FCTM BULLETIN Flashcards
(377 cards)
1
Q
What is the default altitude for RECMD when STEP size is 0?
A
2,000 ft.
2
Q
What can cause the RECMD altitude to vary?
A
The trigger criteria for change is very low, measured as low as a few kilograms.
3
Q
How far ahead does RECMD look down?
A
Up to 9,000 ft and up to MAX.
4
Q
What is the limitation of the STEP TO field?
A
It only offers climb options due to processor limitations.
5
Q
What should RECMD be considered as?
A
A tactical display indicating when it may be prudent to change levels.
ALSO ONLY LOOKS SHORT DIST 250-500 NM AHEAD DEPENDING ON STEP SIZE
6
Q
What data do STEP TO and RECMD use for predictions?
A
Forecast winds and temperatures.
7
Q
What additional data does the FMC destination Estimated FOD (EFOD) and ETA use?
A
A blend of actual and forecast winds.
8
Q
What technique can be used to determine if a persistent lower RECMD level is presented?
A
If RECMD is lower than the current level and has remained constant for at least 15 - 20 minutes, review the flight plan.
9
Q
What should you do if you want to increase speed?
A
Increase the CI to prioritize time over fuel.
10
Q
What happens to RECMD altitude if you increase speed by raising CI?
A
It will lower, and you will burn more fuel compared to the flight plan.
11
Q
What is a better way to increase speed while minimizing fuel burn?
A
Enter a fixed speed schedule.
12
Q
What does the wind selection technique involve if using a 1,000 ft step technique?
A
2,000 ft up, 1,000 ft up, current level, 1,000 ft below.
13
Q
What is the standard RVSM step technique for wind selection?
A
4,000 ft up, 2,000 ft up, current level, 2,000 ft below.
14
Q
What is the default wind selection when using Boeing Winds?
A
2,000 ft below cruise altitude, at cruise altitude, and 2,000 ft and 4,000 ft above cruise altitude.
15
Q
How can different levels be selected using the MAN format?
A
By using the syntax MAN340350360370 in the scratchpad while making the wind request.
16
Q
What should be monitored to ensure updated winds during a climb evaluation?
A
RECMD FL
17
Q
In a climb evaluation, what should be checked if RECMD FL is higher than current CRZ FL?
A
STEP TO
18
Q
What is the preferred step size for initiating a request for change of level during a climb?
A
1,000 ft step size
19
Q
What should be ensured before evaluating a descent?
A
RECMD FL has consistently provided a lower CRZ ALT recommendation for 15-20 minutes
20
Q
What should be checked at the proposed level during a descent evaluation?
A
Flight plan and downpath winds
21
Q
What should be inserted into CRZ ALT on the ACT ECON CRZ page during a descent evaluation?
A
RECMD FL
22
Q
After inserting RECMD FL into CRZ ALT, what should be checked for benefit?
A
ETA and EFOB
23
Q
What is not recommended to program into the FMC?
A
Flight plan steps
24
Q
What does the MOD function allow for?
A
What-if comparisons
25
Is it generally recommended to go fixed Mach instead of ECON?
False
26
What does CI-0 stand for?
Cost Index 0
27
What does the FMC use a CI-0 to produce?
Minimum fuel cruise profile
28
What is the typical CI range for the B787?
60-80 range
29
What is the result of using the FMC CIO profile and flying each CRZ FL with the FDA MRC CI?
Something close to a MRC profile
MIN FUEL CRUISE PROFILE
WE THEN USE FDA TO PRODUCE TAIL SPECIFIC MRC CI
WORTH 200-300 KG FOR LONGER RANGE FLT
30
What should be ensured before using the STEP on Cost Index 0 technique?
Winds are up to date
31
What should be opened to ensure the autothrottle does not change the ECON speed target?
Speed window
32
What should be noted after entering CIO into the FMC?
Changed STEP TO point in time and Predicted FOD
33
What does Totalizer (TOT) refer to?
Real-time measured quantity of fuel
34
What is the calculated fuel quantity determined by?
Flight Management Computer (FMC)
35
What is the error tolerance for FQIS at 100T?
+/- approximately 1,200 kg
36
What increases the error in fuel flow meters during flight?
Cumulative error builds throughout the flight
37
What is the rate at which error increases at typical cruise flight levels?
Approximately 70 kg/hr
38
What happens after the scavenge system activates as the CWT depletes?
Can cause further divergence of the values
39
What happens after the scavenge system activates as the CWT depletes?
It can cause further divergence of the values because the FQIS errors are biased out conservatively to ensure that the engines are still turning at 0 indicated.
40
What occurs after touchdown during the rollout regarding fuel distribution?
The flexible composite wing 'unloads', fuel is redistributed, and a system self-test is performed.
41
How much does the totalizer value typically 'step' down after rollout?
Approximately 300-500 kg.
42
What happens to the calculated value once the airplane is on the ground and engines are shut down?
The calculated value is set equal to the totalizer value.
43
Why will the FOD value on the OFP not be comparable to the shutdown figure?
Due to reasons such as enroute weather diversion, STAR requirements, and approach fuel.
44
What is the recommended minimum Cost Index value for operation?
CI60.
45
What is the tendency of the airplane at low Cost Index values?
It tends to burn additional fuel even if not predicted by the FMC.
46
What is MultiScan?
A fully automatic radar that uses dual beams and sophisticated algorithms to vary gain and tilt.
47
What mode is typically sufficient for planning and avoiding weather threats using MultiScan?
AUTO mode and CAL gain.
48
What happens when the radar is set to 'above CAL' settings?
The level of intensity of weather returns will be exaggerated.
49
What should be avoided if displayed as yellow or higher intensity on the radar?
Weather displayed as yellow or higher intensity.
50
What caution should be taken when flying through areas of weather displayed in green?
It should be accomplished with caution, as turbulence may necessitate the Seat Belts sign to be ON.
51
What happens if the system is used in MANUAL mode?
It operates as a conventional weather radar system.
52
How can radar sensitivity be reduced on the B787?
By turning the gain down by one colour level.
53
What caution should be observed when adjusting radar gain?
Do not leave the radar below gain for extended periods.
54
What is the recommended gain setting for detecting small low moisture content cells in the Central Pacific?
*+1.
55
What does MultiScan radars automate during flight?
The analysis and display of the weather threat information.
56
What 'floor' does the radar establish while scanning at cruise?
Approximately 6,000 feet below the airplane.
57
When should the radar be switched to Manual mode before descent?
Prior to the descent to scan for weather more than 6,000 feet below airplane altitude.
58
What should be done if weather is shown during the manual scan before descent?
Maintain Manual mode until descending through 22,000 feet.
59
What happens to the radar mode after descending through 22,000 feet?
Return the radar to AUTO.
60
What happens to N1 and EGT as altitude increases?
