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Flashcards in Chapter 3 Deck (73)
1

The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except;
A. Inoculation
B. Incubation
C. Infection
D. Isolation
E. Identification

C. Infection

2

The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is;
A. Isolation
B. Inoculation
C. Immunization
D. Infection
E. Contamination

B. Inoculation

3

A pure culture contains;
A. Only one species of microorganism
B. Only bacteria
C. A variety of microbes from one source
D. A variety of species from the same genus
E. None of the above

A. Only one species of microorganism

4

The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the;
A. Colony
B. Inoculum
C. Streak
D. Loop
E. None of the above

B. Inoculum

5

Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?
A. Broth medium
B. Differential medium
C. Selective medium
D. Solid medium
E. Assay medium

D. Solid medium

6

Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar along with some colonies on the surface?
A. Streak plate
B. Spread plate
C. Pour plate
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

C. Pour plate

7

What type of isolation technique is most effective for the majority of applications?
A. Pour plate
B. Streak plate
C. Spread plate
D. Loop dilution
E. Culture plate

B. Streak plate

8

Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled?
A. A pure culture
B. A mixed culture
C. A solid medium
D. A liquid medium
E. A contaminated medium

C. A solid medium

9

Agar is an important component of media because;
A. Bacteria require agar to grow
B. Agar inhibits mold growth
C. Agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth
D. Agar prevents contamination
E. All of the above

C. Agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth

10

The 3 physical forms of laboratory media are;
A. Solid, liquid, gas
B. Solid, semisolid, liquid
C. Streak plate, pour plate, broth
D. Aerobic, anaerobic, micro-aerobic
E. None of the above

B. Solid, semisolid, liquid

11

Which of the following is not an inoculating tool?
A. Petri dish
B. Loop
C. Needle
D. Pipette
E. Swab

A. Petri dish

12

Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a(n);
A. Green plant
B. Fungus
C. Mold
D. Algae
E. Euglena

D. Algae

13

Which of the following is not a benefit of agar as a solid medium?
A. Flexibility
B. Holds moisture
C. Can be inoculated and poured at a temperature that is not harmful
D. Solid at room temperature
E. Is digested by most microbes

E. Is digested by most microbes

14

A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed;
A. Complex
B. Reducing
C. Enriched
D. Synthetic
E. None of the above

D. Synthetic

15

A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is NOT chemically definable would be termed;
A. Complex
B. Reducing
C. Enriched
D. Synthetic
E. None of the above

A. Complex

16

All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except;
A. Broth
B. Enriched
C. Agar
D. Petri dish
E. Gel

D. Petri dish

17

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum
B. The culture is contaminated
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect
D. The culture medium must be selective
E. The culture medium must be differential

D. The culture medium must be selective

18

A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is;
A. Blood agar
B. Trypticase soy agar
C. Mannitol salt agar
D. MacConkey medium
E. A reducing medium

A. Blood agar

19

A reducing medium contains;
A. Sugars that can be fermented
B. Extra oxygen
C. Hemoglobin, vitamins or other growth factors
D. Substances that remove oxygen
E. Inhibiting agents

D. Substances that remove oxygen

20

Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
A. Differential
B. Selective
C. Enumeration
D. Enriched
E. Reducing

A. Differential

21

A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycollic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture?
A. Fastidious
B. Gram positive
C. Anaerobic
D. Gram negative
E. Aerobic

C. Anaerobic

22

Differential media results in which of the following growth characteristics?
A. Different colour colonies
B. Different media colour post incubation
C. Precipitates
D. Gas bubbles
E. All of the above

E. All of the above

23

A reducing media is used to culture;
A. Fastidious organisms
B. Aerobic organisms
C. Anaerobic organisms
D. Any pathogenic organisms
E. None of the above

C. Anaerobic organisms

24

For which bacterial genus is mannitol salt agar selective?
A. Salmonella
B. Streptococcus
C. Neisseria
D. Staphylococcus
E. Escherichia

D. Staphylococcus

25

A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen?
A. NaCl
B. Sheep red blood cells
C. Bile salts
D. Thioglycollic acid
E. Peptone

C. Bile Salts

26

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed;
A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic
C. Fastidious
D. Microaerophilic
E. Autotropic

C. Fastidious

27

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum
B. The culture is contaminated
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect
D. The culture medium must be selective
E. The culture medium must be differential

B. The culture is contaminated

28

What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony?
A. Axenic
B. Mixed
C. Pure
D. Both axenic and mixed
E. Both axenic and pure

E. Both axenic and pure

29

Newly inoculated cultures must be ______ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth.
A. Streaked
B. Poured
C. Incubated
D. All of the above

C. Incubated

30

The _____ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses.
A. Stage
B. Condenser
C. Objective
D. Ocular
E. Nosepiece

E. Nosepiece

31

Which of the following will converge light rays to a single focal pint on the specimen?
A. Ocular lens
B. Objective lens
C. Iris diaphragm
D. Condenser
E. Nosepiece

D. Condenser

32

Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen?
A. Condenser
B. Objective lens
C. Ocular lens
D. Body
E. Nosepiece

B. Objective lens

33

Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the virtual image of the specimen?
A. Objective lens
B. Ocular lens
C. Condenser
D. Body
E. Iris diaphragm

B. Ocular lens

34

Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the specimen?
A. Objective lens
B. Ocular lens
C. Condenser
D. Body
E. Iris diaphragm


