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Flashcards in Chap 20 Deck (69)
1

The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the


A. Epicardium

B. Myocardium

C. Endocardium

D. Pericardium

E. Ectocardium

D

2

The presence of viruses in the blood is called


A. Viremia

B. Fungemia

C. Hemovirus

D. Bacteremia

E. Septicemia

A

3

______ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the blood stream.


A. Viremia

B. Fungemia

C. Hemovirus

D. Bacteremia

E. Septicemia

E

4

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except


A. Occurs in patients that have prior heart damage

B. Caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue

C. Oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood

D. Bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in a vegetation

E. Signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur and possible emboli

B

5

The common causative agent of acute endocarditis is


A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

D. Neisseria gonorrhaeae

E. All of the choices are correct

E

6

Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through


A. Ingestion

B. Parenteral entry

C. Casual contact

D. Droplets

E. Fomites

B

7

Most cases of septicemia are caused by


A. Fungi

B. Viruses

C. Prions

D. Bacteria

E. Protozoans

D

8

Which of the following is not true of septicemia?


A. Fever and shaking chills

B. Respiratory acidosis

C. Endotoxic shock

D. Parenteral or endogenous transfer

E. Drop in blood pressure

B

9

Yersinia pestis


A. Was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent

B. Has humans as an endemic reservoir

C. Does not respond to antimicrobial drugs

D. Is usually transmitted by a flea vector

E. All of the choices are correct

D

10

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except


A. Transmitted by human feces

B. Caused by Yersinia pestis

C. Patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes

D. Patient has fever, headache, nausea, weakness

E. Can progress to a septicemia

A

11

Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis?


A. Exhibit bipolar staining

B. Gram negative rod

C. Produces coagulase

D. Has a capsule

E. Produces enterotoxin

E

12

Plague includes


A. Septicemic form - called black death

B. Bubonic form - buboes develop

C. Pneumonic form - sputum highly contagious

D. Disease control - control of rodent population

E. All of the choices are correct

E

13

Bubonic plague is transmitted by


A. Mosquitos

B. Flies

C. Animal bites

D. Sexual contact

E. Fleas

E

14

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing


A. Brucellosis

B. Plague

C. Malaria

D. Q fever

E. All of the choices are correct

B

15

Which is not associated with tularemia?


A. A zoonosis

B. Transmitted by arthropod vectors

C. A gram-positive bacerium

D. Symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis and pneumonia

E. Sometimes called rabbit fever

C

16

Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of


A. Tularemia

B. Anthrax

C. Malaria

D. Brucellosis

E. Mononucleosis

A

17

The causative agent of Lyme disease is


A. Ixodes scapularis

B. Borrelia hermsii

C. Borrelia burgdorferi

D. Ixodes pacificus

E. Leptospira interrogans

C

18

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with


A. Plague

B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

C. Q fever

D. Lyme disease

E. Yellow fever

D

19

The white-footed mouse, deer and deer ticks are important to maintaining the enzootic transmission cycle associated with


A. Lyme disease

B. Yellow fever

C. Q fever

D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

E. Plague

A

20

Lyme disease involves


A. Early symptoms of fever, headache, stiff neck

B. Crippling polyarthritis and cardiovascular and neurological problems

C. People having contact with wooded or forested areas

D. Treatment with antimicrobials

E. All of the choices are correct

E

21

Lyme disease is transmitted by


A. Flies

B. Droplets

C. Lice

D. Fleas

E. Ticks

E

22

Epstein-Barr virus has the following characteristics except


A. It is more commonly found in adults

B. It is transmitted by direct oral contact and saliva

C. It produces sudden leukocytosis

D. It as a 30-50 day incubation

E. Can be transmitted by contaminated blood transfusions and organ transplants

A

23

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include


A. Vesicular lesions in oral mucosa

B. Fever and pocks on skin

C. Sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly

D. Fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis and retinitis

E. None of the choices are correct

C

24

The patients at greatest risk for severe cytomegalovirus infection include all the following except


A. Diabetics

B. Organ transplant patients

C. Infants infected in utero

D. AIDS patients

E. Babies

A

25

Cytomegalovirus


A. Causes the most prevalent fetal infection

B. Is transmitted by saliva, mucus, milk, urine, semen, cervical secretions and feces

C. Can be sexually transmitted

D. Is commonly carried in the latent state

E. All of the choices are correct

E

26

Which of the following require direct contact with infected body fluids?


