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Flashcards in Chapter 18 Deck (86)
1

The integument includes all of the following except


A. Skin

B. Hair

C. Nails

D. Sweat glands

E. Surface capillaries

E

2

Place the following in the appropriate order from surface to deep. Stratum corneum, Dermis, Stratum basale, Basement membrane, Subcutaneous layer


A. Stratum corneum, Dermis, Stratum basale, Basement membrane, Subcutaneous layer

B. Stratum basale, Dermis, Stratum corneum, Basement membrane, Subcutaneous layer

C. Stratum corneum, Stratum basale, Basement membrane, Dermis, Subcutaneous layer

D. Stratum corneum, Stratum basale, Dermis, Subcutaneous layer, Basement membrane

E. Stratum corneum, Subcutaneous layer, Stratum basale, Dermis, Basement membrane

C

3

Blood vessels are found in the


A. Stratum corneum

B. Dermis

C. Stratum basale

D. Subcutaneous layer

E. Dermis and subcutaneous layer

E

4

Blisters are


A. Confined to the epidermis

B. Originate in the dermis

C. Originate in the subcutaneous layer

D. Result from a separation of epidermis from dermis

E. None of the choices are correct

D

5

Protective features of the skin include all but


A. Keratinized surface

B. Resident biota

C. High salt content

D. High pH

E. Lysozyme

D

6

What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage and microorganism entry?


A. Lysozyme

B. Keratin

C. Sweat

D. Sebum

E. Salt

B

7

What group of microorganisms do not usually call the skin "home"?


A. Micrococci

B. Diphtheroids

C. Spirochetes

D. Yeasts

E. All the choices are correct

C

8

Which microorganism species is most well adapted to life on the skin?


A. S. aureus

B. C. diphtheriae

C. S. epidermidis

D. Malassezia

E. Candida albicans

C

9

What enzyme is not found in S. epidermidis but is found in S. aureus?


A. Peroxidase

B. Catalase

C. Lysozyme

D. Coagulase

E. Lipase

D

10

The swelling over a pore leading out of a hair follicle that has become clogged is called a/an


A. Furuncle

B. Pustule

C. Carbuncle

D. Papule

E. Comedo

E

11

The causative agent of acne is


A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Micrococcus luteus

C. Propionibacterium acnes

D. Streptococcus epidermidis

E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

C

12

Which of the following is not true of Propionibacterium acnes?


A. Anaerobic or aerotolerant

B. Gram-negative rod

C. Releases lipase

D. Attracts white blood cells

E. Present in hair follicles

B

13

All species of Staphylococcus


A. Lack spores

B. Are motile

C. Have capsules

D. Produce coagulase

E. All of the choices are correct

A

14

The enzyme that coagulates plasma is


A. Catalase

B. Coagulase

C. Hyaluronidase

D. Staphylokinase

E. Kinase

B

15

Staphylococcus can be differentiated from Streptococcus by the


A. Gram stain

B. Coagulase test

C. Catalase test

D. Fermentation of mannitol

E. None of the choices are correct

C

16

Necrotizing fasciitis is


A. Also called impetigo

B. Possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues

C. Associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins

D. Typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis

E. Not treatable with antimicrobial drugs

E

17

All Staphylococci can be differentiated from all Streptococci because only Staphylococci produce the enzyme _____ that is easily detected in the lab.


A. Staphlokinase

B. Exfoliative toxin A

C. Exfoliative toxin B

D. Catalase

E. Lactase

D

18

Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?


A. Fomites

B. Direct contact

C. Mechanical vectors

D. Blood

E. Body fluids

B

19

Impetigo is caused by


A. P. acnes

B. C. diphtheriae

C. S. aureus

D. S. pyogenes

E. Both S. aureus and S. pyogenes

E

20

S. pyogenes binds to plasminogen and then secretes ______ that creates plasmin that degrades tissue.


A. Streptokinase

B. M protein

C. Exfoliative toxin A

D. Hyaluronidase

E. Coagulase

A

21

MRSAs are S. aureus strains that are


A. Resistant to mupirocin

B. Responsive to mupirocin

C. Resistant to penicillin derivatives

D. Responsive to penicillin derivatives

E. Related to S. pyogenes

C

22

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is


A. Enterotoxin

B. Hemolysin

C. Toxic shock syndrome toxin

D. Exfoliative toxin

E. Erythrogenic toxin

D

23

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all the following except


A. Meningitis

B. Furuncles and carbuncles

C. Impetigo

D. Scalded skin syndrome

E. Acne

E

24

All the following pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes except


A. Often from an endogenous source

B. Secrete streptokinase

C. Causes impetigo

D. Coats itself with host proteins

E. Causes gas gangrene

E

25

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following except


A. Necrotizing fasciitis

B. Erysipelas

C. Impetigo

D. Scarlet fever

E. Scalded skin syndrome

E

26

Which of the following is not true of cellulitis?