N1 and EGT increase to maintain rated takeoff thrust.
61
What can reduce EGT margins as engines wear?
Hot day sea level EGT margins reduce.
62
What is one maintenance action that can restore EGT margin?
Scheduling a compressor wash.
63
What performance strategy can be employed to manage high EGT?
Maximizing the use of derate and ATM.
64
How much can a 1% reduction in N1 affect EGT?
About 10 degrees reduced EGT.
65
What effect does extending engine warm-up time have?
Minimizes high pressure compressor eccentricity.
66
What does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) maintain after throttle set?
The N2 corresponding to that throttle position.
67
What is the term used when EGT and N1 increase during takeoff?
Bloom.
68
What is the behavior of the core engine components after thermal growth stabilizes?
EGT and N1 will decrease (droop).
69
What does the FADEC system aim to minimize?
The bloom effect.
70
What is the significance of amber and red line limits during takeoff?
They do not necessarily adversely affect engine on wing life.
EGT AMBER BAND DURING TAKEOFF AND GA CONSIDERED ACCEPTABLE
71
What should be done when an exceedance is notified to Engineering?
Reference a full operational EGT envelope in the AMM.
72
What is the operational EGT limit for short exceedance periods?
Between 1065 and 1070 degrees for up to 30 seconds.
73
What EICAS message may indicate an engine limit exceedance?
'ENG LIMIT EXCEED L, R'.
74
What are icing conditions defined as?
Temperatures below 10 degrees C with visible moisture
## Footnote
This describes conditions where supercooled liquid drops adhere to airframe surfaces, typically at 22,000 feet and below.
75
What recent phenomenon has been observed related to engine power loss?
Engine power loss and damage events occurring in convective weather above typical icing altitudes
## Footnote
Research shows that convective weather can contain very small crystals of frozen water.
76
What is the term used to describe icing conditions involving ice crystals?
Ice crystal icing
## Footnote
This condition is characterized by ice crystals that do not adhere to airframe surfaces but can stick to engine surfaces.
77
What are glaciated conditions?
Atmospheric conditions containing only ice crystals and no supercooled liquid
## Footnote
This term is used to describe specific atmospheric phenomena.
78
What are mixed phase conditions?
Atmospheric conditions containing both ice crystals and supercooled liquid
## Footnote
These conditions can occur in convective clouds.
79
What is deep convective weather characterized by?
Significant lifting and condensation of water vapor in an unstable atmosphere
## Footnote
This includes strong windshear, turbulence, and high condensed water content.
80
What altitudes have engine power loss events occurred?
Between 11,500 feet and 36,000 feet
## Footnote
Events often occurred while diverting around thunderstorms or crossing cloud anvils.
81
What factors are important in the formation of ice on engine surfaces?
* Small crystal sizes
* High ice crystal concentrations
* Ice crystals above the freezing level with little or no supercooled liquid present
## Footnote
These factors are critical in understanding ice formation in engines.
82
What is the maximum concentration of supercooled liquid for engine icing certification?
2 g/m'
## Footnote
This standard is significantly lower than the estimated concentrations found in deep convective weather.
83
What do pilots often report in events of engine power loss?
Light to moderate turbulence and no radar returns
## Footnote
This indicates that the airplanes likely encountered ice crystals rather than convective precipitation.
84
What can on-board weather radar detect?
Large particles such as hail, rain, and large ice crystal masses
## Footnote
Small particles, like ice crystals in high concentrations, are invisible to on-board weather radar.
85
What is a key method for detecting high ice crystal conditions?
Recognizing visible moisture above typical icing altitudes
## Footnote
This includes signs like no significant airframe icing and unusual Total Air Temperature readings.
86
What procedures can help avoid high ice crystal content conditions?
* Plan a flight path avoiding storm cells by 20 nautical miles
* Use radar antenna tilt to assess storm height
* Fly upwind of storms when possible
* Avoid flying over storm cells
## Footnote
These procedures are important for safety in areas prone to ice crystal icing.
87
Fill in the blank: Ice crystals typically _______ to airframe surfaces.
do not adhere
## Footnote
They bounce off cold surfaces but can partially melt and stick to warmer engine surfaces.
88
True or False: All ice crystal conditions can be avoided using existing on-board weather radar systems.
False
## Footnote
Existing radar systems cannot detect small ice crystals, making it impossible to avoid all ice crystal conditions.
89
What are the three parts of operational guidance about volcanic ash?
Avoidance, Recognition, Procedures
90
What information does dispatch provide to flight crew for route planning in volcanic areas?
* Potentially eruptive volcanoes and known ash sightings
* Height of ash cloud
* Wind direction
* Plume dispersal information
91
What should flight crew do to avoid volcanic ash?
Stay upwind of volcanic ash and dust
92
Is airborne weather radar effective in distinguishing ash from dust particles?
NO
93
What are some indicators that an airplane is penetrating volcanic ash?
* Odour
* Haze
* Changing engine conditions
* Airspeed
* Pressurization
* Static discharges
94
What odour is typically associated with encountering a volcanic ash cloud?
Smoky or acrid odour that can smell like electrical smoke, burned dust, or sulphur
95
What visual phenomenon may occur inside the airplane when encountering volcanic ash?
Haze develops within the airplane
96
What engine conditions can change unexpectedly when penetrating volcanic ash?
* Surging
* Torching from the tailpipe
* Flameouts
97
What happens to indicated airspeed if volcanic ash fouls the pitot tube?
It can decrease or fluctuate erratically
98
What can happen to cabin pressure when penetrating volcanic ash?
Possible loss of cabin pressurization
99
What static discharge phenomenon can occur when flying through volcanic ash?
Blue-coloured sparks similar to St. Elmo's fire
100
What are the two parts of procedures related to volcanic ash?
* Inflight Operations
* Ground operations at airports impacted by volcanic ash
101
What is the first action flight crew should take when encountering volcanic ash?
Exit the ash cloud as quickly as possible
102
What is the quickest exit strategy from an ash cloud?
A 180° turn out of the ash cloud using a descending turn
103
What should the flight crew do if volcanic dust fills the flight deck?
Use flight deck oxygen at the 100% setting
104
What should flight crew do with the autothrottle(s) during a volcanic ash encounter?
Turn the autothrottle(s) off
105
What is the recommended thrust setting if conditions allow when encountering volcanic ash?
Reduce thrust to idle immediately
106
What should be turned on to improve engine stall margin during volcanic ash encounters?
Engine and wing anti-ice devices and all air conditioning packs
107
What is the purpose of starting the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) during volcanic ash encounters?
Power systems in the event of a dual/multiple engine power loss
108
What should flight crew monitor during a volcanic ash encounter?
Engine Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT)
109
What action should be taken if EGT is approaching limits?
