answer 1747

Displays the clean and drag circles on the ND ## Footnote The drag circle does not display until the airplane position is inside the clean circle.

Question 1748

What happens when the Offpath Descent Page is set to OFF?

Answer 1748

Removes the clean and drag circles from the ND.

Question 1749

What font indicates the selected state in the Offpath Descent Page?

Answer 1749

Large green font.

Question 1750

How does the Offpath Descent Page change automatically?

Answer 1750

Changes to OFF within 150 feet of the waypoint constraint altitude.

Question 1751

Are there specific engine out pages for descent?

Answer 1751

No, use the two engine descent planning features and pages.

Question 1752

What happens to roll and pitch modes during approach?

Answer 1752

They usually change to the approach guidance supplied by navigation radios.

Question 1753

What does the FMC continue to calculate during approach?

Answer 1753

Present position.

Question 1754

What are the pages used to manage the airplane until other approach guidance becomes active?

Answer 1754

* RTE LEGS * PROGRESS

Question 1755

What page is used to select arrival and approach procedures?

Answer 1755

ARRIVALS page.

Question 1756

What does the APPROACH REF page specify?

Answer 1756

Approach flap settings and set the approach VREF.

Question 1757

What is the purpose of the HOLD page?

Answer 1757

To manage holding patterns.

Question 1758

When can the arrivals page be accessed for the destination airport?

Answer 1758

More than 400 NM from the departure airport or more than halfway along the active route.

Question 1759

What does the INDEX key access?

Answer 1759

DEP/ARR INDEX.

Question 1760

What does the arrivals page allow selection of?

Answer 1760

* Runway * Approach * Approach transition * Standard terminal arrival route (STAR) * Profile descent * Arrival transition

Question 1761

What naming convention has ICAO developed for multiple RNAV/ILS approaches?

Answer 1761

Adds an additional character to the approach name: Z, Y, X.

Question 1762

How is the primary approach identified in ICAO's naming convention?

Answer 1762

As the 'Z' approach.

Question 1763

What is the maximum number of characters for approach names encoded in the navigation database?

Answer 1763

Up to eight characters.

Question 1764

What does VFR APPR stand for?

Answer 1764

Visual Flight Rules Approach ## Footnote VFR APPR is a procedure that allows pilots to approach and land visually under VFR conditions.

Question 1765

What is the function of the FMC during a VFR Approach?

Answer 1765

Selects a transition waypoint, FAXXX at 8 NM and 2000 feet above the runway ## Footnote This creates a descent constraint 50 feet above the runway threshold.

Question 1766

What does LNAV and VNAV guidance provide during a VFR Approach?

Answer 1766

Guidance to the runway ## Footnote VNAV programs arrival at the Final Approach Fix (FAF) at 170 knots.

Question 1767

What is the default Flight Path Angle (FPA) for a VFR Approach?

Answer 1767

3.0° ## Footnote Valid entries for FPA range from 2.4° to 3.7°.

Question 1768

What happens when RWY EXT is selected after VER APPR?

Answer 1768

Displays RWY EXT 8.0 NM; RWY EXT cannot be modified ## Footnote This indicates a fixed distance from the runway.

Question 1769

What are the valid entries for Runway Extension (RWY EXT)?

Answer 1769

1.0 to 25.0 miles from the runway threshold ## Footnote Entry is allowed if VFR APPR is not selected, removing the VFR APPR prompt.

Question 1770

Fill in the blank: The VFR Approach displays a descent constraint of _______ feet above the runway threshold.

Answer 1770

50 ## Footnote This is crucial for maintaining a safe altitude during the approach.

Question 1771

What does the waypoint RXYYY represent in the context of VFR Approaches?

Answer 1771

A waypoint where YYY is the runway ## Footnote For example, RX32R indicates a specific runway.

Question 1772

True or False: The Flight Path Angle (FPA) only displays after VFR APPR is selected.

Answer 1772

True ## Footnote The FPA is an important parameter for managing descent.

Question 1773

What is the purpose of the VFR Approach in the navigation database?

Answer 1773

To provide navigation guidance for the selected runway ## Footnote It aids pilots in visual approaches under specified conditions.

Question 1774

What does the term 'route discontinuity' refer to in VFR Approaches?

Answer 1774

A break in the flight route before and after the waypoint ## Footnote This can affect the flight path and navigation.

Question 1775

What does VFR APPR stand for?

Answer 1775

Visual Flight Rules Approach ## Footnote VFR APPR is a procedure that allows pilots to approach and land visually under VFR conditions.

Question 1776

What is the function of the FMC during a VFR Approach?

Answer 1776

Selects a transition waypoint, FAXXX at 8 NM and 2000 feet above the runway ## Footnote This creates a descent constraint 50 feet above the runway threshold.

Question 1777

What does LNAV and VNAV guidance provide during a VFR Approach?

Answer 1777

Guidance to the runway ## Footnote VNAV programs arrival at the Final Approach Fix (FAF) at 170 knots.

Question 1778

What is the default Flight Path Angle (FPA) for a VFR Approach?

Answer 1778

3.0° ## Footnote Valid entries for FPA range from 2.4° to 3.7°.

Question 1779

What happens when RWY EXT is selected after VER APPR?

Answer 1779

Displays RWY EXT 8.0 NM; RWY EXT cannot be modified ## Footnote This indicates a fixed distance from the runway.

Question 1780

What are the valid entries for Runway Extension (RWY EXT)?

Answer 1780

1.0 to 25.0 miles from the runway threshold ## Footnote Entry is allowed if VFR APPR is not selected, removing the VFR APPR prompt.

Question 1781

Fill in the blank: The VFR Approach displays a descent constraint of _______ feet above the runway threshold.

Answer 1781

50 ## Footnote This is crucial for maintaining a safe altitude during the approach.

Question 1782

What does the waypoint RXYYY represent in the context of VFR Approaches?

Answer 1782

A waypoint where YYY is the runway ## Footnote For example, RX32R indicates a specific runway.

Question 1783

True or False: The Flight Path Angle (FPA) only displays after VFR APPR is selected.

Answer 1783

True ## Footnote The FPA is an important parameter for managing descent.

Question 1784

What is the purpose of the VFR Approach in the navigation database?

Answer 1784

To provide navigation guidance for the selected runway ## Footnote It aids pilots in visual approaches under specified conditions.

Question 1785

What does the term 'route discontinuity' refer to in VFR Approaches?

Answer 1785

A break in the flight route before and after the waypoint ## Footnote This can affect the flight path and navigation.

