CH9 FLIGHT CONTROLS Flashcards
1
Q
What does the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS Disconnect Switch do?
A
Disconnects the primary flight computers from the flight control system and puts the flight control system in direct mode
The AUTO option can be reselected to attempt restoration of secondary or normal mode operation.
2
Q
What happens when the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS Disconnect Switch is set to AUTO?
A
Attempts restoration of secondary or normal mode operation
When the system operates in normal mode, it can switch to secondary or direct modes due to system faults.
3
Q
What does the DISC light indicate when illuminated?
A
The primary flight computers are disconnected and the system is in direct mode
The light appears amber when this condition occurs, either automatically or manually.
4
Q
What are the modes of operation for the flight control system?
A
Normal mode, secondary mode, direct mode
5
Q
Fill in the blank: The primary flight computers can be disconnected from the flight control system using the _______.
A
[PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS Disconnect Switch]
6
Q
What is the role of the Pitch and Stabilizer Trim Systems in the flight control?
A
Control the aircraft’s pitch and stabilizer trim adjustments
7
Q
What is the function of the pitch trim switches?
A
They are spring-loaded to neutral and can directly move the stabilizer on the ground or change the trim reference airspeed in the air.
In secondary and direct modes, they also directly move the stabilizer.
8
Q
What happens when the control wheel is rotated?
A
It deflects the ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers in the desired direction.
9
Q
What is the purpose of the control column?
A
It commands the airplane to pitch in the desired direction by pushing or pulling.
In normal mode, it deflects the elevator and horizontal stabilizer; in secondary and direct modes, it deflects the elevator.
10
Q
In normal mode, what does pushing or pulling the control column deflect?
A
Elevator and horizontal stabilizer.
11
Q
In secondary and direct modes, what does the control column deflect?
A
Elevator.
12
Q
What does the FMC Stabilizer Takeoff Setting display?
A
Displays the FMC calculated stabilizer takeoff setting in units of trim
The display is shown in magenta color.
13
Q
What happens when FMC data is not present or is invalid?
A
The digital readout is not shown
14
Q
What does the Stabilizer Position Indicator show?
A
Displays actual stabilizer position in 0.25 increments from 0.25 to 16.75 units of trim
15
Q
When does the digital readout and pointer show white on the Stabilizer Position Indicator?
A
When the trim pointer is outside the green band
16
Q
What color indicates that the trim pointer is within the green band?
A
Green
This occurs when FMC performance data is entered.
17
Q
What does it indicate when the stabilizer signal is not present or invalid?
A
The digital readout and pointer are not shown
18
Q
What is shown on the digital readout when the stabilizer trim is inoperative?
A
An ‘X’ replaces the digital readout
The box, the ‘X’, and the pointer show amber.
19
Q
What does the green band indicate?
A
The allowable takeoff trim range
This is based on V1, gross weight, and CG information from the FMC.
20
Q
What is the default green band range before performance data is entered into the FMC?
A
From 4 to 9 units of trim
This range is established prior to entering specific performance data.
21
Q
What happens when the green band signal is not present or is invalid?
A
The green band is not shown
22
Q
What is the function of the Alternate (ALTN) PITCH TRIM Switches on the B787?
A
Spring-loaded to neutral, they directly move the stabilizer on the ground and change the trim reference airspeed in the air in normal mode.
In secondary and direct modes, they also directly move the stabilizer.
23
Q
What happens when both Alternate (ALTN) PITCH TRIM Switches are pushed on the ground?
A
Directly moves the stabilizer.
24
Q
What is the NORM position of the Stabilizer (STAB) Cutout Switches?
A
Electrical power is supplied to the related stabilizer control unit.
This includes power from the left and right 235 Vac buses.
25
What occurs if unscheduled stabilizer motion is detected?
Electrical power to the related stabilizer control unit is automatically shut off.
26
What does the CUTOUT position of the Stabilizer (STAB) Cutout Switches do?
Shuts off electrical power to the related stabilizer control unit.
27
Fill in the blank: The Stabilizer Trim System is associated with _______.
Pitch and Stabilizer Trim Systems.
28
What does the RUDDER TRIM Indicator display?
Digital readout displays rudder position in 0.2 increments from 0.0 to 1.0 unit and in 0.5 increments between 1.0 and 17.0 units of trim.
## Footnote
An L or R is displayed to indicate non-zero rudder trim.
29
What happens when the rudder signal is not present or is invalid?
The digital readout, left/right indication, and pointer are not shown on the rudder position indicator.
30
What is displayed when the rudder trim is inoperative?
The digital readout is replaced with an 'X', and the box, the 'X', and the pointer show amber. The pointer remains on the scale at the last known trim position.
31
What is the function of the RUDDER Trim Selector?
It is spring-loaded to neutral and trims the rudder in the desired direction.
## Footnote
Rotating to the detent runs at low speed, while rotating past the detent runs at high speed.
32
What effect does rotating the RUDDER Trim Selector have during normal flight control mode?
It disables the transfer of any steady state lateral control to the rudder, potentially causing increased drag and fuel consumption for the remainder of the flight.
33
How do the rudder pedals react during rudder trim operation?
The rudder pedals move with rudder trim operation.
34
What is the function of the rudder pedals?
Push - deflects the rudder in the desired direction.
## Footnote
For additional information, refer to Brake System, Chapter 14, Section 20 and Nosewheel Steering, Chapter 14, Section 20.
35
What happens to the speedbrake lever when thrust lever is advanced to the takeoff thrust position?
The speedbrake lever moves to DOWN and all spoiler panels retract.
36
What occurs when both reverse thrust levers are raised to the reverse idle detent?
The speedbrake lever moves to UP and all spoiler panels extend.
37
Fill in the blank: The speedbrake lever moves to _______ when the thrust lever is advanced.
DOWN
38
Fill in the blank: The speedbrake lever moves to _______ when both reverse thrust levers are raised.
UP
39
What is the position of the speedbrake lever when all spoiler panels are retracted?
DOWN (detent)
40
What does the 'ARMED' position of the speedbrake lever indicate?