Shut down the engine and restart it if the EGT is approaching limits similar to a hung start.
110
What should flight crew watch for regarding airspeed and pitch attitude?
Watch for abnormal indications from pitot static system indicators.
111
What checklist should be followed if airspeed is unreliable?
Follow the Airspeed Unreliable non-normal checklist.
112
What precautions should be taken to protect airplanes from volcanic ash during ground operations?
Operators must ensure components such as inlets, probes, and static ports are free of volcanic ash.
113
What does volcanic ash resemble?
Volcanic ash will be similar in appearance to talcum powder.
114
What areas should be cleaned of volcanic ash before flight?
Clean the fuselage crown, horizontal surfaces, inlets, and exposed chrome common to the landing gear.
115
What is strongly advised against when cleaning the engine gas-path?
Boeing strongly advises against water or detergent washing of the engine gas-path.
116
What materials should be removed prior to flight?
Remove all covers and blanking material used to mask inlets, probes, and ports.
117
What should operators determine after ensuring the airplane is free from volcanic ash?
Coordinate with the local airport authority to determine which ramps, taxiways, and runways are clear of ash contamination.
118
What checklists should be reviewed prior to departure?
Review the Airspeed Unreliable, Volcanic Ash, Engine Failure or Shutdown, Dual Engine Failure, and Engine Inflight Start non-normal checklists.
119
In which regions does ice crystal icing most frequently affect airplanes?
Ice crystal icing most frequently affects airplanes flying over tropical regions.
120
What types of weather events were recorded by Boeing in 2008 related to ice crystal icing?
Three events were recorded at high altitude in convective weather associated with the remnants of tropical storms.
121
What effects can ice crystal icing have on engine models?
Engines can experience flameouts, surges, high vibrations, and compressor damage due to ice impacting the blades.
122
Where do engine power losses typically occur?
At high altitude, in clouds, especially over areas of convective weather.
123
What is a key indicator of ice crystal conditions observed by pilots?
Appearance of rain on the windscreen at high altitudes.
124
What anomaly might indicate an airplane has flown through ice crystals?
TAT reading near zero °C.
125
In what region do over 60% of ice crystal-induced engine power loss events occur?
Asia-Pacific region.
126
What happens to ice crystals when they hit a heated windscreen?
They melt and give the appearance of rain.
127
What anomaly has been observed regarding TAT and engine inlet temperature?
Disagreement in values under ice crystal icing conditions.
128
What indicates ice crystals may be present?
* Rain on the windscreen at cold temperatures
* Airplane TAT near 0 degrees C
* Light to moderate turbulence
* No significant radar returns at altitude
* Heavy rain below the airplane
* Cloud tops above typical cruise levels
129
What should be avoided during flight in IMC regarding ice crystal icing?
Flying directly above significant amber or red radar returns.
130
What action should be taken if ice crystal icing is suspected?
Exit ice crystal icing conditions and request a route change.
131
Does increasing thrust help prevent ice buildup?
No, ice formation is not eliminated.
132
In what temperature range do ice crystals exist?
From just below 0°C to well below -40°C.
133
What is the maximum concentration of supercooled liquid droplets for engine certification?
2 g/m3.
134
What is one reason some engines stall, some flame out, and some suffer damage?
Differences in ice accumulation and the conditions present.
135
At what altitudes have engine events been identified?
From 9,000 feet up to 41,000 feet, all above the freezing level in a convective storm.
136
What is the TAT anomaly?
The airplane's Total Air Temperature probe erroneously reporting zero °C.
137
What causes the TAT anomaly?
Ice crystals building up near the sensor element, partly melted by the heater.
138
What is Desiga Manoeuvring Speed (Va)?
A structural design manoeuvring speed for evaluating airplane structural design.
139
At or below Va, what can Boeing airplanes sustain?
A single input to any set of control surfaces to their maximum available authority.
140
What inputs are considered when evaluating control surface inputs at Va?
Inputs to be in one axis, not in combination, and do not include control input reversal or oscillatory inputs.
141
What is Vd/Md?
Design dive speed, typically 30-60 knots or 0.05-0.07 Mach higher than Vmo/Mmo.
142
What does the Turbulent Air Penetration Speed approximate?
Manoeuvre speed.
143
How should design manoeuvre speed be distinguished from recommended manoeuvre speeds?
Design manoeuvre speed is structural; recommended speeds are based on aerodynamic margins.
144
What safety factor is applied to the maximum load generated by a rapid rudder input?
A Safety Factor of 1.5.
145
What happens when the rudder is rapidly returned to neutral from over yaw sideslip?
The vertical fin can sustain loads.
146
What is the purpose of the Fin Load Alleviation (FLA) function?
To reduce vertical tail loads during rudder application with an engine failure.
147
What do Boeing airplanes require for controlling engine failures and crosswind takeoffs/landings?
Use of full rudder is well within the structural capability.
148
As speed increases, what can be said about maximum available rudder deflection?
It can be obtained with comparatively light pedal forces and small pedal deflections.
149
What is the relationship between rudder pedal displacement and required force in modern Boeing airplanes?
The more the pedal is displaced, the greater the required force.
150
In which Boeing models do rudder limiters reduce rudder authority?
747, 757, 767, 777, and 787.
151
What is the effect of rudder authority limitation on rudder pedal travel in some Boeing models?
Full rudder pedal deflection is not required to achieve full available rudder deflection.
152
Fill in the blank: The pilot must apply the same force to the rudder pedal to achieve maximum _______ throughout the flight envelope.
available rudder deflection.
153
What should pilots be aware of regarding rudder pedal input?
The airplane is designed to accommodate a rapid and immediate rudder pedal input from zero to full.
154
What type of rudder input may exceed the structural design limits of the airplane?
A full or nearly full authority rudder reversal as the airplane reaches an 'over yaw' sideslip angle.
155
What should be done if a jammed rudder control is freed during a procedure?
It will not overstress the airplane.
156
At what point are the stresses on the tail at the maximum when applying full rudder?
Depends on the airplane type, configuration, and specific maneuver, but generally out to Vmo/Mmo.
157
What is not recommended for roll control if the airplane is stalled?
The use of rudder for roll control.
158
What should be done during wind shear recovery regarding control wheel and rudder use?
Keep the control wheel level and avoid using rudder.
159
What unique characteristics are exhibited by the 787 GEnx-IB Engine during engine start?
The unique characteristics include:
* Smoke during engine start
* Engine vibration during engine start
* Fuel venting from engine after engine shutdown
* Smoke or oil drips from the center vent tube after engine shutdown
160
What causes smoke during the start of a cold GEnx-IB engine?
Smoke is caused by unburned fuel during the combustion process, which occurs due to increased oil viscosity at low ambient temperatures.
161
At what ambient temperature is smoke observed during the start of the GEnx-IB engine?