Question 1786

What is the purpose of the Gross Weight (GROSS WT) display in the FMC?

Answer 1786

Displays FMC calculated airplane gross weight, allows manual entry if unavailable or invalid ## Footnote Permanent changes to gross weight result in recalculation of all performance data and may only be made on the PERF INIT page.

Question 1787

How does manual entry of gross weight affect the FMC?

Answer 1787

Manually entered gross weight becomes FMC calculated gross weight upon reselecting a different page ## Footnote This allows previewing recommended approach speeds at other than the calculated FMC gross weight.

Question 1788

What are the selectable options for Landing Reference (LANDING REF)?

Answer 1788

Selectable between QNH and QFE ## Footnote QNH is usually the operating mode.

Question 1789

What happens to the cabin pressurization schedule when QFE is selected?

Answer 1789

It sets the cabin pressurization schedule and destination landing altitude indication to zero altitude ## Footnote Changing the barometric setting from STD to QFE changes the PFD altitude tape background color to green.

Question 1790

What does changing the barometric setting from QFE to STD do when QFE is selected?

Answer 1790

Toggles landing reference from QFE to QNH and removes the green background color ## Footnote This occurs when the climb phase is active.

Question 1791

How is the runway reference displayed in relation to the route progress?

Answer 1791

Changes based on route progress; destination runway is referenced when more than halfway to destination or more than 400 NM from origin ## Footnote The origin airport runway is referenced when less than halfway or less than 400 NM from origin.

Question 1792

What information is displayed regarding runway length?

Answer 1792

Displays length of the referenced runway in feet and meters ## Footnote Length changes following a change of destination or execution of a DIVERT.

Question 1793

What does the Glideslope (G/S) toggle do?

Answer 1793

Toggles glideslope ON and OFF ## Footnote Defaults to ON (green) for ILS or IGS approaches and OFF (green) for LOC, SDF, LDA, or B/CRS approaches.

Question 1794

True or False: The Glideslope defaults to OFF when an ILS approach is in the active route.

Answer 1794

False ## Footnote It defaults to ON (green) when an ILS or IGS approach is in the active route.

Question 1795

Fill in the blank: The displayed runway reference changes based on _______.

Answer 1795

route progress

Question 1796

What is the purpose of the Gross Weight (GROSS WT) display in the FMC?

Answer 1796

Displays FMC calculated airplane gross weight, allows manual entry if unavailable or invalid ## Footnote Permanent changes to gross weight result in recalculation of all performance data and may only be made on the PERF INIT page.

Question 1797

How does manual entry of gross weight affect the FMC?

Answer 1797

Manually entered gross weight becomes FMC calculated gross weight upon reselecting a different page ## Footnote This allows previewing recommended approach speeds at other than the calculated FMC gross weight.

Question 1798

What are the selectable options for Landing Reference (LANDING REF)?

Answer 1798

Selectable between QNH and QFE ## Footnote QNH is usually the operating mode.

Question 1799

What happens to the cabin pressurization schedule when QFE is selected?

Answer 1799

It sets the cabin pressurization schedule and destination landing altitude indication to zero altitude ## Footnote Changing the barometric setting from STD to QFE changes the PFD altitude tape background color to green.

Question 1800

What does changing the barometric setting from QFE to STD do when QFE is selected?

Answer 1800

Toggles landing reference from QFE to QNH and removes the green background color ## Footnote This occurs when the climb phase is active.

Question 1801

How is the runway reference displayed in relation to the route progress?

Answer 1801

Changes based on route progress; destination runway is referenced when more than halfway to destination or more than 400 NM from origin ## Footnote The origin airport runway is referenced when less than halfway or less than 400 NM from origin.

Question 1802

What information is displayed regarding runway length?

Answer 1802

Displays length of the referenced runway in feet and meters ## Footnote Length changes following a change of destination or execution of a DIVERT.

Question 1803

What does the Glideslope (G/S) toggle do?

Answer 1803

Toggles glideslope ON and OFF ## Footnote Defaults to ON (green) for ILS or IGS approaches and OFF (green) for LOC, SDF, LDA, or B/CRS approaches.

Question 1804

True or False: The Glideslope defaults to OFF when an ILS approach is in the active route.

Answer 1804

False ## Footnote It defaults to ON (green) when an ILS or IGS approach is in the active route.

Question 1805

Fill in the blank: The displayed runway reference changes based on _______.

Answer 1805

route progress

Question 1806

What is the purpose of the INIT/REF INDEX page?

Answer 1806

Displays various initialization and reference settings ## Footnote This page is used to access important performance data for flight management.

Question 1807

What three VREF speeds are based on?

Answer 1807

Landing flap setting ## Footnote VREF speeds are calculated for flaps at 20°, 25°, and 30°.

Question 1808

What must be entered to display VREF speed on the PFD?

Answer 1808

A valid gross weight ## Footnote The display remains blank until a gross weight is entered on the PERF INIT page.

Question 1809

What does the WIND CORR function display?

Answer 1809

Wind correction to be applied to approach speed ## Footnote The default value for wind correction is 5 KTs.

Question 1810

What is the valid entry range for wind correction speed?

Answer 1810

0 to 20 KTs ## Footnote Entries outside this range are not accepted.

Question 1811

What does the THRUST LIM page display?

Answer 1811

Thrust limit settings ## Footnote This page is used to manage engine thrust limitations.

Question 1812

What information does the ALTN page 1/2 provide?

Answer 1812

Data for finding suitable alternate airports ## Footnote It displays four airports in an ETA sequence for diversion purposes.

Question 1813

How many alternate airport uplinks can be received?

Answer 1813

Three ## Footnote This includes uplinks for either the entire ALTN page or just the ALTN INHIB line.

Question 1814

Fill in the blank: The flap position and VREF speed is entered for _______.

Answer 1814

[landing] ## Footnote This data is essential for accurate approach and landing procedures.

Question 1815

What happens to VREF display if the data is deleted?

Answer 1815

VREF is removed from the PFD ## Footnote This indicates the importance of maintaining accurate data for displays.

Question 1816

What does the term 'ALTN LIST page 2/2' refer to?

Answer 1816

A list of uplinked alternate airports ## Footnote This page may contain additional alternate airport options for the crew.

Question 1817

What is the purpose of the INIT/REF INDEX page?

Answer 1817

Displays various initialization and reference settings ## Footnote This page is used to access important performance data for flight management.

Question 1818

What three VREF speeds are based on?

Answer 1818

Landing flap setting ## Footnote VREF speeds are calculated for flaps at 20°, 25°, and 30°.