The auto speedbrake system is armed
41
What happens when the speedbrake lever is in the UP position?
Required spoiler panels extend to their maximum in-flight or on-ground position
## Footnote
Intermediate positions can also be selected for specific aerodynamic needs.
42
What is the primary mode of the Flap Lever?
Positions the slats and flaps hydraulically
43
What does the secondary mode of the Flap Lever do?
Positions the slats and flaps hydraulically and/or electrically when the primary mode fails
44
What does the Flap Gate at position 1 prevent?
Inadvertent retraction of the slats
45
What does the Flap Gate at position 20 prevent?
Inadvertent retraction of the flaps past the go-around position
46
What happens when the Alternate Flaps Arm (ALTN FLAPS ARM) Switch is pushed?
Arms the alternate flap control mode and disables primary and secondary flap/slat mode operation
47
What protections are not available when the Alternate Flaps Arm Switch is activated?
Asymmetry/skew and uncommanded motion protection, slat autogap, and flap/slat load relief
FLAP LEVER INOP
48
What is the function of the Alternate Flaps Selector in the RET position?
Retraction is accomplished electrically and sequenced so that full flap retraction occurs before the slats begin to retract
49
What does the OFF position of the Alternate Flaps Selector do?
Deactivates alternate flaps
50
What occurs when the Alternate Flaps Selector is in the EXT position?
The slats and flaps are electrically extended, with maximum extension at flaps 20 and slats at midrange position
51
What does the Flap Limit Placard indicate?
Flap extended speed limits for the aircraft
## Footnote
Speed limits are specified for various flap positions.
52
What does the Normal Flap Position Indication display?
Combined flap and slat positions
## Footnote
This occurs when all surfaces are operating normally.
53
When is the flap position indication removed?
10 seconds after slat retraction
54
What mode must the control be in for the Normal Flap Position Indication to function?
Primary (hydraulic) mode
55
True or False: The indicator shows continuous motion when all surfaces are operating normally.
True
## Footnote
Continuous motion indicates normal operation.
56
What does the EICAS display show when the flaps are UP?
The slats and flaps are retracted
## Footnote
This indicates that the aircraft is in a clean configuration.
57
What position do the slats extend to when the flap position is 1?
The slats extend to the midrange position
## Footnote
The flaps are not extended in this position.
58
What are the flap positions associated with the slats remaining in the midrange position?
5, 10, 15, 17, 18, and 20
## Footnote
In these positions, the flaps extend to the commanded position.
59
What happens when the flap position is 25?
The slats extend to the fully extended position. The flaps do not move.
60
What does the flap position of 30 indicate?
The flaps extend to the commanded position
61
What color indicates that the slats or flaps are in transit to the commanded position?
Magenta
62
What color indicates that the slats or flaps are in the commanded position?
Green
63
Fill in the blank: The flap lever position is indicated by a line and number that changes color to ______ when the slats or flaps are in transit.
Magenta
64
What does the EICAS display indicate for flap/slat load relief?
LOAD RELIEF
65
What does the Flap/Slat LOAD RELIEF Indication display when retracting the flaps?
Displayed (white) - flap load relief is retracting the flaps, or inhibiting extension, as required to prevent air load damage due to excessive airspeed.
## Footnote
This indication is crucial for preventing structural damage to the aircraft.
66
What happens to flap and slat position indications if any flap/slat is non-normal?
Slat and flap positions are shown independently. Each wing is also shown separately.
67
How is indicator motion represented between flap detents?
Indicator motion is continuous.
## Footnote
This provides real-time feedback on flap and slat positions.
68
What indication color is used when operating in secondary mode?
White.
## Footnote
This color indicates that the system is not in its normal operational mode.
69
What color indicates an issue with FLAPS DRIVE or SLATS DRIVE EICAS?
Amber.
70
What do the slat and flap position indications show during extension?
The slat indication fills up (forward) and the flap indication fills down (aft)
## Footnote
This indicates the current position of slats and flaps during extension.
71
How is loss of position information displayed in the flap and slat indicators?
White outline with no fill and no flap lever position indication
## Footnote
This indicates that the system is unable to provide position data.
72
What is the limitation of flap and slat extension in alternate mode?
Extension is limited to slats midrange and flaps 20
## Footnote
This mode is activated when the alternate control mode is armed.
73
What do the flap position index marks reference?
Flaps UP, 5, and 20
74
How is loss of position information indicated in alternate mode?
White outline with no fill and no position index marks or numbers
75
How can the flight controls synoptic be displayed?
By pushing the systems (SYS) display switch, then selecting the FCTL synoptic key from the menu page
76
What indicates an unknown aileron position?
A gray scale and no pointer
77
How are failed control surfaces or trim functions indicated?
An amber border with an 'X' inside
78
What does a blanked spoiler display indicate?
Unknown position or failed electric spoilers
## Footnote
This applies to the affected spoiler.
79
What color indicates a normally functioning hydraulic system?
Green
## Footnote
This indicates that the associated hydraulic system is functioning normally.
80
What color indicates a failed hydraulic system?
Amber
## Footnote
This indicates that the associated hydraulic system has failed.
81
What does green indicate in electrical systems?
The associated electrical system is functioning normally
82
What does amber indicate in electrical systems?
The associated electrical system has failed
83
What does the FLT CTRL MODE indication show when flight controls revert to secondary or direct modes?
Amber SECONDARY or DIRECT
## Footnote
Green text shows for NORMAL mode.
84
What color indicates that an Actuator Control Electronic (ACE) is functioning normally?
Green
85
What color indicates a failed Actuator Control Electronic (ACE)?
Amber
86
What does the NORM position indicate for flight control surfaces?
The respective flight control surfaces are unlocked.
## Footnote
NORM is the standard operational mode for the flight control surfaces.
87
What does the LOCK position indicate for flight control surfaces?
The respective flight control surfaces are electronically locked and the EICAS advisory message FLT CONTROL LOCKED is displayed.
## Footnote
LOCK is indicated by an illuminated amber light.