A. Caused by S. aureus or S. pyogenes

B. Occurs in the epidermis

C. Causes pain, tenderness, swelling and warmth

D. Lymphangitis may occur

E. Treated with cephalexin

B

27

Which of the following is not true of Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome (SSSS)?


A. Affects mostly newborns and babies

B. An exotoxin-mediated disease

C. Toxin causes bullous lesions

D. Split in skin occurs between the dermis and epidermis

E. Split in skin occurs within the epidermis

D

28

This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis


A. Clostridium botulinum

B. Clostridium perfringens

C. Clostridium difficile

D. Clostridium tetani

E. All of the choices are correct

B

29

_____ is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae.


A. Scalded skin syndrome

B. Reye's syndrome

C. Erysipelas

D. Hansen's disease

E. Leishmaniasis

D

30

The main causative agent of gas gangrene is


A. S. aureus

B. S. pyogenes

C. Mycobacterium leprae

D. S. epidermidis

E. Clostridium perfringes

E

31

The causative agent of Hansen's disease is


A. S. aureus

B. S. pyogenes

C. Mycobacterium leprae

D. S. epidermidis

E. Clostridium perfringes

C

32

One virulence factor of M. leprae is the ability to live inside


A. Skin cells

B. Nerve cells

C. Schwann cells

D. Macrophages

E. Muscle cells

D

33

Leprosy is


A. Very contagious

B. A disease that has been eradicated around the world

C. Treated with 12-24 months of antibiotics

D. Can be diagnosed by the Mantoux test

E. Caused by a sporeforming, gram-positive bacillus

C

34

Tuberculoid leprosy


A. Causes symmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation

B. Is the most disfiguring

C. Pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas such as nose, ears, testes

D. Complications include secondary infections, kidney or respiratory failure

E. Includes all of these choices

A

35

Edward Jenner's work involved


A. Inoculation of dried pus from cowpox pustules into a person to stimulate immunity

B. Development of passive immunotherapy

C. Development of an immunization to protect people against cowpox

D. Immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one

E. All of the choices are correct

E

36

The smallpox vaccine uses the _____ virus.


A. Small pox

B. Herpes simplex

C. Vaccinia

D. Herpes virus 6

E. None of the choices are correct

C

37

The use of aspirin in children with chickenpox increases the risk for


A. Shingles

B. Reye's syndrome

C. Varicella

D. Meningitis

E. Smallpox

B

38

Smallpox is a disease in which


A. Fever, prostration, rash and possible toxemia and shock occur

B. Virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons

C. Recurrent episodes are called shingles

D. Can only be transmitted by direct skin contact with skin crusts

E. All of the choices are correct

A

39

All of the following pertain to monkeypox except


A. Symptoms include skin pocks, fever and swollen lymph nodes

B. Periodic outbreaks have occurred in Africa

C. Transmission is typically by contact with monkeys, squirrels and rats

D. A recent U.S. outbreak involved pet prairie dogs infected by an African rat

E. The virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans

A

40

Chickenpox


A. Is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions

B. Is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material

C. Has an incubation of 10 to 20 days

D. Has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops

E. All of the choices are correct

E

41

Varicella-zoster virus


A. Uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry

B. Becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes

C. Has humans as its reservoir

D. Causes chickenpox and shingles

E. All of the choices are correct

E

42

If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with


A. Herpes labialis

B. Shingles

C. Chickenpox

D. Infectious mononucleosis

E. Herpes keratitis

C

43

Reye's syndrome involves


A. Aspirin use

B. A febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox

C. Fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney

D. Children and adolescents

E. All of the choices are correct

E

44

Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics except


A. Starts with a high fever

B. Causes roseola in infants and young children

C. Appears as a mononucleosis-like illness in adults

D. A rash appears on the 4th day

E. It is a very rare form of herpesvirus

E

45

Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with


A. Croup

B. Mumps

C. Influenza

D. Measles (rubeola)

E. Rubella

D

46

Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?


A. Contains attenuated virus

B. Contains toxoids

C. Is given in early childhood

D. Protects against 3 different viral diseases

E. None of the choices are correct

B

47

All the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except


A. Transmitted by direct contact with the rash

B. Humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen

C. Secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur

D. Involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

E. Dry cough, sore throat, fever, conjunctivitis are symptoms

A

48

Measles is described as a ______ skin lesion.


A. Purpura

B. Bulla

C. Papule

D. Macule

E. Maculopapular

E

49

Measles is also known as


A. Rubella

B. Shingles

C. Rubeola

D. Fifth disease

E. Varicella

C

50

Which of the following is not true of rubeola?


A. Causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus

B. It is a single stranded nonenveloped RNA virus

C. It is in the Paramyxovirus family

D. Causes cell membranes to fuse to form syncytia

E. Transmitted by respiratory droplets

B

51

This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage


A. Croup

B. Mumps

C. Influenza

D. Measles (rubeola)

E. Rubella

E

52

Rubella is


A. Caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus)

B. A very contagious disease

C. Associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness and cardiac and mental defects

D. Seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough and myalgia

E. All of the choices are correct

C

53

Fifth disease


A. Is caused by Parvovirus B19

B. Is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks

C. Involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta

D. Has a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks

E. All of the choices are correct

E

54

Which is incorrect about warts


A. Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)

B. Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites

C. Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet

D. Are frequently cancerous

E. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal

D

55

Anthrax is


A. A zoonosis

B. Transmitted by contact, inhalation and ingestion

C. A disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia

D. Only seen sporadically in the United States

E. All of the choices are correct

B

56

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?


A. Pulmonary

B. Gastrointestinal

C. Cutaneous

D. All of the choices are correct

E. None of the choices are correct

C

57

Transmission of the pathogen of leishmaniasis is by the


A. Reduviid, "kissing", bug

B. Tsetse fly

C. Anopheles mosquito

D. Sand fly

E. Hard bodied tick

D

58

Which of the following is mismatched?


A. Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard

B. Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot

C. Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin

D. Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body

E. Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails

A

59

Transmission of tineas include


A. Human to human

B. Animal to human

C. Soil to human

D. Fomites to human

E. All of the choices are correct

E

60

Which of the following is not a causative agent of cutaneous mycoses?


A. Malassezia furfur

B. Trichophyton

C. Microsporum

D. Epidermophyton

A

61

Which of the following is the causative agent of Tinea versicolor?


A. Malassezia furfur

B. Trichophyton

C. Microsporum

D. Epidermophyton

A

62

Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms?


A. Conjunctiva

B. Eyelids

C. Lymphocytes

D. Tears

E. Eyelashes

D

63

Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?


A. Transmitted through both direct and indirect contact

B. Can be caused by S. pyogenes or S. pneumoniae

C. Treatment is with a broad spectrum topical antibiotic

D. Has a clear discharge

E. Can be caused by S. aureus, H. influenzae or N. gonorrhoeae

D

64

Which is true of viral conjunctivitis?


A. Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B. Has a mucopurulent discharge

C. Caused by adenoviruses

D. Must be treated with topical and oral antibiotics

E. Caused by Moraxella

C

65

What eye disease is characterized by pannus forming over the cornea?


A. Simple conjunctivitis

B. Keratitis

C. Sty

D. Trachoma

E. River blindness

D

66

The causative agent of trachoma is


A. Adenoviruses

B. S. aureus

C. C. trachomatis serovars A-C

D. Herpes simplex virus

E. N. gonorrhoeae

C

67

Keratitis is usually caused by


A. Streptococcus pyogenes

B. Staphlococcus aureus

C. Herpes simplex

D. Neisseria gonorrhaeae

E. All of the choices are correct

C

68

River blindness is


A. Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti

B. A disease in which worms can invade the eyes

C. Caused by a blood fluke

D. Transmitted by mosquito vector

E. All of the choices are correct

B

69

River blindness is caused by


A. Wolbachia bacteria

B. Onchocera volulus worms

C. A blood fluke

D. Herpes simplex virus

E. Both Wolbachia bacteria and Onchocera volulus worms

E

70

The eye's best defense is/are the:


A. Optic nerve

B. Eyelid

C. Eyelashes

D. Tear film

D

71

What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?


A. Wear insect repellent

B. Good hygiene

C. Trifluridine or acyclovir treatment

D. Ivermectin treatment

B

72

T or F
All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers

F

73

T or F
Propionibacterium acnes is normal flora of sebaceous glands of the skin.

T

74

T or F
Acne can be prevented with antibiotics.

F

75

T or F
Chickenpox is caused by an orthopoxvirus

T

76

T or F
Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene

T

77

T or F
Hansen's disease is also known as leprosy

T

78

T or F
Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus

T

79

T or F
Herpesviruses are double-stranded, nonenveloped, DNA viruses

F

80

T or F
The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester

F

81

T or F
Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites and sexual activity.

T

82

T or F
Mottled, discolored pigmentation is seen in patients with tinea versicolor

T

83

T or F
Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust

T

84

T or F
The eye generally has a large percentage of normal biota present

F

85

T or F
Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye.

T

86

T or F
Occassionally Staphylococcus epidermidis may be isolated from the eye

T