Question 1819

What must be entered to display VREF speed on the PFD?

Answer 1819

A valid gross weight ## Footnote The display remains blank until a gross weight is entered on the PERF INIT page.

Question 1820

What does the WIND CORR function display?

Answer 1820

Wind correction to be applied to approach speed ## Footnote The default value for wind correction is 5 KTs.

Question 1821

What is the valid entry range for wind correction speed?

Answer 1821

0 to 20 KTs ## Footnote Entries outside this range are not accepted.

Question 1822

What does the THRUST LIM page display?

Answer 1822

Thrust limit settings ## Footnote This page is used to manage engine thrust limitations.

Question 1823

What information does the ALTN page 1/2 provide?

Answer 1823

Data for finding suitable alternate airports ## Footnote It displays four airports in an ETA sequence for diversion purposes.

Question 1824

How many alternate airport uplinks can be received?

Answer 1824

Three ## Footnote This includes uplinks for either the entire ALTN page or just the ALTN INHIB line.

Question 1825

Fill in the blank: The flap position and VREF speed is entered for _______.

Answer 1825

[landing] ## Footnote This data is essential for accurate approach and landing procedures.

Question 1826

What happens to VREF display if the data is deleted?

Answer 1826

VREF is removed from the PFD ## Footnote This indicates the importance of maintaining accurate data for displays.

Question 1827

What does the term 'ALTN LIST page 2/2' refer to?

Answer 1827

A list of uplinked alternate airports ## Footnote This page may contain additional alternate airport options for the crew.

Question 1828

What is the purpose of the alternate airport page?

Answer 1828

To display alternate airport data and allow selection to change the flight plan destination.

Question 1829

What are the sources from which alternate airports can be selected?

Answer 1829

* An uplink directly to this page * Automatic selection from the ALTN LIST page * Automatic selection from the navigation database * Manual entry

Question 1830

How are automatically selected alternate airports displayed?

Answer 1830

In small font.

Question 1831

What color indicates alternate airports on the navigation display when within range?

Answer 1831

Cyan.

Question 1832

How is an alternate airport identified on the navigation display?

Answer 1832

With the letter A inside the airport symbol.

Question 1833

In which modes are all four alternates shown on the ALTN page displayed?

Answer 1833

In plan mode or in map mode with APRT selected.

Question 1834

What happens to alternate airports that are out of map range when the 1280 mile map range is selected?

Answer 1834

They are displayed as directional arrows with the ICAO identifier and distance in NM.

Question 1835

Fill in the blank: Alternate airports automatically selected from the alternate list or the navigation database display in _______.

Answer 1835

[small font]

Question 1836

What is the purpose of the alternate airport page?

Answer 1836

To display alternate airport data and allow selection to change the flight plan destination.

Question 1837

What are the sources from which alternate airports can be selected?

Answer 1837

* An uplink directly to this page * Automatic selection from the ALTN LIST page * Automatic selection from the navigation database * Manual entry

Question 1838

How are automatically selected alternate airports displayed?

Answer 1838

In small font.

Question 1839

What color indicates alternate airports on the navigation display when within range?

Answer 1839

Cyan.

Question 1840

How is an alternate airport identified on the navigation display?

Answer 1840

With the letter A inside the airport symbol.

Question 1841

In which modes are all four alternates shown on the ALTN page displayed?

Answer 1841

In plan mode or in map mode with APRT selected.

Question 1842

What happens to alternate airports that are out of map range when the 1280 mile map range is selected?

Answer 1842

They are displayed as directional arrows with the ICAO identifier and distance in NM.

Question 1843

Fill in the blank: Alternate airports automatically selected from the alternate list or the navigation database display in _______.

Answer 1843

[small font]

Question 1844

What does the Alternate Airports page display when airborne?

Answer 1844

The identifier of the four alternate airports in ETA order

Question 1845

What does the Alternate Airports page display when on the ground?

Answer 1845

The identifier of the four alternate airports in distance order

Question 1846

What is a valid manual entry for alternate airports?

Answer 1846

An airport from the navigation database

Question 1847

What happens when a manual entry is made into a field displaying a small font value?

Answer 1847

It overwrites the small font value but does not delete it from the Alternates Candidates list

Question 1848

What is the function of the DELETE key on the ALTN page?

Answer 1848

To remove manually entered alternate airports

Question 1849

What does the Alternate Request (ALTN REQUEST) function do?

Answer 1849

Transmits a datalink request for a preferred list of alternates (up to four)

Question 1850

What is displayed when alternate airport data arrives?

Answer 1850

The CDU help window message ALTN UPLINK

Question 1851

What does ETA stand for in the context of alternate airports?

Answer 1851

Estimated Time of Arrival

Question 1852

When is the ETA displayed as blank?

Answer 1852

When the airplane is on the ground

Question 1853

What is predicted arrival fuel calculated based on?

Answer 1853

Routing, altitude, and speed displayed on the XXXX ALTN page

Question 1854

What message is displayed if predicted arrival fuel is less than zero?

Answer 1854

UNABLE FUEL

Question 1855

Fill in the blank: A manual entry into a field displaying a large font value _______.

Answer 1855

overwrites the large font value

Question 1856

What indicates a selected alternate airport in the FMC?

Answer 1856

or to the right of the airport identifier

Question 1857

How does the FMC select the alternate airport?

Answer 1857

With the earliest ETA

Question 1858

What does a manually selected alternate airport display?

Answer 1858

to the right of the airport identifier

Question 1859

What happens when you enter a new airport into the list of four alternates?

Answer 1859

It does not select the new airport

Question 1860

How can you remove a manually selected alternate airport?

Answer 1860

Use the DELETE function key

Question 1861

What does the SELECT function do in the context of alternate airports?

Answer 1861

Displays the XXXX ALTN page for the alternate airport

Question 1862

What is an Alternate Inhibit (ALTN INHIBIT)?

Answer 1862

An airport that is not one of the four alternate airports

Question 1863

How many airports can be entered into the alternate inhibit line?

Answer 1863

One or two airports

Question 1864

What type of entries are valid for alternate inhibits?

Answer 1864

Airports from the navigation database

Question 1865

What is displayed when an airport is uplinked separately for alternate inhibits?

Answer 1865

ALTN INHIBIT UPLINK message

Question 1866

What does selecting DIVERT NOW do?

Answer 1866

Displays the route from the present position to the selected alternate

Question 1867

What changes when the diversion is executed?