88
What does the Flight Control Surfaces Lock FAIL Light indicate when illuminated white?
A flight control surfaces lock switch is selected and any of the respective flight control surfaces are not locked.
89
What inputs does the primary flight control system use to command the flight control surfaces?
Conventional control wheel, column, and pedal inputs from the pilot.
## Footnote
These inputs are electronically processed to control the flight surfaces.
90
What are the three operating modes of the primary flight control system?
Normal mode, secondary mode, direct mode
## Footnote
The system is highly redundant.
91
What components make up the pilot controls?
* Alternate flap switches
* Alternate pitch trim switches
* Control wheel pitch trim switches
* Rudder trim selector
* Stabilizer cutout switches
* Flap lever
* Speedbrake lever
* Two control columns
* Two control wheels
* Two pairs of rudder pedals
92
What happens when multiple ACE and/or hydraulic system failures occur?
The EICAS caution message FLIGHT CONTROLS is displayed
## Footnote
This indicates loss of a significant number of control surfaces or other significant faults.
93
How do ACEs interact with pilot control inputs?
They can transmit inputs directly to the control surfaces or to the PFCs
## Footnote
ACEs also receive control commands back from the PFCs.
94
What types of data do PFCs use to compute control surface commands?
* Air data
* Inertial data
* Flap and slat position
* Engine thrust
* Radio altitude
95
True or False: The autopilot sends commands directly to the flight control surfaces.
False
## Footnote
The autopilot sends commands to the PFCs, which then produce control surface commands.
96
Fill in the blank: The secondary flight controls consist of _______.
[high lift devices consisting of flaps and slats]
## Footnote
These are hydraulically powered with an electrically powered backup system.
97
What mechanisms allow pilots to maintain control during a jam?
Jam override mechanisms
## Footnote
Pilots can apply force to the other column, wheel, or rudder pedals.
98
What allows pilot control of pitch and roll in the event of a loss of all hydraulic power?
Electrically actuated stabilizer and two spoiler pairs allow pilot control using primary pitch trim switches, alternate pitch trim switches, and the control wheel.
## Footnote
This system ensures that pilots can maintain control even in the unlikely scenario of hydraulic failure.
99
In case of a complete loss of flight control signaling, what enables pilot control of pitch and roll?
Direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabilizer and a spoiler pair allows control using alternate pitch trim switches and the control wheel.
## Footnote
This backup system is crucial for maintaining control under extreme failure conditions.
100
What flight control surfaces provide pitch control?
* Two elevators
* A movable horizontal stabilizer
101
What flight control surfaces are responsible for roll control?
* Two flaperons
* Two ailerons
* Fourteen spoilers
102
What is the role of the single rudder in flight control?
Yaw control.
103
Where are the flaperons located on the aircraft?
Between the inboard and outboard flaps on both wings.
## Footnote
Flaperons enhance roll control and improve slow speed performance.
104
What happens to the ailerons during high-speed flight?
The ailerons are locked out.
## Footnote
In high-speed conditions, flaperons and spoilers provide sufficient roll control.
105
At what speed does the rudder become aerodynamically effective during takeoff?
Approximately 60 knots.
## Footnote
This speed is crucial for effective yaw control during the critical takeoff phase.
106
What assists the flaperons and ailerons in roll control during low-speed flight?
The ailerons operate to augment roll control.
## Footnote
This feature is especially important for maintaining control at lower speeds.
107
What is the primary function of the spoilers in roll control?
Assisted roll control through asymmetry.
108
What is the primary function of flaps and slats?
Provide high lift for takeoff, approach, and landing
109
What type of spoilers are used as speedbrakes?
Symmetric spoilers
110
Where are the flight control surfaces lock switches located?
On the overhead panel
111
What is the purpose of the flight control lock switches?
To lock out the flight control surfaces on the tail and wings for maintenance
112
What advisory message is displayed when a flight control surface is locked?
FLT CONTROL LOCKED
113
At what groundspeed do flight control surfaces automatically unlock?
40 knots
114
What does the flight control lock FAIL light indicate?
A lock switch is in the LOCK position and associated surfaces do not lock
115
List the flight control surface locations.
* Aileron (1 per side)
* Flaps (2 per side)
* Rudder
* Elevator
* Spoilers (7 per side)
* Krueger Flaps (1 per side)
* Stabilizer
* Flaperon (1 per side)
116
In normal mode, how do pilot control inputs get processed?
Four ACEs receive inputs, send signals to three PFCs, which compute control surface commands.
117
What happens to pilot controls when the autopilot is engaged in normal mode?
The autopilot system sends control surface commands to PFCs, backdriving the pilot controls.
118
What is the condition for autopilot operation?
Autopilot is only available during normal mode operation.
119
What is required for the first series of flight control self-tests after landing?
Flaps and speedbrakes retracted, all hydraulic power on, groundspeed below 20 knots for 5 seconds.
120
How long do the first series of self-tests take to complete?
Approximately 90 seconds.
121
What conditions must be met during the second series of flight control self-tests?
Hydraulics must remain unpowered and flaps/speedbrakes must not be moved.
122
How long do the second series of self-tests take to complete?
Approximately 55 seconds.
123
What conditions are required for the third series of self-tests?
Both engines shut down and PMG power off.
124
How long do the third series of self-tests take to complete?
Approximately 90 seconds.
125
What could cause a fault condition in flight control self-tests?
Skipping tests, interrupting tests, or failing to accomplish hydraulic power-off tests on consecutive flights.
126
What is the purpose of the fault condition in the flight control system?
It may affect dispatch and require maintenance tests.
127
What happens during the self-tests in the Primary Flight Control System?
EICAS alert and status messages display, and various failures display on the flight controls synoptic page.
## Footnote
Once self-tests are complete, the EICAS messages are removed, and the display returns to normal.
128
Fill in the blank: In Normal Mode, the PFCs generate __________ commands.
control surface
## Footnote
Control surface commands are essential for flight maneuverability.
129
What is the role of Actuator Control Electronics (ACES) in the flight control system?