Smoke has been observed during starts at ambient temperatures below 65 degrees F (18 degrees C).
162
What is the 'bowed-rotor start' phenomenon?
It refers to increased core (N2) vibration during starts occurring shortly after engine shutdown due to a small deflection of the core rotor system.
163
What might accompany the increased vibration during a bowed-rotor start?
The vibration may be accompanied by a 'rumbling' sound, but not by tactile vibration.
164
What is the cause of fuel venting after engine shutdown in the GEnx-1B engine?
Fuel venting is caused by fuel vapours exiting the engine due to bulk fuel expansion and seepage through fuel nozzle check valves.
165
Describe the mechanism of post-shutdown fuel vapour emission.
Fuel vapour results from trapped fuel heating and expanding, which overcomes the fuel nozzle check valve cracking pressure and seeps into the combustor.
166
What is the normal characteristic of smoke or oil drips from the center vent tube after engine shutdown?
Smoke or oil drips occur due to oil accumulation in the center vent tube (CVT) that vaporizes after engine shutdown.
167
What crew actions are necessary for observed smoke during engine starting?
No crew action is necessary if the engine operates normally.
168
What should crew members do if high vibration indications are observed during engine starting?
No crew action is necessary if the engine operates normally.
169
What action is necessary to address post-shutdown fuel venting?
No action is necessary; the vapour will dissipate in a short period of time.
170
What should be done regarding post-shutdown smoke or oil drips from the center vent tube?
No action is necessary; the smoke will dissipate and the oil drips will stop in a short period of time.
171
What causes the flight deck windows to create popping sounds?
Pressurization or temperature changes
172
What coating is applied to the window edges to minimize popping noises?
Teflon coating
173
What action is required from the crew if popping noises occur during flight?
No crew action is required
174
What should be done if the windows continue to produce popping noises on subsequent flights?
Reapply the Teflon coating by maintenance
175
Fill in the blank: An airplane upset is defined as a pitch attitude greater than ______ degrees nose up.
25
176
Fill in the blank: An airplane upset is defined as a bank angle greater than ______ degrees.
45
177
What is an airplane upset situation?
An undesired airplane state, divergence from the intended flight path, or unintentionally exceeding specific pitch and bank angle conditions
## Footnote
Defined as: Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up, greater than 10 degrees nose down, bank angle greater than 45 degrees, or inappropriate airspeed.
178
What is the first step after recognizing an airplane upset?
Disconnect the autopilot and autothrottle, and recover manually
179
What is the recommended action if the airplane is stalled during an upset?
Recover from the stall before taking airplane upset recovery actions
## Footnote
Stall recovery involves applying and maintaining nose down elevator.
180
What control forces may be required during recovery from an airplane upset?
Higher than normal control forces
## Footnote
Be prepared to use firm and continuous force on the control column.
181
What is the recommendation regarding engine operation before takeoff?
It is not recommended to taxi before takeoff with less than all engines running
## Footnote
Both engines need to be started if both have been shut down to activate hydraulic systems.
182
What does EOT-In stand for?
Engine Out Taxi-In after landing
## Footnote
EOT-In operations aim to save fuel and reduce carbon emissions.
183
What are some potential risk factors associated with EOT-In operations?
Key factors include:
* Crew workload
* Loss of airplane systems
* Breakaway thrust
184
How can EOT-In operations affect crew workload?
They can increase crew workload by adding secondary tasks
## Footnote
Tasks may include configuration of airplane systems and engine start during taxi.
185
What can contribute to crew errors during EOT-In operations?
Factors include:
* Changes to ATC instructions
* Unfamiliar airports
* Complicated taxi clearances
186
What should the flight crew review regarding the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) during EOT-In operations?
The impact of MEL items on EOT-In operations
## Footnote
EOT-In should not be conducted if a system affecting braking or steering is inoperative.
187
What is breakaway thrust and why is it important in EOT-In operations?
It is the thrust needed to start moving the airplane, which is higher during EOT-In operations
## Footnote
Increased weight requires higher breakaway thrust, creating potential hazards.
188
What factors should flight crews consider regarding breakaway thrust?
Factors include:
* Jet blast effects
* Direction of turns
* Increased time to start moving the airplane
189
What taxiway and ramp conditions may not be suited for EOT-In operations?
Soft asphalt, congested ramps, slippery surfaces, and contamination.
## Footnote
Conditions such as ice, snow, and standing water require all engines operating.
190
What should operators require regarding taxi surface braking action?
A taxi surface braking action of 'good' or better before conducting EOT-In operations.
## Footnote
This is particularly important for slippery taxiways and ramps.
191
What factors should the flight crew consider before conducting EOT-In operations?
Familiarity with EOT, airport, complexity of the taxi route, and atmospheric conditions.
## Footnote
Adverse weather conditions necessitate taxiing with all engines operating.
192
How should turns be considered during EOT-In operations?
Direction of turns and radius; sharp turns toward the operating engine are more difficult.
## Footnote
Keeping the operating engine on the outside of minimum radius turns is advisable.
193
What happens if only one engine is started after both engines have been shut down?
Nose wheel steering and other hydraulic systems will not operate normally.
## Footnote
This is critical for maintaining control during operations.
194
Does Boeing recommend EOT-In operations during icing conditions?
No, Boeing does not recommend EOT-In operations during icing conditions.
195
When do the automatic tests for Flight Control Electronics run after landing?
Tests run after every landing when airplane speed drops below 30 knots, flaps are up, and spoilers are retracted.
196
What must be avoided during the 45-second test window for Flight Control Electronics?
Engine shutdown and large control inputs.
197
What happens if hydraulic systems are depressurized before the completion of Flight Control Electronics tests?
Testing will fail to complete, possibly resulting in a non-dispatchable airplane configuration.
198
What happens to the hydraulic systems after both engines are shut down?
The hydraulic system resets to a 'before flight' state.
199
What may occur when shutting down an engine while taxiing?
The wheel brakes on the affected side may release for approximately one second.
200
What is the purpose of the 787-8 Brake Temperature Monitoring System (BTMS)?
To monitor brake temperatures and ensure safe operation
## Footnote
The BTMS has a lower relative temperature scale than other Boeing models due to new certification requirements.
201
At what BTMS indication does the BRAKE TEMP advisory message appear?
5.0 or more
## Footnote
The message remains until all brake temperatures go below 3.0.
202
What conditions must be met for the TBR function to be active?
Groundspeed less than 70 knots, autobrakes off, less than heavy manual brake application
## Footnote
Under these conditions, only one of the brakes will be applied on each fore-aft brake pair.
203
How does the TBR function swap brakes?
When it detects no force on the brake pedals
## Footnote
Residual brake force can prevent the brake swap from occurring.
204
What happens during landing rollout with regard to the autobrake function?