Answer 1867

* Changes the route destination airport * Includes the route modification into the active flight plan

Question 1868

Fill in the blank: The selected alternate identifier displays in the line title of the _______ prompt.

Answer 1868

DIVERT NOW

Question 1869

True or False: A manual selection of an alternate airport is made by selecting the line select key left of the airport identifier.

Answer 1869

True

Question 1870

What indicates a selected alternate airport in the FMC?

Answer 1870

or to the right of the airport identifier

Question 1871

How does the FMC select the alternate airport?

Answer 1871

With the earliest ETA

Question 1872

What does a manually selected alternate airport display?

Answer 1872

to the right of the airport identifier

Question 1873

What happens when you enter a new airport into the list of four alternates?

Answer 1873

It does not select the new airport

Question 1874

How can you remove a manually selected alternate airport?

Answer 1874

Use the DELETE function key

Question 1875

What does the SELECT function do in the context of alternate airports?

Answer 1875

Displays the XXXX ALTN page for the alternate airport

Question 1876

What is an Alternate Inhibit (ALTN INHIBIT)?

Answer 1876

An airport that is not one of the four alternate airports

Question 1877

How many airports can be entered into the alternate inhibit line?

Answer 1877

One or two airports

Question 1878

What type of entries are valid for alternate inhibits?

Answer 1878

Airports from the navigation database

Question 1879

What is displayed when an airport is uplinked separately for alternate inhibits?

Answer 1879

ALTN INHIBIT UPLINK message

Question 1880

What does selecting DIVERT NOW do?

Answer 1880

Displays the route from the present position to the selected alternate

Question 1881

What changes when the diversion is executed?

Answer 1881

* Changes the route destination airport * Includes the route modification into the active flight plan

Question 1882

Fill in the blank: The selected alternate identifier displays in the line title of the _______ prompt.

Answer 1882

DIVERT NOW

Question 1883

True or False: A manual selection of an alternate airport is made by selecting the line select key left of the airport identifier.

Answer 1883

True

Question 1884

What is the function of selecting DIVERT NOW?

Answer 1884

Displays the route from the present position to the selected alternate ## Footnote The route is based on the information displayed on the ALTN page for the diversion airport.

Question 1885

What happens when a diversion is executed?

Answer 1885

Changes the route destination airport, includes route modification in the active flight plan, deletes original route parts not part of the diversion, deletes all descent constraints. ## Footnote The CDU help window message 'DESCENT PATH DELETED' is shown when DIVERT NOW is selected.

Question 1886

What does selecting the 'Select' option do during a diversion?

Answer 1886

Makes an LNAV route modification, displays MOD ALTN page for the selected alternate, shows SELECTED with DIVERT XXXX in the line title, blank on ground, blank in the air when diversion is not permitted. ## Footnote LNAV stands for Lateral Navigation.

Question 1887

What information does the second alternate page provide?

Answer 1887

Displays a list of previously uplinked alternate airports. ## Footnote Alternates on the ALTN 1/2 page are either selected from this list or from the navigation database.

Question 1888

Fill in the blank: Selecting DIVERT NOW deletes all parts of the original route that are not part of the _______.

Answer 1888

[diversion]

Question 1889

True or False: After executing a diversion, the ALTN page is updated immediately.

Answer 1889

False ## Footnote The ALTN page is not updated until all CDU displays are selected off of the ALTN page.

Question 1890

What is indicated when the message 'DESCENT PATH DELETED' appears?

Answer 1890

A descent path exists and has been deleted due to the selection of DIVERT NOW.

Question 1891

What does FMC stand for in aviation?

Answer 1891

Flight Management Computer

Question 1892

What are the three types of holding pattern entries determined by the airplane track?

Answer 1892

* Direct * Teardrop * Parallel

Question 1893

In LNAV, what bank angle does the AFDS use to track the holding pattern?

Answer 1893

Up to a 30 degree bank angle

Question 1894

What may cause the airplane to fly outside the protected airspace during a holding pattern?

Answer 1894

Strong winds or airspeed in excess of FAA or ICAO entry speeds

Question 1895

What determines the entry method used for holding patterns?

Answer 1895

Airplane track, not heading or direction

Question 1896

How does the airplane fly the initial outbound leg in a holding pattern?

Answer 1896

A computed distance from the holding fix

Question 1897

What is the offset angle used for teardrop entries?

Answer 1897

40 degree offset angle

Question 1898

What does the hold page display when the flight plan does not contain a holding pattern?

Answer 1898

RTE X LEGS page with the HOLD AT line

Question 1899

What are the two versions of the hold page?

Answer 1899

* Airway or procedure holding pattern * Flight crew-entered holding pattern

Question 1900

What color are active holding patterns displayed on the ND?

Answer 1900

Magenta

Question 1901

The pattern size for holding is limited to what?

Answer 1901

FAA or ICAO protected airspace

Question 1902

True or False: The holding entry path displays on the ND.

Answer 1902

True

Question 1903

Fill in the blank: To make efficient use of the holding airspace, lateral guidance may direct the initial turn to the holding pattern prior to crossing the holding fix, known as _______.

Answer 1903

fly-by

Question 1904

What happens to the flight path for a direct entry to the holding fix?

Answer 1904

It may extend slightly beyond the displayed outbound holding turn

Question 1905

What is required for the airplane to remain within the prescribed holding airspace?

Answer 1905

The airplane must be at holding airspeed at the holding fix

Question 1906

What is the function of the HOLD function key?

Answer 1906

Displays the RTE X LEGS page with the HOLD AT line

Question 1907

How does the FMC compute holding patterns?

Answer 1907

With constant radius turns based on current wind and FMC commanded airspeed

Question 1908

What does the HOLD AT function display?

Answer 1908

Boxes to enter the holding fix: a RTE LEGS, database, or pilot-defined waypoint; a navaid or airport identifier; or a FAF already in the flight plan.

Question 1909

What happens when a holding fix is entered?

Answer 1909

Displays the RTE X HOLD page.

Question 1910

What does HOLD AT Present Position (PPOS) do?

Answer 1910

Creates a holding pattern at present position and establishes the holding fix at the position when EXEC is selected.

Question 1911

What is displayed when a holding fix is established?

Answer 1911

Displays the holding fix.

Question 1912

What is the normal display for Quadrant/Radial (QUAD/RADIAL)?

Answer 1912

Normally displays dashes.

Question 1913

What is a valid entry for Quadrant/Radial (QUAD/RADIAL)?

Answer 1913

X/XXX, XX/XXX, or /XXX. Example: NW/330.