Provide redundant control in each axis
## Footnote
ACES enhances the reliability of control inputs.
130
What does the primary flight control system provide during manual flight?
Flight envelope protection
131
What are the methods used by flight envelope protection to provide crew awareness?
Tactile, aural, and visual cues
## Footnote
These cues help pilots maintain awareness of envelope margins.
132
Does envelope protection reduce pilot control authority?
No
133
List the protection functions included in flight envelope protection.
* Bank angle protection
* Overspeed protection
* Stall protection
134
When does the PFC automatically revert to secondary mode?
When inertial or air data is insufficient or when slat and flap position data is unavailable
135
What do the PFCs do in secondary mode?
Use simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands
136
What is the status of elevator and rudder sensitivity in secondary mode?
More sensitive at some airspeeds
## Footnote
This sensitivity can affect handling characteristics.
137
What functions are not available in secondary mode? (List at least three)
* Autopilot
* Auto speedbrakes
* Envelope protection
* Gust suppression
* Pitch compensation
* Roll/yaw asymmetry compensation
* Tail strike protection
## Footnote
The lack of these functions can impact flight safety and control.
138
What does the EICAS caution message FLIGHT CONTROL MODE indicate?
The primary flight control system is in the secondary mode
## Footnote
The secondary mode cannot be manually selected.
139
What triggers the transition to the direct mode in the Flight Control System?
Failure of all three PFCs or loss of communication with the PFCs
## Footnote
The direct mode can also be manually selected.
MOVE PRIMARY FLT COMPUTERS DISC SW TO DISC
140
Fill in the blank: The direct mode can be manually selected by moving the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS disconnect switch to _______.
DISC
## Footnote
This action allows pilots to override the current control mode.
141
What happens in the direct mode of the flight control system?
Pilot inputs are sent directly to the control surface actuators without PFC command generation.
142
What caution message is displayed when the system is in direct mode?
PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS.
## Footnote
This indicates the flight control system is operating in direct mode.
143
List the functions that are not available in direct mode.
* autopilot
* auto speedbrakes
* envelope protection
* gust suppression
* pitch compensation
* roll/yaw asymmetry compensation
* tail strike protection
## Footnote
These functions are disabled to allow for direct pilot control.
144
True or False: The airplane handling qualities in direct mode are significantly different from the secondary mode.
False.
## Footnote
Handling qualities are almost the same as in secondary mode.
145
In direct mode, how is yaw damping affected?
Yaw damping is degraded.
146
What is the function of the Primary Flight Control System in Direct Mode?
Provides redundant control in each axis
## Footnote
The system includes various control surfaces such as spoilers, ailerons, flaperons, elevators, and rudder.
147
In Normal Mode, how do pilot control inputs affect pitch control?
Control column input commands the PFCs to generate a pitch maneuver based on column displacement
## Footnote
The PFCs automatically position the elevator and stabilizer to achieve the commanded maneuver.
148
What do PFCs do in response to pilot commands?
Constantly monitor airplane response and reposition the elevator and stabilizer accordingly
149
Fill in the blank: In Normal Mode, the control characteristics are similar to _______.
[conventional airplanes]
150
What do the PFCs provide to minimize airplane pitch responses?
Pitch compensation
## Footnote
PFCs utilize control surface commands to minimize pitch responses to thrust changes, configuration changes, turbulence, and turns.
151
What is the function of PFCs during turns up to 30° of bank?
Maintain altitude without additional column back pressure
## Footnote
The pilot does not need to add additional column back pressure for turns up to 30° of bank.
152
What happens when the bank angle exceeds 30°?
Pilot needs to add column back pressure
## Footnote
For turns of more than 30° of bank, additional column back pressure is required.
153
How do PFCs behave as airspeed changes?
Require pilot control column inputs or trim changes
154
What command do PFCs issue during a manual landing flare?
Slight nose down pitch command
## Footnote
This allows the pilot to apply normal aft column force during the landing flare.
155
How is primary pitch trim controlled?
By dual pitch trim switches on each control wheel
## Footnote
Both switches must be moved to command trim changes.
156
What happens to primary pitch trim switches when the autopilot is engaged?
They are inhibited
## Footnote
Pitch trim does not move the control column.
157
How does primary pitch trim operate differently on the ground compared to in flight?
On the ground, the stabilizer is directly positioned; in flight, it makes inputs to the PFCs
## Footnote
The trim reference speed is the speed at which the airplane stabilizes without control column inputs.
158
What is the trim reference speed?
The speed at which the airplane stabilizes with no control column inputs
## Footnote
Once trimmed to zero, the airplane maintains a constant speed.
159
What do the PFCs do when pilot trim inputs are made?
Automatically move the elevators and stabilizer
## Footnote
This is to achieve the trim change and streamline the elevator.
160
What is the function of alternate pitch trim?
Controlled by dual pitch trim switches on the control stand
## Footnote
Both switches must be moved to command trim changes.
161
What is the priority of alternate pitch trim over primary pitch trim?
Alternate pitch trim commands have priority
## Footnote
This applies in all flight control modes.
162
How does alternate pitch trim operate in flight compared to on the ground?
On the ground, stabilizer is directly positioned; in flight, changes to trim reference speed
## Footnote
This is similar to the operation of primary pitch trim switches.
163
What operates the stabilizer in alternate pitch trim mode?
The pilot uses the alternate pitch trim switches
164
What are the functions of pitch envelope protection?
* Overspeed protection
* Stall protection
## Footnote
These functions enhance crew awareness of approaching overspeed or stall conditions.
165
What does overspeed protection do?
Reduces the likelihood of exceeding VMO or MMO
## Footnote
It enhances crew awareness of approaching an overspeed condition and limits speed trimming.
166
How does overspeed protection limit the airplane's speed?
By inhibiting trim in the nose down direction at VMO/MMO
## Footnote
The pilot must apply continuous forward column pressure at twice the normal force to maintain airspeed.
167
What is the purpose of stall protection?
Reduces the likelihood of exceeding the stall angle of attack
## Footnote
It provides enhanced awareness of the approach to a stall condition.