All brakes are used
## Footnote
If manual braking is used to disarm autobrakes, TBR is not active.
205
What is a recommended flap setting for approach to minimize brake temperatures?
Flaps 30
## Footnote
This helps reduce approach speed and minimize airplane energy.
206
How much can maximum reverse thrust reduce brake temperatures?
Approximately 50%
## Footnote
This technique minimizes the energy that must be absorbed by the brakes.
207
What should be avoided during taxi to minimize uneven brake temperatures?
Prolonged light brake application
## Footnote
Ensuring full release of foot pressure between separate brake applications is also important.
208
Are maintenance actions required for BTMS indications exceeding 5.0 units?
No, unless there is a status message or an observed brake fault
## Footnote
Indications up to 7.0 units and differences of up to 5.0 on the same truck can occur during normal operations.
209
What does the Aircraft Maintenance Manual include regarding BTMS indications exceeding 7.0?
Precautions for ground crews
## Footnote
These precautions are necessary to ensure safety when high BTMS readings are observed.
210
What function does the Taxi Brake Release (TBR) serve in the 787-8 brake system?
Extends the life of carbon brakes and minimizes structural loads
## Footnote
The TBR function is active under specific conditions, including groundspeed less than 70 knots.
211
What are the main components of the battery assembly in the electrical system?
Eight lithium-ion (Li-ion) cells connected by bus bars in series
## Footnote
Each battery assembly contains two battery monitoring unit (BMU) cards for redundancy.
212
How many volts does each lithium-ion cell contribute to the battery assembly?
Approximately 4 volts
## Footnote
With eight cells, the total battery voltage is approximately 32 volts.
213
What functions do the battery monitoring unit (BMU) cards perform?
Monitor for parameters such as:
* Excessively low or high temperature
* Detected faults in cells
* Excessive current
* Excessive voltage (individual cell and whole battery)
* Deep discharge (individual cell and whole battery)
* Battery cell unbalance
214
What is the purpose of the battery charger installed next to each battery?
Controls charging current, provides monitoring, and establishes a digital communications link between the BMUs and the airplane data buses.
215
Fill in the blank: The battery assembly contains _______ cards for monitoring.
[two battery monitoring unit (BMU)]
216
What material encloses the battery assembly?
Blue aluminum battery case
217
What is the purpose of the protective layers in the battery system?
To prevent over-charging of the battery
## Footnote
There are four layers of protection to ensure safe battery operation.
4 LAYERS TO ENSURE OVER CHARGING OF BATT CANNOT OCCUR. IF BATT FAULT DETECTED THE PROTECTION FUNCTIONS STOP BATT CHARGING/ AND IF NECESSARY ISOLATE THE BATT ELECTRICALLY AS REQD
218
Where is the main battery installed in the aircraft?
In the lower shelf of an equipment rack in the forward E/E compartment
## Footnote
E/E compartment refers to the electrical and electronic compartment.
219
What is the main function of the main battery during airplane operations?
To provide power for airplane power-up and during fueling if no other power is available
220
What does the main battery power?
The hot battery bus
## Footnote
Most loads on the hot battery bus have redundant sources of power.
221
What happens if all four engine Variable Frequency Starter-Generators (VFSGs) are lost?
The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) automatically deploys and the main battery provides standby power
## Footnote
This occurs until the RAT powers the standby power system.
222
What will the main battery provide in the event of all power sources being lost while on the ground?
Power to the electric brakes
223
What is the minimum duration the main battery can provide standby power?
10 minutes
224
What occurs if an over voltage or under voltage condition is detected in the main battery?
The battery is disconnected and isolated from the hot battery bus
225
What are the two advisory messages associated with the main battery?
MAIN BATTERY DISCH and MAIN BATTERY LOW
226
What does the MAIN BATTERY DISCH message indicate?
One of the following conditions:
* The main battery is discharging
* The main battery has failed
* The hot battery bus is not energized
227
What does the MAIN BATTERY LOW message signify?
The main battery charge is low
## Footnote
This message is inhibited in flight and is used for ground dispatch.
228
True or False: If a main battery fails during flight, it affects the operation of the aircraft in absence of other failures.
False
229
Fill in the blank: The APU battery is installed in the _______.
lower shelf of an equipment rack in the AFT E/E compartment
230
What is the primary function of the APU battery?
To start the APU and power the APU controller
## Footnote
The APU battery also opens the APU inlet door.
231
What happens if the APU battery fails?
The APU cannot be started; if running, it may continue but could shut down.
## Footnote
If the APU shuts down, the APU RUNNING memo message blanks.
232
Are there any EICAS alert messages associated with the APU battery?
No, there are no EICAS alert messages associated with the APU battery.
233
What additional function do both the main and APU batteries provide when the APU is not running?
They are used for towing.
## Footnote
The main battery powers the electric brakes, and the APU battery powers the navigation lights.
234
Is monitoring of battery voltage levels required during flight?
No, monitoring of battery voltage is not required.
## Footnote
A low charge or large load may temporarily show reduced voltage.
235
What are some advantages of Li-ion batteries over nickel-cadmium batteries?
* High power capability
* Higher battery voltage
* Higher current capability with lower losses
* Lower weight
* Improved charging characteristics
* No consumption of electrolyte
* No heavy gas evolution or heat generation
* No hydrogen generation
* No memory effect
* Battery does not degrade due to partial discharge
* Reconditioning not needed to maintain capacity
* Improved power quality
* Battery voltage held to tighter tolerance
236
What was the basis for the certification of the 787 battery installation?
* The design and quality of the batteries provide high reliability
* Redundant monitoring and protection systems function in the event of a battery failure
237
What happens to battery charging in the event of a failure?
Battery charging is immediately stopped.
## Footnote
This prevents any energy from being added to a failing battery.
238
What is done to protect the electrical system from a failing battery?
The battery is completely isolated from the airplane electrical system.
239
What is expected to happen with a severely failed battery?
It would heat, possibly emit gases and vapor, and then cool on its own.
240
What is the design strategy for system safety in aviation?
* Components and systems are designed for high reliability
* Systems remain safe and functional assuming any component may fail
241
What is the role of the equipment cooling system smoke detectors?
To prevent gases or vapours from moving into the passenger cabin or flight deck in significant quantities.
242
What is the purpose of the location and separation of electronic equipment in the 787?
To prevent loss of critical functions in the highly unlikely event of a failing battery damaging surrounding equipment.
243
What types of applications use Li-ion batteries on the 787?
Emergency lighting system, flight controls, flight recorders.
244
How do the smaller batteries on the 787 differ from the main and APU batteries?
They have protections like charging circuit protections and do not have daily current demands.
245
How many hours of testing did the 787 batteries undergo before the battery failure events?
Hundreds of thousands of hours in lab and ground testing, over 5,000 hours in flight test, and over 50,000 hours of passenger service.