Question 1914

What does the Inbound Course/Direction (INBD CRS/DIR) display?

Answer 1914

Displays inbound course and turn direction.

Question 1915

What is a valid entry for Inbound Course/Direction (INBD CRS/DIR)?

Answer 1915

XXX (inbound course), XXX/X (inbound course/turn direction), /X or X (turn direction).

Question 1916

What happens to the display when the holding fix is the active waypoint?

Answer 1916

Displays in magenta.

Question 1917

What does the Leg Time (LEG TIME) display at or below 14,000 feet?

Answer 1917

Displays 1.0 MIN.

Question 1918

What does the Leg Time (LEG TIME) display above 14,000 feet?

Answer 1918

Displays 1.5 MIN.

Question 1919

What does the HOLD AT function display?

Answer 1919

Boxes to enter the holding fix: a RTE LEGS, database, or pilot-defined waypoint; a navaid or airport identifier; or a FAF already in the flight plan.

Question 1920

What happens when a holding fix is entered?

Answer 1920

Displays the RTE X HOLD page.

Question 1921

What does HOLD AT Present Position (PPOS) do?

Answer 1921

Creates a holding pattern at present position and establishes the holding fix at the position when EXEC is selected.

Question 1922

What is displayed when a holding fix is established?

Answer 1922

Displays the holding fix.

Question 1923

What is the normal display for Quadrant/Radial (QUAD/RADIAL)?

Answer 1923

Normally displays dashes.

Question 1924

What is a valid entry for Quadrant/Radial (QUAD/RADIAL)?

Answer 1924

X/XXX, XX/XXX, or /XXX. Example: NW/330.

Question 1925

What does the Inbound Course/Direction (INBD CRS/DIR) display?

Answer 1925

Displays inbound course and turn direction.

Question 1926

What is a valid entry for Inbound Course/Direction (INBD CRS/DIR)?

Answer 1926

XXX (inbound course), XXX/X (inbound course/turn direction), /X or X (turn direction).

Question 1927

What happens to the display when the holding fix is the active waypoint?

Answer 1927

Displays in magenta.

Question 1928

What does the Leg Time (LEG TIME) display at or below 14,000 feet?

Answer 1928

Displays 1.0 MIN.

Question 1929

What does the Leg Time (LEG TIME) display above 14,000 feet?

Answer 1929

Displays 1.5 MIN.

Question 1930

What is the display time for LEG TIME at or below 14,000 feet?

Answer 1930

1.0 MIN ## Footnote Displays 1.5 MIN above 14,000 feet.

Question 1931

What does the LEG DIST normally display?

Answer 1931

Dashes ## Footnote Allows entry of leg distance for hold.

Question 1932

What are valid entries for LEG DIST?

Answer 1932

X, XX, X.X, or XX.X ## Footnote Where X is any integer.

Question 1933

What happens when the ERASE function is used?

Answer 1933

Erases all FMC modifications ## Footnote This resets any changes made in the Flight Management Computer.

Question 1934

What is displayed for SPD/TGT ALT when there is a fix speed/altitude constraint?

Answer 1934

Dashes ## Footnote Manual entries are displayed in large font.

Question 1935

What occurs when a target altitude lower than CRZ ALT is entered during cruise?

Answer 1935

Modifies the DESCENT page and displays a T/D ## Footnote The DESCENT page remains active unless a new cruise altitude is entered.

Question 1936

What must be entered in IR when descending to a HOLD with VNAV active?

Answer 1936

The clearance altitude ## Footnote This prevents the airplane from leveling when sequencing the holding fix.

Question 1937

What is the display for LEG TIME when an entry is made on the LEG DIST line?

Answer 1937

Displays dashes ## Footnote Indicates that a valid entry is required.

Question 1938

Fill in the blank: A valid entry for LEG TIME is _______.

Answer 1938

X, X.X, or .X

Question 1939

True or False: The FMC adjusts the leg time to 1.5 MIN when climbing or descending above 14,000 feet.

Answer 1939

True

Question 1940

What is the purpose of the DIY ETA function?

Answer 1940

Not specified in the provided text ## Footnote Further details would be needed to answer this question.

Question 1941

What is the display time for LEG TIME at or below 14,000 feet?

Answer 1941

1.0 MIN ## Footnote Displays 1.5 MIN above 14,000 feet.

Question 1942

What does the LEG DIST normally display?

Answer 1942

Dashes ## Footnote Allows entry of leg distance for hold.

Question 1943

What are valid entries for LEG DIST?

Answer 1943

X, XX, X.X, or XX.X ## Footnote Where X is any integer.

Question 1944

What happens when the ERASE function is used?

Answer 1944

Erases all FMC modifications ## Footnote This resets any changes made in the Flight Management Computer.

Question 1945

What is displayed for SPD/TGT ALT when there is a fix speed/altitude constraint?

Answer 1945

Dashes ## Footnote Manual entries are displayed in large font.

Question 1946

What occurs when a target altitude lower than CRZ ALT is entered during cruise?

Answer 1946

Modifies the DESCENT page and displays a T/D ## Footnote The DESCENT page remains active unless a new cruise altitude is entered.

Question 1947

What must be entered in IR when descending to a HOLD with VNAV active?

Answer 1947

The clearance altitude ## Footnote This prevents the airplane from leveling when sequencing the holding fix.

Question 1948

What is the display for LEG TIME when an entry is made on the LEG DIST line?

Answer 1948

Displays dashes ## Footnote Indicates that a valid entry is required.

Question 1949

Fill in the blank: A valid entry for LEG TIME is _______.

Answer 1949

X, X.X, or .X

Question 1950

True or False: The FMC adjusts the leg time to 1.5 MIN when climbing or descending above 14,000 feet.

Answer 1950

True

Question 1951

What is the purpose of the DIY ETA function?

Answer 1951

Not specified in the provided text ## Footnote Further details would be needed to answer this question.

Question 1952

What does FIX ETA display when there is no EFC TIME entry?

Answer 1952

Displays time the airplane will next pass the holding fix ## Footnote EFC TIME refers to the Expect Further Clearance Time

Question 1953

What does FIX ETA display when there is an EFC TIME entry?

Answer 1953

Displays time the airplane will pass the holding fix after the EFC time ## Footnote The FMC uses this time for calculating downtrack ETAs and fuel values

Question 1954

What is the valid entry format for Expect Further Clearance Time (EFC TIME)?

Answer 1954

XXXX (time) ## Footnote Normally displays dashes when no entry is made

Question 1955

What does Hold Available (HOLD AVAIL) indicate?