A. Yellow fever

B. Dengue fever

C. Q fever

D. Lassa fever

E. Trench fever

D

27

Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever?


A. Yellow fever

B. Trench fever

C. Q fever

D. Rocky mountain spotted fever

E. Cat scratch fever

A

28

Yellow fever and dengue fever are


A. Caused by arboviruses

B. Caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting

C. Zoonoses

D. Transmitted by a mosquito vector

E. All of the choices are correct

E

29

Which of the following is not true of Ebola and Marburg?


A. Caused by filoviruses

B. Disruption of clotting factors

C. Transmitted by direct contact with body fluids

D. Transmitted by mosquitos

E. There is not treatment

D

30

Which type of hemorrhagic fever can be treated with Ribavirin?


A. Lassa fever

B. Ebola

C. Marburg

D. Dengue fever

E. Yellow fever

A

31

Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in bones?


A. Lassa fever

B. Ebola

C. Marburg

D. Dengue fever

E. Yellow fever

D

32

The reservoir for Lassa fever is the


A. Monkey

B. Rat

C. Gorilla

D. Cat

E. Cattle

B

33

Brucellosis is


A. A zoonosis

B. Seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain and weakness

C. Associated with pathogen in the blood

D. An occupational illness of people that work with animals

E. All of the choices are correct

E

34

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent


A. Tularemia

B. Plague

C. Endocarditis

D. Brucellosis

E. Mononucleosis

D

35

The gram negative bacillus associated with abscesses from cat bites or scratches is


A. Salmonella typhimurium

B. Yersinia enterocolitica

C. Bartonella henselae

D. Brucella suis

E. Francisella tularensis

C

36

Rocky Mountain spotted fever


A. Seen in highest numbers along the west coast

B. Transmitted by Ixodes ticks

C. Symptoms include fever, headache and rash

D. Never has severe complications

E. All of the choices are correct

C

37

All of the following pertain to erhlichiosis except


A. Transmitted by Ixodes ticks

B. Diagnosed by PCR or indirect fluorescent assay

C. Treatment requires an extensive course of antibiotics

D. Symptoms include fever, headache and muscle pains

E. Often coinfects with Borrelia burgdorferi

C

38

Which is incorrect regarding Q fever?


A. Transmitted by lice

B. Pathogen produces resistant spores

C. Humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread

D. Causes fever, muscle aches, rash and sometimes pneumonia

E. Is a zoonosis

A

39

Which of the following is mismatched?


A. Yersinia pestis - plague

B. Coxiella burnetii - Q fever

C. Bartonella quintana - trench fever

D. Bartonella henselae - cat scratch disease

E. Rickettsia typhi - rocky mountain spotted fever

E

40

Cat-scratch fever can be prevented by


A. Avoiding ticks

B. Pasteurizing milk

C. Vaccine

D. Animal control

E. Cleaning the scratch wound

E

41

The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are


A. Bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea and weight loss

B. Fever, swollen lymph nodes and joint pain

C. Urinary frequency and pain and vaginal discharge

D. Chills, fever and sweating

E. Sore throat, low grade fever and swollen lymph nodes

D

42

Which is incorrect about malaria?