168
At what speed does stall protection inhibit trim in the nose up direction?
Approximately the minimum manoeuvring speed
## Footnote
This speed is at the top of the amber band at lower altitudes and can be 10 to 20 knots lower at higher altitudes.
169
What must the pilot do to maintain airspeed below trim inhibit?
Apply continuous aft column pressure at higher than normal force
## Footnote
This is necessary when the airplane slows to a speed where manoeuvre margin is limited.
170
What do PFCs calculate based on airspeed?
Feel commands
## Footnote
Control column forces generally increase as airspeed increases for a given column displacement.
171
What happens during takeoff or landing regarding Tail Strike Protection?
PFCs calculate if a tail strike is imminent and decrease elevator deflection to reduce potential tail contact with the ground.
## Footnote
Activation does not provide feedback to the control column, does not degrade takeoff performance, and is compatible with the autoland system.
172
Can the pilot override the tail strike protection?
Yes, with continued column input.
173
How does pitch control in secondary and direct flight control modes differ from normal mode?
Uses simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands.
## Footnote
Control columns command a proportional elevator deflection instead of a manoeuvre command.
174
What automatic compensations are not provided in secondary and direct modes?
* Flap and speedbrake configuration changes
* Gear configuration changes
* Turns to 30° bank angle
* Turbulence
* Thrust changes
175
What does the elevator variable feel system provide in secondary and direct modes?
Two feel force levels based on flap position.
## Footnote
With the flaps up, there is a single manoeuvre force level used over a large speed range.
176
How does pitch control sensitivity change with airspeed in secondary mode?
Can become as much as twice as sensitive compared to normal mode.
177
What does the feel system provide when the flaps are out of up?
A reduced force level appropriate for approach and landing.
178
Is there a trim reference speed in secondary and direct modes?
No, there is no trim reference speed.
179
How do both the primary and alternate pitch trim switches function in secondary and direct modes?
They move the stabilizer directly.
180
How are stabilizer position commands processed?
Through two independent channels within the flight control system.
## Footnote
Commands come from the primary or alternate pitch trim switches and move the stabilizer using an electric control unit powered by the L2 and R2 AC buses.
181
What happens if uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed?
The stabilizer channel that caused the motion is automatically shut down
## Footnote
In normal and secondary modes, an EICAS advisory message is displayed if a channel is inoperative.
182
What EICAS advisory messages are displayed if a stabilizer channel is inoperative?
STABILIZER L2 or STABILIZER R2
## Footnote
These messages indicate which stabilizer channel is affected.
183
What occurs in secondary mode if both stabilizer channels cannot be isolated?
Both channels are shut down
## Footnote
The EICAS warning message STABILIZER is inhibited in this mode.
184
What EICAS warning message is displayed if both stabilizer channels automatically shut down or fail in normal mode?
STABILIZER
## Footnote
This warning is also displayed if automatic shutdown fails to stop uncommanded motion.
185
Where are the L2 and R2 stabilizer cutout switches located?
On the aisle stand
## Footnote
These switches control electric power to the independent stabilizer channels.
186
What happens when both stabilizer cutout switches are placed in the CUTOUT position?
Stabilizer operation is disabled and the EICAS advisory message STABILIZER CUTOUT is displayed
## Footnote
The STABILIZER warning message is not displayed in this case.
187
Does placing both stabilizer cutout switches in CUTOUT clear the STABILIZER warning message if both channels are shut down?
No, it does not clear the warning message
## Footnote
The STABILIZER CUTOUT advisory message is also not displayed.
188
What remains available for pitch trim if the stabilizer is manually shut down or has failed?
Pitch trim through the elevators
## Footnote
Commands from primary or alternate pitch trim switches change the trim reference speed.
189
What is the function of the column cutout?
To stop the effects of uncommanded pitch trim input from jammed or failed pitch trim switches
## Footnote
It disables specific pitch trim switch commands if opposed by control column input for more than 2 seconds.
190
What happens if the column cutout function remains active for more than 20 seconds?
The STABILIZER L2/R2 EICAS advisory is displayed and uncommanded input is removed by system shutdown
## Footnote
This indicates a jammed or failed trim switch.
191
Is the column cutout function active while on the ground?
No, it is not active while on the ground
## Footnote
This allows trimming nose down stabilizer with aft column input during a touch-and-go.
192
Where is stabilizer position indicated?
On EICAS and the flight controls synoptic
## Footnote
The EICAS indication includes a takeoff green band.
193
When does the EICAS stabilizer position indication blank?
When gear is up for 10 seconds or 60 seconds after liftoff
194
What conditions cause the EICAS stabilizer position indication to automatically display?
The EICAS stabilizer position indication displays if any of the following conditions are satisfied:
* After landing and any pair of pitch trim switches are used
* After landing and groundspeed is less than 40 knots
* In the air with specific EICAS messages active
195
What EICAS messages can trigger the stabilizer position indication in the air?
The following EICAS messages can trigger the stabilizer position indication in the air:
* FLIGHT CONTROL MODE
* PITCH DOWN AUTHORITY
* PITCH UP AUTHORITY
* PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS
* STABILIZER
* STABILIZER CUTOUT
196
What is the purpose of the stabilizer green band monitor?
The stabilizer green band monitor confirms that the green band displayed on the stabilizer position indicator is correct based on the actual takeoff weight and CG. BASED ON ENTRIES IN FMC
197
How does the stabilizer green band monitor determine actual airplane gross weight and CG?
Two nose gear pressure transducers provide actual airplane gross weight and CG information.
198
What triggers the EICAS advisory message STAB GREENBAND?
The STAB GREENBAND advisory message is displayed if:
* Computed green band disagrees with pressure transducer data
* The two transducer values are not within set tolerance
* Either transducer has failed
199
What is the function of the Hybrid Laminar Flow Control (HLFC) system?
The HLFC system reduces aerodynamic drag on the vertical stabilizer.
200
How does the HLFC system operate?