Answer 1955

Displays holding time available before requiring reserve fuel to reach the destination

Question 1956

What is displayed under BEST SPEED?

Answer 1956

Displays the best holding speed for the airplane gross weight, altitude, and flap setting ## Footnote May exceed ICAO limit speed

Question 1957

How can the HOLD page for existing holds be accessed?

Answer 1957

Select the HOLD key to display the hold page for the first holding pattern

Question 1958

What happens when the hold is the next LNAV event?

Answer 1958

Active commands display in magenta

Question 1959

How can new holding patterns be added?

Answer 1959

Using the NEXT HOLD prompt

Question 1960

What are the two ways to execute an exit from holding?

Answer 1960

1. Deleting or bypassing the HOLD AT waypoint on the ACT RTE LEGS page 2. Selecting and executing EXIT HOLD> on the ACT RTE HOLD page

Question 1961

What happens after executing the exit hold?

Answer 1961

Only the remaining portion of the holding pattern back to the holding fix displays

Question 1962

Can the exit from the holding pattern occur prior to crossing the holding fix?

Answer 1962

Yes, if the course to the next waypoint is not closely aligned with the holding inbound course

Question 1963

What does the FMC do automatically in some holding patterns under certain conditions?

Answer 1963

Commands an exit from some holding patterns in procedures

Question 1964

What is the function of the HOLD Page in the context of flight management?

Answer 1964

Monitors and changes holding parameters

Question 1965

What is the purpose of the FMC in relation to FIX ETA during holding?

Answer 1965

Calculates downtrack ETAs and fuel values based on departing the holding fix at the new FIX ETA

Question 1966

What does FMC stand for in aviation?

Answer 1966

Flight Management Computer ## Footnote The Flight Management Computer is a fundamental component of modern aircraft navigation systems.

Question 1967

What happens to the airplane during an instrument approach holding pattern designed as a course reversal?

Answer 1967

The airplane exits holding upon arrival at the holding fix inbound. ## Footnote The procedure is indicated by the header at 1L displaying PROC HOLD.

Question 1968

Under what condition does the airplane exit holding in some SIDs?

Answer 1968

When arriving at an altitude. ## Footnote The header at IL displays HOLD AT during this process.

Question 1969

What is indicated by the header at 1L during a holding procedure?

Answer 1969

PROC HOLD ## Footnote This indicates that the aircraft is following a procedure for holding.

Question 1970

What information is displayed in the HOLD page for existing holds?

Answer 1970

* Hold Exists in Route * ACT RTE 1 HOLD * FIX * PAE * QUAD/RADIAL * INBD * LEG * CRS/ DIR * TURN * TIME * DIST * ALT * ETA * EFC * SPEED ## Footnote This information is crucial for pilots to manage holding patterns effectively.

Question 1971

Fill in the blank: The airplane exits holding when arriving at an _______.

Answer 1971

altitude ## Footnote This is specific to certain Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs).

Question 1972

What does the term 'EFC' stand for in the context of holding patterns?

Answer 1972

Expected Further Clearance ## Footnote This term is used to indicate the anticipated time for the aircraft to receive further instructions.

Question 1973

True or False: The FMC can autonomously command exits from holding patterns.

Answer 1973

True ## Footnote The FMC is designed to manage various flight procedures, including exits from holding patterns.

Question 1974

What does the 'NEXT HOLD' section display?

Answer 1974

Information about the next holding pattern ## Footnote This includes details necessary for transitioning to the next phase of flight.

Question 1975

What is the function of the NEXT HOLD selection in the B787?

Answer 1975

Displays a new hold page for a new holding pattern entry

Question 1976

What does the EXIT HOLD selection do in the B787?

Answer 1976

Arms a holding pattern exit; EXIT ARMED displays in shaded white

Question 1977

What happens when the EXIT HOLD is executed?

Answer 1977

Airplane returns to the holding fix via the inbound course for holding pattern exit

Question 1978

What is the purpose of the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) in alternate navigation?

Answer 1978

Provides backup navigation capability in case of unrecoverable loss of displays or FMCs

Question 1979

Under normal power conditions, how is alternate navigation accessed?

Answer 1979

By pushing the NAV key on any of the three TCPs

Question 1980

Which TCP is available for alternate navigation use on standby power?

Answer 1980

Only the left (Captain's) TCP

Question 1981

What type of information is displayed during alternate navigation?

Answer 1981

Back-up navigation information on the TCPs and ISFD

Question 1982

What capabilities are not available when alternate navigation is in use?

Answer 1982

LNAV and VNAV

Question 1983

Can autopilot and autothrottles be available during alternate navigation?

Answer 1983

Yes, they may be available

Question 1984

What is the limitation of the TCPs in terms of navigation database during alternate navigation?

Answer 1984

They do not have a performance or navigation database

Question 1985

How many waypoints can be manually entered on the ALTN NAV page?

Answer 1985

A single waypoint

Question 1986

What does the ALTN NAV page provide?

Answer 1986

A stand-alone single waypoint navigation capability

Question 1987

What must be done with the waypoint on the ALTN NAV page?

Answer 1987

Must be manually updated as required

Question 1988

What are the two TCP pages that the alternate navigation system operates from?

Answer 1988

* ALTN NAV * ALTN NAV RADIO

Question 1989

What is the function of the NEXT HOLD selection in the B787?

Answer 1989

Displays a new hold page for a new holding pattern entry

Question 1990

What does the EXIT HOLD selection do in the B787?

Answer 1990

Arms a holding pattern exit; EXIT ARMED displays in shaded white

Question 1991

What happens when the EXIT HOLD is executed?

Answer 1991

Airplane returns to the holding fix via the inbound course for holding pattern exit

Question 1992

What is the purpose of the Tuning and Control Panel (TCP) in alternate navigation?

Answer 1992

Provides backup navigation capability in case of unrecoverable loss of displays or FMCs

Question 1993

Under normal power conditions, how is alternate navigation accessed?

Answer 1993

By pushing the NAV key on any of the three TCPs

Question 1994

Which TCP is available for alternate navigation use on standby power?

Answer 1994

Only the left (Captain's) TCP

Question 1995

What type of information is displayed during alternate navigation?

Answer 1995

Back-up navigation information on the TCPs and ISFD

Question 1996

What capabilities are not available when alternate navigation is in use?

Answer 1996

LNAV and VNAV

Question 1997

Can autopilot and autothrottles be available during alternate navigation?