E. Iris diaphragm

35

If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?
A. 100X
B. 950X
C. 85X
D. 850X
E. 95X

E. 95X

36

Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the _____ lens. This image is then projected to the _____ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye.
A. Ocular, objective
B. Scanning, objective
C. Objective, ocular
D. Ocular, oil
E. None of the choices are correct

C. Objective, ocular

37

Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct?
A. Resolving power
B. Magnification
C. Refraction
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct

A. Resolving power

38

All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2µm except
A. 0.2 µm
B. 0.2 mm
C. 0.1 µm
D. 0.3 µm
E. 2.0 µm

C. 0.1 µm

39

The wavelength of light used and the numerical aperture governs
A. Illumination
B. Resolution
C. Magnification
D. Size of the field
E. All of the choices are correct

B. Resolution

40

_____ has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens.
A. The scanning objective
B. The oil objective
C. The slide
D. Immersion oil
E. The ocular

D. Immersion oil

41

The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Fluorescence
E. Electron

B. Dark-field

42

Which type of microscope shows cells against a bright background and also shows intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities?
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Differential interference
E. Electron

C. Phase-contrast

43

Which type of microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background?
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Fluorescence
E. Electron

A. Bright-field

44

All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except
A. Uses electrons to produce a specimen image
B. Type of compound microscope
C. Requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluoresce in
D. Commonly used to diagnose certain infections
E. Requires an ultraviolet radiation source

A. Uses electrons to produce a specimen image

45

A confocal scanning optical microscope
A. Uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image
B. Shows three-dimensional cell images from the cell surface to the middle of the cell
C. Produces specimen images on electron micrographs
D. Uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays
E. Requires specimens to be stained

B. Shows three-dimensional cell images from the cell surface to the middle of the cell

46

A confocal scanning optical microscope
A. Uses a laser beam of light to form a specimen image
B. Shows only the surface of the specimen
C. Produces specimen images on electron micrographs
D. Uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays
E. Requires specimens to be stained

A. Uses a laser beam of light to form a specimen image

47

Which type of microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Fluorescence
E. Electron

E. Electron

48

Which type of microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?
A. Bright-field
B. Dark-field
C. Phase-contrast
D. Fluorescence
E. Electron

E. Electron

49

Which type of microscope cannot image live specimens?
A. Bright-field
B. Phase-contrast
C. Dark-field
D. Tunneling electron
E. Differential interference

D. Tunneling electron

50

Which type of microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it?
A. Fluorescence
B. Differential interference contrast
C. Scanning electron
D. Transmission
electron
E. Phase-contrast

C. Scanning electron

51

The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is
A. Hanging drop
B. Fixed stained smear
C. Gram stain
D. Negative stain
E. Flagellar stain

A. Hanging drop

52

The purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
A. Kill them
B. Secure them to the slide
C. Enlarge the cells
D. Add contrast in
order to see them better
E. See motility

D. Add contrast in
order to see them better

53

The gram staining procedure is best described as a ____ staining technique.
A. Acid fast or Ziehl-Neelson
B. Differential
C. Capsule
D. Schaefer-Fulton

B. Differential

54

What do the Gram stain, acid-fast stain and endospore stain have in common?
A. Used on a wet mount of the specimen
B. Use heat to force the dye into cell structures
C. Outcome based on cell wall differences
D. Use a negative stain technique
E. Are differential stains

C. Outcome based on cell wall differences

55

Basic dyes are
A. Attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells
B. Anionic
C. Used in negative staining
D. Repelled by cells
E. Dyes such as India ink and nigrosin

A. Attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells

56

A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of
A. Negative staining
B. Using an acidic dye
C. Simple staining
D. Using the acid-fast stain
E. Capsule staining

C. Simple staining

57

Matching.
1.) 1 Km A.) 10-2 cm
2.) 1 mm B.) 100 mm
3.) 10 cm C.) 10-6 m
4.) 1 m D.) 1000 m

Ans: 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. C

58

Who invented the first crude microscope by grinding glass?
A. Redi
B. Lister
C. Schultz & Schwann
D. Leeuwenhoek

D. Leeuwenhoek

59

Which type of media would be the best choice when shipping a sample of bacteria to a laboratory to be tested from a satellite office site.
A. Transport
B. EMB
C. Blood
D. Thioglycollate

A. Transport

60

The Gram staining procedure is best described as a ____ staining technique.
A. Acid fast or Ziehl-Neelson
B. Differential
C. Capsule
D. Schaefer-Fulton

B. Differential

61

The procedures for culturing a microorganism require the use of a microscope.

True or False?

False

62

A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium.

True or False?

True

63

Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media.

True or False?

True

64

A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes.

True or False?

True

65

One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells.

True or False?

False

66

Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures.

True or False?

False

67

Bacterial cultures are easily identified from their microscopic appearance.

True or False?

False

68

Normal incubation temperatures range from 30° to 60° C.

True or False?

False

69

The bending of light rays as they pass form one medium to another is called refraction.

True or False?

True

70

The real image is the reverse of the actual specimen.

True or False?

False

71

A differential interference contrast microscope uses dyes to give colored three-dimensional images.

True or False?

False

72

Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the specimens.

True or False?

True

73

At the end of the Gram stain, gram positive bacteria will be seen as pink cells.

True or False?

False