A. Merozoites enter and multiply in liver cells

B. Trophozoites develop in RBCs

C. The mosquito inoculates human blood with sporozoites

D. Gametocytes enter the mosquito as she draws a blood meal from a human

E. None of the choices are correct

A

43

The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by


A. Liver cell lysis

B. White blood cell lysis

C. Red blood cell lysis

D. Neurological involvement

E. None of the choices are correct

C

44

Malaria may be prevented by


A. Using bed nets sprayed with insecticide

B. Eliminating standing water

C. Taking prophylactic drugs

D. Using interfering RNA in mosquitos

E. All of these are correct

E

45

The causative organism of malaria is a


A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Fungus

D. Protozoan

E. Prion

D

46

Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except


A. Capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors

B. Anaerobic

C. Reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil

D. Gram positive bacillus

E. Sporeformer

B

47

Anthrax is


A. A zoonosis

B. Transmitted by contact, inhalation and ingestion

C. A disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia

D. Only seen sporadically in the United States

E. All of the choices are correct

E

48

The preferred treatment for anthrax is


A. Penicillin

B. Ciprofloxacin

C. Quinine

D. Doxycycline

E. Chloroquinone

D

49

A common cardiovascular / lymph system disease in AIDS patients is


A. Acute endocarditis

B. Burkitt's lymphoma

C. Cytomegalovirus

D. Ehrlichioses

E. Brucellosis

B

50

Retroviruses have the following characteristics except


A. Glycoprotein spikes

B. DNA genome

C. Enveloped

D. Reverse transcriptase

E. Viral genes integrate into the host genome

B

51

All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except


A. Have an immunodeficiency

B. Have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm3 of blood

C. Get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections

D. Can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders

E. Highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States

E

52

Documented transmission of HIV involves


A. Mosquitoes

B. Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products

C. Respiratory droplets

D. Contaminated food

E. All of the choices are correct

B

53

All of the following pertain to HIV except


A. Attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors

B. Viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus

C. Becomes latent in host cells

D. ELISA and Western blot tests detect HIV antigens

E. Can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities

D

54

Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?


A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

B. Protease inhibitors

C. Fusion inhibitors

D. Integrase inhibitors

E. All of the choices are correct

B

55

Which new class of drugs will interfere with docking onto host cells?


A. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors

B. Protease inhibitors

C. Fusion inhibitors

D. Integrase inhibitors

E. All of the choices are correct

C

56

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is


A. Leukemia

B. Hodgkin's lymphoma

C. Kaposi's sarcoma

D. Melanoma

E. Myeloma

C

57

Adult T-cell leukemia (ATL)


A. Is caused by the retrovirus, HTLV II

B. Is an overall leukopenia but with an increased number of neoplastic B lymphocytes

C. Is a persistent lymphocytosis with large atypical lymphocytes that is progressive and fatal

D. Afflicted lymphocytes have pseudopod-like extensions

E. Alpha interferon is used to achieve remission

E

58

Hairy-cell leukemia


A. Is caused by the retrovirus, HTLV I

B. Is an overall leukopenia but with an increased number of neoplastic B lymphocytes

C. Is seen in AIDS patients

D. Afflicted lymphocytes have pseudopod-like extensions

E. Both B and C are correct

E

59

Which of the following bacterial infection(s) have been linked to the development of atherosclerosis?


A. Bacillus anthracis

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. Chlamydia trachomatis

D. Chlamydophila pneumonia

E. Both C & D

E

60

T or F
The cardiovascular and lymphatic systems have no normal biota

T

61

T or F
Plague is a quarantinable disease

T

62

T or F
Lyme disease is only seen in people living in Lyme, Connecticut

F

63

T or F
Treatment of Lyme disease is difficult because the bacteria can change its antigens

T

64

T or F
Aedes mosquitoes are the vectors involved in yellow fever and dengue fever

T

65

T or F
In severe cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever, the enlarged lesions of the rash can become necrotic and predispose the patient to gangrene of toes and fingertips

T

66

T or F
The highest numbers of cases of Rocky Mountain spotted fever occur along the eastern seaboard.

T

67

T or F
Rifampin is the drug of choice for malaria

F

68

T or F
The leading cause of morbidity and mortality in AIDS patients is Pneumocytis pneumonia

T

69

T or F
Under normal healthy circumstances the lymphatic system filters any microorganisms present

T