Answer 1997

Yes, they may be available

Question 1998

What is the limitation of the TCPs in terms of navigation database during alternate navigation?

Answer 1998

They do not have a performance or navigation database

Question 1999

How many waypoints can be manually entered on the ALTN NAV page?

Answer 1999

A single waypoint

Question 2000

What does the ALTN NAV page provide?

Answer 2000

A stand-alone single waypoint navigation capability

Question 2001

What must be done with the waypoint on the ALTN NAV page?

Answer 2001

Must be manually updated as required

Question 2002

What are the two TCP pages that the alternate navigation system operates from?

Answer 2002

* ALTN NAV * ALTN NAV RADIO

Question 2003

What does the Present Position display?

Answer 2003

Current left integrated navigation receiver latitude and longitude to the nearest tenth of a minute.

Question 2004

How do you enter a TO waypoint latitude?

Answer 2004

Select N or S on the latitude hemisphere selection key, enter latitude in degrees (D) and minutes (M) using DDMM.M format.

Question 2005

What is the default setting for TO latitude hemisphere?

Answer 2005

Current latitude hemisphere.

Question 2006

What does the Hemispherical Selection Key (Latitude) do?

Answer 2006

Toggles between northern and southern hemispheres.

Question 2007

What does the Ground Track (GTK) display?

Answer 2007

Current left integrated navigation receiver true ground track to the nearest whole degree.

Question 2008

What does the Groundspeed (GS) display?

Answer 2008

Current left integrated navigation receiver true groundspeed to the nearest whole knot.

Question 2009

How do you enter a TO waypoint longitude?

Answer 2009

Select W or E on the longitude hemisphere selection key, enter longitude in degrees (D) and minutes (M) using DDDMM.M format.

Question 2010

What is the default setting for TO longitude hemisphere?

Answer 2010

Current longitude hemisphere.

Question 2011

What is the purpose of the Track To (TRK TO) function?

Answer 2011

Provides navigation tracking information.

Question 2012

Fill in the blank: The TO LAT field requires latitude in the _______ format.

Answer 2012

DDMM.M

Question 2013

Fill in the blank: The TO LONG field requires longitude in the _______ format.

Answer 2013

DDDMM.M

Question 2014

True or False: The selection made on the Hemispherical Selection Key is displayed in large red font.

Answer 2014

False

Question 2015

What does the Present Position display?

Answer 2015

Current left integrated navigation receiver latitude and longitude to the nearest tenth of a minute.

Question 2016

How do you enter a TO waypoint latitude?

Answer 2016

Select N or S on the latitude hemisphere selection key, enter latitude in degrees (D) and minutes (M) using DDMM.M format.

Question 2017

What is the default setting for TO latitude hemisphere?

Answer 2017

Current latitude hemisphere.

Question 2018

What does the Hemispherical Selection Key (Latitude) do?

Answer 2018

Toggles between northern and southern hemispheres.

Question 2019

What does the Ground Track (GTK) display?

Answer 2019

Current left integrated navigation receiver true ground track to the nearest whole degree.

Question 2020

What does the Groundspeed (GS) display?

Answer 2020

Current left integrated navigation receiver true groundspeed to the nearest whole knot.

Question 2021

How do you enter a TO waypoint longitude?

Answer 2021

Select W or E on the longitude hemisphere selection key, enter longitude in degrees (D) and minutes (M) using DDDMM.M format.

Question 2022

What is the default setting for TO longitude hemisphere?

Answer 2022

Current longitude hemisphere.

Question 2023

What is the purpose of the Track To (TRK TO) function?

Answer 2023

Provides navigation tracking information.

Question 2024

Fill in the blank: The TO LAT field requires latitude in the _______ format.

Answer 2024

DDMM.M

Question 2025

Fill in the blank: The TO LONG field requires longitude in the _______ format.

Answer 2025

DDDMM.M

Question 2026

True or False: The selection made on the Hemispherical Selection Key is displayed in large red font.

Answer 2026

False

Question 2027

What does the Track To (TRK TO) function display?

Answer 2027

True track from current airplane position to entered waypoint in whole degrees, displayed in magenta font

Question 2028

What is the purpose of the Hemispherical Selection Key (Longitude)?

Answer 2028

Toggles between western and eastern hemispheres, displayed in large green font

Question 2029

What does Time To Go (TTG) indicate?

Answer 2029

Time to go from current airplane position to entered waypoint based on groundspeed, displayed in HH:MM format

Question 2030

What is the accuracy of the Time To Go (TTG) display?

Answer 2030

Better than or equal to 1 minute

Question 2031

What does Distance To Go (DTG) show?

Answer 2031

Distance to go from current airplane position to entered waypoint in nautical miles

Question 2032

What is the accuracy of the Distance To Go (DTG) display?

Answer 2032

Better than or equal to 10 nautical miles

Question 2033

What is the function of the Alternate Navigation Radio Page?

Answer 2033

Provides a backup means of tuning the ILS frequency and course or GLS channel into the left integrated navigation receiver (INR)

Question 2034

What is displayed on the captain's PFD when using alternate navigation?

Answer 2034

Left side ILS or GLS deviations

Question 2035

What does the EICAS advisory message TCP ALTN NAV indicate?

Answer 2035

Alternate navigation is selected ON and allows different frequencies/channels to be tuned for left and right ILS or GLS

Question 2036

What must pilots ensure when using alternate navigation?

Answer 2036

Correct ILS frequencies or GLS channels are tuned for the approach being flown

Question 2037

What information does the PFD approach data block show?

Answer 2037

Tuned ILS frequency or GLS channel or the received ident for the on-side system

Question 2038

Fill in the blank: The default setting for the Hemispherical Selection Key is the _______.

Answer 2038

Current longitude hemisphere

Question 2039

What does the Track To (TRK TO) function display?

Answer 2039

True track from current airplane position to entered waypoint in whole degrees, displayed in magenta font

Question 2040

What is the purpose of the Hemispherical Selection Key (Longitude)?

Answer 2040

Toggles between western and eastern hemispheres, displayed in large green font

Question 2041

What does Time To Go (TTG) indicate?

Answer 2041

Time to go from current airplane position to entered waypoint based on groundspeed, displayed in HH:MM format

Question 2042

What is the accuracy of the Time To Go (TTG) display?

Answer 2042

Better than or equal to 1 minute

Question 2043

What does Distance To Go (DTG) show?

Answer 2043

Distance to go from current airplane position to entered waypoint in nautical miles

Question 2044

What is the accuracy of the Distance To Go (DTG) display?