The HLFC system uses two external door assemblies to automatically provide negative pressure to the leading edges in flight.
201
Are there any crew procedures or monitoring requirements for the HLFC system?
There are no crew procedures or monitoring requirements for the HLFC system.
202
Fill in the blank: The stabilizer green band is based on the gross weight and CG entries in the _______.
[FMC]
203
What are the roll control characteristics in normal mode for the airplane?
Similar to conventional airplanes, but the control wheel commands a roll maneuver dependent on wheel displacement.
## Footnote
The flight control system automatically positions the ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers to achieve the commanded maneuver.
204
What feature minimizes airplane roll response to turbulence?
Automatic control surface commands.
## Footnote
This feature helps maintain stability during turbulent conditions.
205
What is the status of ailerons at high speeds?
Ailerons are locked out.
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to prevent excessive roll rates at high airspeeds.
206
What is incorporated into the flight control laws for roll control?
Aileron trim.
## Footnote
No pilot input is required for aileron trim adjustments.
207
What does bank angle protection do?
Reduces likelihood of exceeding the bank angle boundary due to disturbances or pilot actions.
## Footnote
It provides roll control inputs when bank angle exceeds approximately 35°.
208
What occurs if the bank angle exceeds the protection boundary?
Control wheel force rolls the airplane back within 30° of bank.
## Footnote
This command can be overridden by the pilot.
209
How is excessive bank angle indicated to the pilot?
Changes color to amber on the PFD bank indicator.
## Footnote
This occurs when bank angles exceed 35°.
210
What is the difference in roll control between secondary/direct modes and normal mode?
In secondary/direct modes, the control wheel commands proportional roll surface deflection instead of a roll rate command.
## Footnote
Roll envelope bank angle protection is not available in these modes.
211
What are the yaw control characteristics in normal mode for the airplane?
Similar to conventional airplanes, but rudder pedals command a sideslip maneuver.
## Footnote
The airplane sideslip angle is dependent on pedal displacement.
212
How does the flight control system respond to pilot inputs for yaw control in normal mode?
It automatically positions the rudder to generate the commanded maneuver.
## Footnote
The system continuously monitors the airplane's response to pilot inputs.
213
What minimizes the airplane sideslip response to turbulence?
Automatic control surface commands.
214
What happens to pedal forces as pedal displacement increases?
Pedal forces increase as pedal displacement increases.
215
Do pedal forces change with airspeed changes?
No, pedal forces do not change with airspeed changes.
216
What does the rudder ratio changer do as airspeed increases?
It automatically reduces the sideslip command for a given pedal input.
217
Is sufficient rudder authority provided at all airspeeds to maintain airplane control during engine failure?
Yes, sufficient rudder authority is provided at all airspeeds.
218
What does the flight control system do during reverse thrust asymmetry conditions?
It attempts to maintain a zero yaw rate by automatically adding rudder corrections.
219
Do the rudder pedals move during reverse thrust asymmetry conditions?
No, the rudder pedals do not move.
220
Above what groundspeed does the flight control system attempt to maintain a yaw rate near zero?
Above 60 knots groundspeed.
221
What cue can the pilot recognize during the initial onset of an engine failure?
The airplane yaw cue.
222
What happens in flight when a roll or yaw asymmetry condition exists?
The flight control system attempts to maintain zero roll rate and sideslip.
223
What does the flight control system do after initial inputs during roll or yaw asymmetry?
It transfers any steady state lateral control input to the rudder.
224
What indication is automatically shown on the EICAS display when the flight control system transfers lateral control to the rudder?
The resulting rudder trim indication.
225
What happens when the Rudder Trim Selector is rotated in normal flight control mode?
It disables the transfer of any steady state lateral control to the rudder.
226
What are the potential consequences of disabling the transfer of steady state lateral control to the rudder?
Increased drag and fuel consumption for the remainder of the flight.
227
What caution message is displayed for large asymmetry conditions?
EICAS caution message ROLL/YAW ASYMMETRY.
228
What caution message is shown for severe asymmetric conditions with limited roll control?
EICAS caution message ROLL LEFT/RIGHT AUTHORITY.
229
In which flight control modes are automatic lateral and rudder inputs available?
Only in the normal flight control mode.
230
What is the function of the wheel to rudder cross-tie?
It reduces maximum sideslip and vertical fin loads.
231
Is wheel to rudder cross-tie required in normal mode?
No, it is not required; the flight control system automatically controls sideslip and fin loads.
232
What is Yaw Damping?
The roll/yaw control laws that provide turn coordination and Dutch roll damping.
233
What does vertical gust suppression do?
Enhances ride quality in the presence of vertical gusts and turbulence by utilizing symmetric deflection of the flaperons and elevators.
## Footnote
This function is active only with the autopilot engaged in Altitude Hold or VNAV level flight modes.
234
What is the purpose of lateral gust suppression?
Improves ride quality and reduces pilot workload on approach by applying discrete yaw commands in response to lateral gusts and turbulence.
## Footnote
This system helps maintain stability during turbulent conditions.
235
How many static pressure ports are involved in lateral gust suppression?
Four static pressure ports (two on each side of the vertical stabilizer).
## Footnote
These ports provide necessary inputs for the lateral gust suppression function.
236
What happens to the control surfaces during the operation of vertical and lateral gust suppression?
There is no movement of the control wheel, control column, or rudder pedal.
## Footnote
This indicates that the system operates autonomously without pilot intervention.
237
What is the primary mode in which vertical and lateral gust suppression is available?
Normal mode
238
What manual rudder trim operation is provided in all three flight control modes?
Rudder trim selector located on the aft aisle stand
239
How many rudder trim rates are available?
Two
240
What command is given when the rudder trim selector is rotated to the detent?
Low rate
241
What command is given when the rudder trim selector is rotated past the detent?
High rate
242
Under what condition are manual trim inputs automatically zeroed during takeoff?
When groundspeed exceeds 30 knots
243
When are further manual trim inputs inhibited after takeoff?
Until in the air
244
What inhibits manual rudder trim when the autopilot yaw is engaged?