246
What were the two battery failure events experienced by the 787 in January 2013?
APU battery failure at Boston Logan Airport and main battery failure southwest of Osaka, Japan.
247
What happened during the APU battery failure event at Boston Logan Airport?
The APU battery failed after landing, causing smoke and electrolyte leakage, but no critical electronic equipment was damaged.
248
What were the preliminary findings of the NTSB investigation into the APU battery event?
All 8 cells vented or lost electrolyte, monitoring systems functioned, and the APU automatically shut down.
249
What occurred during the main battery failure event southwest of Osaka, Japan?
The flight crew observed main battery failure indications and diverted to Takamatsu Airport, where they evacuated the airplane.
250
What were the preliminary findings of the JTSB investigation into the main battery event?
6 of the 8 cells vented, monitoring systems functioned, and the cooling system worked as designed.
251
What were the unexpected outcomes of the battery failures in both events?
Failures propagated to most or all cells, and electrolyte leaked from the battery case.
252
What feature is included in the battery design to manage gas or vapor during a failure?
A dedicated enclosure with a vent tube leading outside the fuselage.
253
What happens to battery gas or vapor in the event of a failure?
No perceptible gas or vapor escapes into the EE Bay; it is vented directly overboard.
254
What does the enclosure provide in terms of environmental conditions?
An oxygen-starved environment.
255
Where is the main battery vent port located?
Aft of the forward B/E door, near the airplane centerline.
256
Where is the APU battery vent port located?
Aft of the access door to the aft E/E compartment near the airplane centerline.
257
What EICAS caution messages are not expected to show during a battery failure?
SMOKE EQUIP CLG FWD or SMOKE EQUIP CLG AFT.
258
What can be done if vapour or odour is noticed in the cabin during a main battery failure?
Selecting both packs off will prevent ingestion of vapour into the CAC inlets.
259
What happens to a severely failed battery after overheating?
It is expected to heat, emit gases and vapour, and then to cool after venting.
## Footnote
In laboratory and airplane tests, batteries have cooled on their own after venting.
260
What is the impact of an APU battery failure on ETOPS operations?
The APU cannot be started, and the decision point for inoperative equipment is at dispatch.
261
What automatic action does the 787 perform when both thrust levers are moved to idle?
Automatically extends the speedbrakes
## Footnote
This occurs if on the ground and above 85 knots.
262
What is the approved RTO manoeuvre for the 777 and 787 airplanes?
The two-step RTO manoeuvre
## Footnote
Retarding the thrust levers to idle and deploying the thrust reversers, thus automatically raising the speed brakes.
263
What scenario does the FAR 25.1001 rule define?
Return to land (RTL), with a go-around, with an engine failure occurring on final approach or during the go-around
264
What flap setting causes the 787 to potentially not meet the approach climb gradient requirement?
Flap setting of 20
FOR GA
265
What is the takeoff weight limitation imposed to meet the RTL requirement?
Fuel Jettison Limit Weight
266
What flap settings are used for landing and go-around in the scenario described?
Landing flaps of 25 or 30 and go-around flaps of 20
267
What conditions can cause performance issues for the 787 during RTL scenarios?
Loaded near maximum zero fuel weight, higher elevation airports, hot days, or icing conditions
268
What are the two differences that can cause the 787 takeoff weight to be limited by the fuel jettison rule?
* High zero fuel weights relative to maximum takeoff weight
* New rule requiring icing effects to be considered for takeoff fuel jettison limitation
269
What flap combination is certified to improve climb gradient and increase takeoff weight?
Landing flap setting of 25 with a go-around at flaps 5
270
What is the title of the planned flight crew Supplementary Procedure for 5/25 flaps?
Alternate Go-around and Missed Approach Procedure
271
What must flight crews do if they return to land at the departure airport?
Follow the Overweight Landing unannunciated non-normal checklist
272
What flap setting combination provides equivalent go-around performance to the 5/25 flap combination?
Flaps 20 landing with flaps 5 go-around
273
What combinations of flap settings can be implemented in the OPT?
* No Ice 5/25
* No Ice 20/25
* No Ice 20/30
* Ice 5/25
* Ice 20/25
* Ice 20/30
## Footnote
The total number of selections is limited to five.
274
What has Boeing received multiple reports about regarding flight crews?
Flight crews taking off with incorrect numbers due to automatic upload or entry errors
## Footnote
This indicates potential training or procedural issues.
275
What can incorrect V-speeds during takeoff lead to?
A tail strike, a runway overrun after high speed RTO, insufficient obstacle clearance, a low altitude stick shaker/stall.
276
What are common causes of incorrect V-speeds?
Incorrect weight entries, crew entry errors.
277
What does Boeing recommend during preflight regarding FMC CDU entries?
All entries made by one pilot must be verified by the other pilot.
278
What is the responsibility of airlines and flight crews regarding data entry?
To ensure that proper data is entered.
279
What types of lithium batteries are commonly used?
* Lithium metal (non-rechargeable)
* Lithium ion (rechargeable)
280
What can cause lithium batteries to overheat?
* Short circuit
* Overcharge
* Rapid discharge
* Extreme temperatures
* Mishandling
* Internal defect
281
What is a thermal runaway in lithium batteries?
A chemical reaction that causes the internal temperature and pressure to rise.
282
What is the temperature that overheated lithium battery cells can reach?
Up to 900°C (1,652°F).
283
What are the three steps to fighting a fire that contains lithium battery cells?
* Extinguishing the fire
* Moving the device out of the flight deck, if possible
* Cooling the remaining cells to prevent or stop a thermal runaway
284
What should be used to access a lithium battery fire if needed?
The crash axe
285
What are the five calculated performance values that determine an airplane's takeoff performance?
* N1/EPR thrust target
* Flap position
* VI
* VR
* V2
## Footnote
These values are critical for accurate takeoff calculations.
286
What factors contribute to the five calculated performance values?
* OAT
* Assumed temperature
* Zero fuel weight
* Fuel weight
* Available runway length
## Footnote
Errors in these factors will lead to errors in the calculated performance values.
287
Where can the five calculated values be found?
On the FMC TAKEOFF REF page in all affected models
## Footnote
Pilots should compare these values against other approved sources.
288
What is the acceptable difference between FMC calculated N1 target and dispatch calculated N1 target?
Within 0.2%
## Footnote
Differences greater than 1% may indicate errors in inputs or calculations.
289
What are engine fire detection and warning systems designed to alert?
They are designed to alert when a fire originates in the core compartment of the engine known as the 'fire zone'.
## Footnote
Fires can also originate in adjacent areas like fan compartments or where flammable liquids are directed.
290
What is extremely improbable in the air regarding engine fires?
Fire that originates outside the engine core.