Answer 2044

Better than or equal to 10 nautical miles

Question 2045

What is the function of the Alternate Navigation Radio Page?

Answer 2045

Provides a backup means of tuning the ILS frequency and course or GLS channel into the left integrated navigation receiver (INR)

Question 2046

What is displayed on the captain's PFD when using alternate navigation?

Answer 2046

Left side ILS or GLS deviations

Question 2047

What does the EICAS advisory message TCP ALTN NAV indicate?

Answer 2047

Alternate navigation is selected ON and allows different frequencies/channels to be tuned for left and right ILS or GLS

Question 2048

What must pilots ensure when using alternate navigation?

Answer 2048

Correct ILS frequencies or GLS channels are tuned for the approach being flown

Question 2049

What information does the PFD approach data block show?

Answer 2049

Tuned ILS frequency or GLS channel or the received ident for the on-side system

Question 2050

Fill in the blank: The default setting for the Hemispherical Selection Key is the _______.

Answer 2050

Current longitude hemisphere

Question 2051

What does the 'Push' function do in Alternate Navigation?

Answer 2051

Enters an ILS frequency or GLS channel from the scratchpad when in backup mode ## Footnote Entry format must be NNN.NN for an ILS frequency or NNNNN for a GLS channel. Defaults to most recently tuned ILS frequency or GLS channel if available.

Question 2052

What color indicates an inactive ILS frequency or GLS channel?

Answer 2052

Cyan ## Footnote It changes to white when active.

Question 2053

What is the purpose of the 'Course' function in Alternate Navigation?

Answer 2053

Enters an ILS course from the scratchpad when in backup mode ## Footnote Defaults to the most recently tuned ILS course if available.

Question 2054

What does the 'Control (CTRL)' function do?

Answer 2054

Selects backup navigation tuning ON (enabled) or OFF (disabled) ## Footnote ON displays 'ON' in large green font and changes ILS-GLS and COURSE colors from cyan to white.

Question 2055

What does the EICAS advisory message 'TCP ALTN NAV' indicate?

Answer 2055

Backup navigation tuning is ON ## Footnote ILS frequency and course or GLS channel may be tuned into the left INR.

Question 2056

Fill in the blank: The 'OFF' state of Control (CTRL) displays ______ in large green font.

Answer 2056

OFF

Question 2057

What happens to the ILS-GLS and COURSE colors when Control (CTRL) is OFF?

Answer 2057

Changes from white to cyan ## Footnote ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page.

Question 2058

What information does the ISFD display when backup navigation tuning is ON?

Answer 2058

Left INR ILS or GLS deviations

Question 2059

True or False: The Alternate Navigation Radio Page allows tuning of ILS and GLS when Control (CTRL) is OFF.

Answer 2059

False ## Footnote ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page when OFF.

Question 2060

What does the 'Push' function do in Alternate Navigation?

Answer 2060

Enters an ILS frequency or GLS channel from the scratchpad when in backup mode ## Footnote Entry format must be NNN.NN for an ILS frequency or NNNNN for a GLS channel. Defaults to most recently tuned ILS frequency or GLS channel if available.

Question 2061

What color indicates an inactive ILS frequency or GLS channel?

Answer 2061

Cyan ## Footnote It changes to white when active.

Question 2062

What is the purpose of the 'Course' function in Alternate Navigation?

Answer 2062

Enters an ILS course from the scratchpad when in backup mode ## Footnote Defaults to the most recently tuned ILS course if available.

Question 2063

What does the 'Control (CTRL)' function do?

Answer 2063

Selects backup navigation tuning ON (enabled) or OFF (disabled) ## Footnote ON displays 'ON' in large green font and changes ILS-GLS and COURSE colors from cyan to white.

Question 2064

What does the EICAS advisory message 'TCP ALTN NAV' indicate?

Answer 2064

Backup navigation tuning is ON ## Footnote ILS frequency and course or GLS channel may be tuned into the left INR.

Question 2065

Fill in the blank: The 'OFF' state of Control (CTRL) displays ______ in large green font.

Answer 2065

OFF

Question 2066

What happens to the ILS-GLS and COURSE colors when Control (CTRL) is OFF?

Answer 2066

Changes from white to cyan ## Footnote ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page.

Question 2067

What information does the ISFD display when backup navigation tuning is ON?

Answer 2067

Left INR ILS or GLS deviations

Question 2068

True or False: The Alternate Navigation Radio Page allows tuning of ILS and GLS when Control (CTRL) is OFF.

Answer 2068

False ## Footnote ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page when OFF.

Question 2069

What does the 'OFF' indication in the Alternate Navigation System signify?

Answer 2069

'OFF' displayed in large green font ## Footnote Indicates that the alternate navigation system is inactive.

Question 2070

How do ILS-GLS and COURSE indications change when the Alternate Navigation System is activated?

Answer 2070

Change color from white to cyan ## Footnote This visual change helps pilots identify navigation status.

Question 2071

Can ILS and GLS be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page?

Answer 2071

No, ILS and GLS may not be tuned from the ALTN NAV RADIO page ## Footnote Tuning is controlled by the FMC.

Question 2072

What happens to the EICAS advisory message when Alternate Navigation is activated?

Answer 2072

EICAS advisory message TCP ALTN NAV removed from view ## Footnote Indicates successful activation of alternate navigation.

Question 2073

Who controls the tuning of the left ILS and left GLS?

Answer 2073

Controlled by the FMC ## Footnote FMC stands for Flight Management Computer.

Question 2074

What does the EICAS message 'ADS-B OUT' indicate?

Answer 2074

The ADS-B Out function is inoperative ## Footnote Advisory message indicating an issue with the Automatic Dependent Surveillance–Broadcast system.

Question 2075

What does the EICAS message 'AHRU ALIGN MODE L' signify?

Answer 2075

The left AHRU is in the Align mode ## Footnote AHRU stands for Attitude and Heading Reference Unit.

Question 2076

What does the EICAS message 'FMC HOLD AIRSPACE' suggest?

Answer 2076

The FMC calculated holding pattern is larger than the holding pattern airspace protection ## Footnote Indicates a potential issue with holding pattern execution.

Question 2077

Fill in the blank: The AHRU is only providing _______ guidance.

Answer 2077

pitch and roll guidance ## Footnote Suggests a limitation in navigational capability.

Question 2078

What are the conditions under which the EICAS message 'FMC INTERCEPT HDG' appears?

Answer 2078

Both LNAV is armed and the airplane is not on an intercept heading to the active leg ## Footnote LNAV stands for lateral navigation.