Autopilot yaw engaged (LAND 3) on approach
245
What provides pilot awareness of the amount of manual rudder trim applied?
Pedals move to reflect the amount of manual rudder trim
246
In which flight control mode is automatic rudder trim provided?
Normal flight control mode
247
What does the system do to reflect any asymmetric condition on the ground or in the air?
Automatically moves the rudder pedals
248
What prevents running the trim for normal situations like coordinating a turn?
Rudder deflection remains minimal, keeping trim centered
249
What happens to automatic and manual rudder trim inputs on landing?
They are zeroed
250
What is displayed on EICAS regarding rudder trim?
Rudder trim indication
251
When does the EICAS indication blank for rudder trim?
When gear is up for 10 seconds or 60 seconds after liftoff
252
When does the EICAS rudder trim indication automatically display?
After landing and groundspeed is less than 40 knots
253
What EICAS messages will activate the rudder trim indication in the air?
* ENG FAIL L (or R)
* ENG SHUTDOWN L (or R)
* ENG THRUST L (or R)
* FLIGHT CONTROL MODE
* PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS
254
How does yaw control in secondary and direct flight control modes differ from normal mode?
The flight control system uses simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands and the rudder pedals command a proportional rudder deflection.
## Footnote
In normal mode, the system employs more complex calculations for maneuver commands.
255
What happens to pedal feel forces in secondary and direct modes?
Pedal feel forces are unchanged from normal mode.
## Footnote
This ensures pilot familiarity and control feel remains consistent.
256
What is the effect of flap position on rudder response in secondary and direct modes?
With flaps up, the rudder response to pedal inputs is less than when the flaps are not up.
## Footnote
This means that pilot inputs may result in less yaw control when flaps are extended.
257
List the functions that are inoperative in secondary and direct modes.
* Asymmetry compensation
* Automatic rudder trim
* Flight envelope protection
* Gust suppression
* Yaw damping
## Footnote
These functions are typically available in normal mode to enhance safety and control.
258
How many sets of spoilers are on each wing and how are they arranged?
There are 7 sets of spoilers, 4 outboard and 3 inboard of the flaperons, numbered from left to right, 1 through 14.
## Footnote
Spoilers on opposing wings are symmetrically paired for balanced performance.
259
What are the primary functions of spoiler panels?
* Increase drag
* Reduce lift
* Supplement roll control
260
How are the spoilers powered and what is the purpose of this system?
Each hydraulic system supplies 5 pairs of spoilers, dedicated to different sets for isolation and symmetric operation during hydraulic failure.
## Footnote
This design enhances safety by ensuring that not all spoilers fail simultaneously.
261
What happens during engine start and taxi regarding spoiler operation?
The flight control system automatically biases the spoilers up to prevent spoiler trailing edges from contacting the flaps.
## Footnote
This prevents potential damage to the flaps during ground operations.
262
What EICAS advisory message is displayed for the failure of one or two spoiler panels in the air?
The EICAS advisory message 'SPOILERS' is displayed.
263
What EICAS advisory message is displayed when three or more spoiler panels fail?
The EICAS advisory message 'SPOILER PAIRS' is displayed.
264
What are the 14 spoiler panels used for?
Speedbrakes
265
What are the three marked positions of the speedbrake lever?
* DOWN
* ARMED
* UP
## Footnote
The lever can also be placed in intermediate positions between ARMED and UP.
266
What happens when the speedbrake lever is in the ARMED position?
Spoilers extend and the speedbrake lever is driven aft to the UP position on landing
## Footnote
This occurs when the main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers are not in the takeoff range.
267
Under what conditions do spoilers automatically extend when the speedbrake lever is not in the ARMED position?
* On ground with groundspeed above 85 knots and thrust levers moved to idle
* On ground with both thrust reverse levers moved to reverse idle detent
268
When do the spoilers automatically retract and the speedbrake lever move to the DOWN position?
* On ground, if either thrust lever is moved to the takeoff range
* On ground, if there is a transition to in the air
* In the air, when either thrust lever is approximately 70% of full travel
269
In what mode are automatic speedbrakes available?
Normal mode
270
What does the autodrag function do?
Deflects ailerons upward and raises outboard spoilers to assist in glideslope/glidepath capture
271
When does autodrag function activate?
When the airplane is on or above the vertical path or in approach mode (V/S or FPA)
## Footnote
Autodrag is specifically designed to aid during landing.
272
What is the function of Autodrag?
The autodrag function operates by deflecting the ailerons upward and raising the two most outboard spoilers to assist in glideslope/glidepath capture
## Footnote
Autodrag functions only in landing configuration with flaps 25 or 30 and thrust levers at idle.
273
When does Autodrag function activate?
Autodrag activates during automatic or manual approaches when the airplane is on or above the vertical path
## Footnote
It functions in V/S or FPA mode.
274
What happens to autodrag surface deflection below 500 feet AGL?
The autodrag surface deflection is gradually removed below 500 feet AGL
## Footnote
This is to ensure flare and touchdown are not affected.
275
What does the Landing Attitude Modifier (LAM) do?
LAM increases pitch attitude and nose gear height when landing flaps are selected at higher speeds
## Footnote
It increases pitch attitude by partially raising selected lateral control surfaces.
276
What are the main components of flaps and slats?
The airplane has an inboard and an outboard flap on the trailing edge of each wing, and one inboard and five outboard slats on the leading edge
## Footnote
A two-position Krueger flap seals the inboard slat and the engine nacelle.
277
What flap positions are designated for takeoff?
Flaps 5, 10, 15, 17, 18 are takeoff flap positions
## Footnote
Flaps 25 and 30 are designated for landing.
278
What is inhibited to protect against inadvertent flap deployment during cruise?
Flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited when speed is more than 260 KIAS or altitude is above approximately 20,000 feet
## Footnote
This inhibit is available only in primary and secondary flap and slat modes.
279
What is the sequencing of flaps and slats when the flap lever is moved?