## Footnote
This is due to airflow dynamics.
291
What may happen if a fire originates outside the detection loop systems?
The fire may not be detected by the engine fire system.
## Footnote
An example is the fuel rupture ignition on the 767 at Fort Lauderdale.
292
What does the termination of the engine fire warning indicate?
It does not necessarily mean the fire has been extinguished; it means that fire is not detected in the monitored areas.
## Footnote
It could also mean the fire has migrated outside of the detection area.
293
When do tailpipe fires typically occur?
They occur almost exclusively during engine start or shutdown.
## Footnote
Tailpipe fires are confined to the engine core exhaust.
294
What is required for flight deck crew to be aware of a tailpipe fire?
Confirmation from outside observers, such as ground personnel.
295
What is the first action to take when dealing with an engine fire in the engine core compartment fire zone?
Place the FUEL CONTROL switch to CUTOFF
## Footnote
This action removes fuel from the fire and shuts off fuel at the engine and spar valves.
296
What does the discharge of a fire bottle do in the context of extinguishing a fire?
Introduces a cooling effect and temporarily displaces some oxygen
## Footnote
This action augments the effect of cutting off the fuel.
297
What is the probability of needing to discharge a second fire bottle if the fire remains confined to the fire zone?
Low
## Footnote
The design premise of the second fire bottle is for use if there is a re-ignition or a second fire.
298
What happens to the effectiveness of fire bottles if a fire spreads to other materials in the fire zone?
Substantially reduced
## Footnote
Fire bottles are ineffective if the fire has originated in or spread to adjacent materials, components, or fluids.
299
What are the three concurrent priorities when dealing with engine fires on the ground?
* Communicate with the cabin to control the situation
* Extinguish the fire
* Evacuate the passengers without delay (if necessary)
## Footnote
These priorities differ from those in-flight.
300
What is the significance of the ECL in engine fire management?
Provides aligned steps for the FIRE ENG (L, R) NNCs based on air/ground conditions
## Footnote
This allows flight crew to use ECL instead of QRH for annunciated engine fires.
301
Fill in the blank: Boeing does not recommend delaying evacuation by waiting to see if __________ extinguishes the fire.
discharging a second fire bottle
## Footnote
The second fire bottle is discharged on the Evacuation NNC if used.
302
What is the main goal of the first notification to the cabin during an engine fire situation?
Control the situation and discourage passengers from starting an evacuation
## Footnote
The flight crew directs passengers to remain seated.
303
What condition statement supports the use of the Fire Eng on Ground L, R NNC for an unannunciated engine fire?
Fire is detected in the affected engine
## Footnote
This allows the checklist to be used in various scenarios.
304
What was one of the main objectives of developing the Fire Eng on Ground L, R NNC?
Prevent passenger-initiated evacuations
## Footnote
This is crucial for maintaining control during an emergency.
305
Who makes the evacuation decision in the event of an emergency?
The captain
## Footnote
The captain's decision is based on the situation and all available information.
306
What can cause radio altimeters to be unreliable?
A combination of internal airplane faults and/or external interference
## Footnote
Various factors contribute to the reliability of radio altimeters.
307
What are the three possible effects when a radio altimeter (RA) is subjected to potential interference?
* Fail Warning
* No Computed Data (NCD)
* Erroneous
## Footnote
Each effect has different implications for flight operations.
308
What happens during a Fail Warning for a radio altimeter?
Alerts including flags and other system alerts are triggered
## Footnote
Fail warnings indicate a critical issue with the altimeter.
309
What does No Computed Data (NCD) imply for the radio altimeter?
No data is generated by the RA, and data on the PFD and HUD are removed from view
## Footnote
This condition is normal for the RA and does not generate an alert.
310
What occurs when erroneous data is sent to airplane systems from the RA?
Erroneous data can be shown on the PFD and HUD and may be erroneously high or low
## Footnote
This situation can lead to misinterpretation of altitude information.
311
What is the purpose of the Boeing Multi Operator Message (MOM)?
To inform operators about airports prone to interference or a higher rate of anomalies
## Footnote
The MOM specifies if performance considerations are required.
312
What is the Fail Warning condition?
RA failure is alerted with SGL SOURCE RAD ALT message and RA flags on PFD and HUD
## Footnote
Guidance exists for this condition in Normal and Non-Normal procedures
313
What does NCD stand for in airplane systems?
No Computed Data
## Footnote
Indicates the normal state of the RA when it is not needed in flight
314
What happens if one RA is in an NCD state while the other operates normally?
Autothrottle function reduces thrust to idle at 25 feet and other FDEs may be present
## Footnote
FDEs refer to Flight Deck Effects
315
What occurs if both RAs are in an NCD state?
Any FDEs of one RA NCD can be present along with erroneous FDEs
## Footnote
This includes potential issues from the Erroneous state
316
What is the Erroneous condition in RA indications?
RA indications appear normal but erroneous data is sent to associated systems
## Footnote
This condition can lead to various FDEs
317
What caution message may show below 1,450 feet during an ILS approach?
NO AUTOLAND Caution message
## Footnote
This occurs when autopilot is engaged
318
What happens to the autopilot when LAND 2 or LAND 3 are shown?
Autopilot can disconnect
## Footnote
This is a potential consequence of the Erroneous condition
319
What issue may occur with thrust reversers during landing?
Thrust reversers may not deploy above 65 knots during landing roll
## Footnote
This is a specific effect of the Erroneous condition
320
Fill in the blank: The _______ may be inoperative during the landing roll.
Auto speedbrake
321
What may not show on the PFD during an Erroneous condition?
RA indication and RADIO minimums indications
## Footnote
This can lead to confusion during critical phases of flight
322
What happens to the localizer/FAC deviation alert in an Erroneous condition?
May not show on PFD and HUD
## Footnote
However, the deviation indications are still available
323
What is a possible effect on the engines during the Erroneous condition?
Engines may remain at approach idle after touchdown until 65 knots
## Footnote
This can impact the landing rollout
324
What excessive descent rate alerts may be unavailable in the GPWS?
"SINK RATE" and "PULL UP" alerts
## Footnote
These alerts are critical for avoiding terrain conflicts
325
What may happen to radio altitude-based altitude and minimums aural callouts during approach?
They may be unavailable or erroneous
326
What type of alert might not be available in TCAS?
TCAS alerts
327
Fill in the blank: The effects of RA anomalies on the Thrust Management Function (TMF), reversers, spoilers, and ______ can significantly affect landing performance.
autobrakes
328
What should flight crews apply when known instances of interference occur?
Rad Alt Unreliable NNC or the SGI
329
What type of interference is reported to be increasing in GNSS?
GPS jamming and spoofing
330
What are some functions on the 787 that utilize GPS data?
* Inertial Reference System
* Flight Management Function (FMF/FMC)
* GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain
* ADS-B
* Time/Clock
* Some HUD functions
* Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS)
## Footnote
HUD stands for Head-Up Display
331
What is the effect of jamming on GPS signals?
Causes a loss of measurement and degradation of the position/velocity/time (PVT) solution
332
Define spoofing in relation to GPS.
A fake signal that causes the receiver to output misleading data, such as an incorrect position or time
333
What type of system does the 787 use for GPS navigation?
Hybrid GPS-inertial system
334
What happens to the hybrid GPS-inertial system during jamming events?
Remains valid and available when GPS receiver data becomes invalid due to loss of signal or signal interference
335
How does the hybrid GPS-inertial system handle periods of GPS data unavailability?
It can 'coast' through periods while maintaining required navigational performance (RNP) requirements
336
What are some potential Flight Deck Effects (FDEs) of RFI?
* Erroneous GPS position data to the hybrid IRS/GPS solution
* Inaccurate GPS position input to the FMF
* ANP information may be degraded
* NAV UNABLE RNP Advisory message may show
337
Fill in the blank: Jamming causes a slow, gradual increase in _______.
ANP
338
What can be affected by spoofing regarding the Flight Management Function (FMF)?
* Flight path (LNAV, VNAV, ADS-C)
* Fuel prediction
339
What happens to the GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain function during jamming?
Uses IRS data as a backup when GPS position data is lost
340
What advisory message can indicate that terrain warnings may occur?
TERR POS Advisory message
341
What may cause terrain to be removed from the ND during GPS signal loss?
IRS horizontal position uncertainty exceeding limits
342
What happens when IRS horizontal position uncertainty exceeds limits?
Terrain is removed from the ND and TERR POS message shows.
343
What advisory messages can show due to GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain issues?
* TERR POS Advisory message
* GND PROX SYS Advisory message
* TERR FAIL on the ND
344
What should pilots consider when receiving a GPWS Look-Ahead Terrain warning at cruise altitude?
Pilot discretion can determine the alert to be false.
345
What happens when ADS-B capability is lost due to jamming?
Coordination with ATC is necessary.
346
What happens to the FPV of HUD during prolonged GPS signal loss due to jamming?
Lateral displacement of up to two degrees.
347
What can be affected by spoofing in HUD functions?
Lateral misalignment of HUD FPV and runway depiction.
348
What can happen to autopilot if GPS data is erroneous during approach?
* Autopilot disconnect
* LOC and/or GLS mode fail
* Removal of flight director bars
349
What can be done if GPS spoofing is suspected?
Revert to DME/DME updating and/or reference ground-based navigation aids.
350
What can be temporarily disabled as a preventative measure against GPS RFI?
GPS updating in the FMF.
351
What happens to the FMC if GPS measurement data is lost for a long time?
The FMC uses another navigation source like inertial navigation or conventional navigation aids for updating position
## Footnote
This includes DME-DME or VOR-DME.
352
What is the normal source of FMC navigation update mode?
Hybrid GPS-inertial
## Footnote
This source is indicated on the ND as 'GPS'.
353
What happens when hybrid GPS-inertial is unavailable?
FMC selects the most accurate updating source, either radio or inertial
## Footnote
This is based on the smallest actual navigational performance (ANP).
354
Where can the current FMC position source and associated ANP be found?
POS REF Page 2/4 and the ND
## Footnote
The display includes a table indicating the primary FMC position update source.
355
What conditions must be met for the FMC to change to LOC updating?
1. Tuned localizer associated with destination runway
2. Less than 6000 feet above localizer navaid elevation
3. Less than 20 NM from localizer for front course approach
4. Less than 12 NM for back course approach
5. Within 1.25° of localizer centerline
6. Difference between airplane track and localizer course is less than 45° intercept angle
## Footnote
These conditions ensure accurate localizer navigation.
356
What key is used to view the symbols for the GPS, IRU, and radio positions on the ND map?
POS key
## Footnote
Selecting this key will show the relative positions to the FMC position.
357
What is the purpose of the Navaid Inhibit Supplementary Procedure?
Provides steps to inhibit navigation sources
358
How many independent high-integrity GPS receivers does the B787 have?
Two
359
What do the GPS receivers on Boeing airplanes utilize for error detection?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) algorithms
360
What additional units does the B787 ERS have?
Two Inertial Reference Units (IRU) and two Attitude Heading Reference Units (AHRU)
361
What type of data do the INRs send to the ERS?
GPS raw measurement data, position, time, and RAIM integrity data
362
Fill in the blank: The GPS system in the B787 has _______ GPS antennas.
Two
363
What is the effect of keeping GPS updating ON during GPS interference events?
FMC navigation and HUD PFV display perform best.
364
When does the FMC switch to RADIO updating?
When RADIO provides better position accuracy/integrity.
365
What triggers the FMC to switch to INERTIAL updating?
When RADIO update is not available or not enabled, and hybrid GPS-inertial HIL exceeds 4.0nm.
366
What does the FMC use for position correction during an ILS approach when GPS NAV update is OFF?
Localizer deviation.
367
What navigation source does the FMC use if radio updating is inhibited during oceanic operations?
The IRS as the only navigation source
## Footnote
This is indicated in the system logs when GPS and radio data are unavailable.
368
What does the HUD use to position the Flight Path Vector (FPV) symbol laterally?
GPS-aided FMC track
## Footnote
This positioning is essential for accurate navigation and drift angle computation.
369
What can cause a lateral position error of the FPV symbol up to 2º?
Loss of GPS signal for a long time, selecting GPS updating to OFF, or an undetected GPS error
## Footnote
These factors can significantly affect the accuracy of the flight path vector.
370
What limits the effect of NAV track on the FPV symbol during GPS signal issues?
The HUD logic limits the effect to a 2º difference from the voted inertial track value
## Footnote
This ensures that the flight path remains as accurate as possible despite GPS errors.
371
What causes the Advisory message NAV SINGLE GPS?
Failure of a GPS receiver, a GPS antenna, or loss of the RF path between the antenna and the receiver
## Footnote
If both GPS systems fail, the Advisory message GPS shows.
372
What happens when the ANP exceeds the RNP?
The NAV UNABLE RNP Caution message shows.
373
What may not function during GPS jamming or smart jamming?
* GPS altitude (GPS ALT)
* TCP Alternate Navigation
## Footnote
Data can be missing or incorrect.
374
What does the GPWS use as a backup when the GPS signal is unavailable?
IRS data.
375
What message shows when the IRS horizontal position uncertainty exceeds limits?
'TERR POS' message shows.
376
What occurs if the IRS horizontal position uncertainty exceeds accuracy limits?
The terrain is removed from the ND.
377
What must be selected to inhibit the GPWS look-ahead terrain and obstacle display?
TERR OVRD.