Slats extend first and retract last
280
Fill in the blank: In the flaps 1 position, only the _______ move.
slats
281
How many hydraulic systems must be pressurized for flaps to move on the ground?
All three hydraulic systems must be pressurized
## Footnote
This is to avoid contact with an unpowered (drooping) spoiler.
282
What happens when the flap lever is in the UP detent?
All flaps and slats are commanded to the retracted position
283
What happens when flaps 5, 10, 15, 17, 18, and 20 are selected?
The flaps move to the selected position and the slats remain in the middle position.
284
What occurs when flaps 25 are selected?
The slats move to the fully extended position and the flaps do not move.
285
What is commanded when flaps 30 are selected?
The flaps extend to the primary landing position.
286
What happens during flap retraction?
Flap and slat sequencing is reversed.
287
What is the function of the mechanical gate at the flaps 20 detent?
It prevents inadvertent retraction of the flaps past the go-around flap setting.
288
What does the mechanical gate at flaps I prevent?
It prevents inadvertent retraction of the slats past the middle position.
289
What are the three modes of flap and slat operation?
* primary
* secondary
* alternate
290
How are flaps and slats controlled in the primary mode?
They are controlled together and positioned using center hydraulic system motors.
291
What operations occur in the primary mode?
* Autogap
* Flap load relief
292
What automatically selects the secondary mode?
Any of the following conditions occur:
* Center hydraulic system failure
* Control surfaces travel at less than 50% of normal hydraulic rate
* Flap or slat disagree detected
* Flap or slat primary control failure
* Primary mode fails to move flaps or slats to selected position
* Uncommanded flap or slat motion detected
293
In secondary mode, how are the slats and flaps controlled?
They are controlled separately and can be positioned by hydraulic or electric motors.
294
If the slats hydraulic control fails, how are the flaps and slats powered?
Flaps are driven hydraulically and slats are powered electrically.
295
How is pilot control achieved in secondary mode?
Pilot control is through the flap lever, but operation is limited to flaps 20 by non-normal procedures.
296
What does the three-position alternate flaps selector do?
Extends and retracts the flaps and slats
## Footnote
The flaps and slats extend simultaneously, but slat retraction is inhibited until the flaps are up.
297
What is the limitation of flap and slat extension in alternate mode?
Limited to the slats middle position and flaps 20
## Footnote
Asymmetry and uncommanded motion protection, slat autogap and pregap, and flap and slat load relief are not available in alternate mode.
298
How must the alternate mode be selected?
Manually
## Footnote
Slat and flap operation time in the secondary and alternate modes is greatly increased.
299
What does the flap load relief system do in primary mode?
Protects the flaps from excessive air loads
## Footnote
If flap airspeed placard limits are exceeded, the flaps automatically retract to a safe position.
300
What happens when airspeed is reduced after flap load relief has activated?
Flaps automatically re-extend as airspeed allows
## Footnote
Re-extension is limited to the commanded flap position.
301
What is the maximum flap position during load relief retraction?
Limited to flaps 5
## Footnote
Load relief is available only in the primary mode.
302
What does the EICAS flap display indicate?
An in-transit flap condition and shows actual flap position
## Footnote
The flap lever does not move during flap load relief operation.
303
What is the condition for slat load relief activation in the secondary mode?
Airspeed exceeds 240 KIAS with the slats fully extended
## Footnote
They retract to the middle position and LOAD RELIEF is displayed.
304
What is the function of the slat autogap?
Fully extends the slats to increase wing camber
## Footnote
This improves lift and margin to stall at a high angle of attack.
305
In what mode is the slat autogap function available?
Primary mode
## Footnote
It is active when airspeed is below 240 KIAS and slats are in the middle position.
306
What is the purpose of the pregap function in secondary mode?
Moves the slats to the fully extended position from the middle position
## Footnote
This occurs when the flap lever is not UP and airspeed is less than 240 KIAS.
307
What do cruise flaps optimize?
Performance in cruise by varying the camber of the wing
## Footnote
This reduces drag based on airplane parameters such as weight, airspeed, and altitude.
308
What happens if the cruise flaps system fails?
EICAS advisory message CRUISE FLAPS SYS is displayed
## Footnote
This occurs with the flaps in an increased drag condition.
309
Under what conditions are cruise flaps available?
In normal mode, above 25,000 feet, between 0.54 and 0.87 Mach
## Footnote
Control surface movements are minor and no pilot interaction is required.
310
What happens when a skew condition or asymmetric deployment is detected in the flap and slat systems?
The systems are designed to shutdown and the EICAS caution message FLAPS DRIVE and/or SLATS DRIVE is annunciated.
311
What are the conditions that indicate uncommanded motion of flaps or slats?
Uncommanded motion is detected when the flaps or slats:
* move away from the commanded position
* continue to move after reaching a commanded position
* move in a direction opposite to that commanded.
312
What occurs in the flap or slat system when uncommanded motion is detected in primary mode?
An automatic transfer to the secondary mode occurs and the EICAS caution message FLAPS PRIMARY FAIL and/or SLATS PRIMARY FAIL is displayed.
## Footnote
If the motion continues, the system shuts down, and the EICAS caution message FLAPS DRIVE and/or SLATS DRIVE is displayed.
313
What does 'flap or slat disagree' mean?
A disagree is detected when the flaps or slats do not move or move too slowly after a commanded input.
314
What happens when the rate of motion for flaps or slats is less than half the normal rate?
An automatic transfer to the secondary mode occurs, and the EICAS caution message FLAPS PRIMARY FAIL and/or SLATS PRIMARY FAIL is displayed.
315
Where are flap position indications displayed?
Flap position indications are displayed on the primary EICAS display.
316
What happens to flap/slat control indications in secondary or alternate mode?
An expanded flap indication is displayed automatically, showing the position of the left and right flaps and slats separately.
## Footnote
This provides detailed information for the pilot during non-normal conditions.
317
In alternate mode, what replaces the position commanded by the flap lever?
Flap position index marks at all flap and slat positions, and numbers at flaps 5 and flaps 20.
## Footnote
The index marks serve as a guide for positioning the flaps.
