Chapter 12 Flashcards

(101 cards)

1
Q
  1. Q: What is a cross-functional team?
A

A: A team composed of members from different functional areas and led by an identified team leader.

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2
Q
  1. Q: Define projectization in one line.
A

A: The degree to which authority and resources are organized around dedicated project teams rather than functional departments.

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3
Q
  1. Q: Match terms to projectization level: heavyweight = ? lightweight = ?
A

A: Heavyweight = high projectization; Lightweight = low projectization.

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4
Q
  1. Q: In which option are team members project people first, functional people second?
A

A: Project matrix.

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4
Q
  1. Q: Which organizational option has very low projectization and relies on normal departments?
A

A: Functional structure.

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5
Q
  1. Q: Describe a venture team.
A

A: Members are pulled out of functions to work full-time on a high-projectization, often skunkworks-style project.

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6
Q
  1. Q: What is a spin-out venture?
A

A: A venture team physically or legally moved outside the parent company.

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7
Q
  1. Q: One advantage of high projectization?
A

A: Greater flexibility and faster decision-making.

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7
Q
  1. Q: One advantage of low projectization?
A

A: Lower risk; easier to share functional resources.

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8
Q
  1. Q: List the three competencies linked to radical innovation.
A

A: Discovery, Incubation, Acceleration.

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9
Q
  1. Q: What does discovery entail?
A

A: Recognizing and articulating radical innovation opportunities.

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9
Q
  1. Q: Why is culture of collaboration critical?
A

A: It harnesses creativity, shares information, and fosters intellectual capital.

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10
Q
  1. Q: Core vs. ad-hoc vs. extended team members—what’s the difference?
A

A: Core = manage clusters; Ad-hoc = support functions; Extended = from other divisions/partners.

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10
Q
  1. Q: Name two elements that drive an innovation culture.
A

A: Continuous learning, acceptance of risk.

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10
Q
  1. Q: Define product champion.
A

A: Person who commits to and pushes a product through the organization.

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11
Q
  1. Q: Give two specific champion roles.
A

A: Power promot­er, Technological gatekeeper.

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12
Q
  1. Q: What is network building?
A

A: Connecting all contributors who actually do the NPD work.

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13
Q
  1. Q: Name the five basic conflict-handling styles.
A

A: Confrontation, Give-and-take, Withdrawal, Smoothing, Forcing.

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13
Q
  1. Q: Which style seeks a collaborative win-win?
A

A: Confrontation.

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14
Q
  1. Q: Why use both monetary and non-monetary rewards?
A

A: Motivate teams across diverse needs and recognize contributions.

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14
Q
  1. Q: Two common timing choices for team close-down?
A

A: Close early before launch, or keep team through launch then hand off.

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15
Q
  1. Q: Define a virtual team.
A

A: Members linked electronically rather than co-located.

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16
Q
  1. Q: Difference between synchronous and asynchronous modes?
A

A: Synchronous = live (video/chat); Asynchronous = log in anytime (forums/email).

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17
Q
  1. Q: Main benefit of virtual GDTs?
A

A: Access expertise regardless of geography.

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18
Skunkworks
Isolated, high-projectization venture team.
18
Digital colocation
Tech tools that mimic proximity online.
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Charged behavior
High-energy, high-cooperation team atmosphere.
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Colocation
Physical proximity of cross-functional members.
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Expert promoter
Champion offering deep technical expertise.
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Power promoter
Champion who wields formal authority.
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Process promoter
Champion skilled at navigating procedures.
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Relationship promoter
Champion who builds coalitions.
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Relationship promoter
Keeps team updated on external tech.
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Discovery
Front-end opportunity creation.
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Incubation
Turning opportunity into a business concept.
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Acceleration
Scaling the concept into a real business.
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Functional matrix
Low-risk, project close to current business.
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Low-risk, project close to current business.
Equal pull from project and functional sides.
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Project matrix
Project priority over function but still matrixed.
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Spin-out
Venture separated into new legal entity.
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Healthy conflict
Disagreement managed productively.
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Withdrawal style
Avoiding the conflict altogether.
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Smoothing style
Downplaying differences.
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Forcing style
– Imposing a solution by authority.
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Give-and-take
Compromise conflict style.
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Q1: What OSI layer is responsible for reliable end-to-end communication?
A: The Transport Layer (Layer 4).
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Q2: What does TCP stand for?
A: Transmission Control Protocol.
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Q3: What does TCP add on top of IP?
Q3: What does TCP add on top of IP?
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Q4: What is the purpose of the TCP sequence number?
A: It identifies the order of bytes sent to ensure correct reassembly.
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A: The next expected byte from the sender (SEQ + 1).
A: Initiates a connection.
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Q5: What does the TCP acknowledgment number represent?
A: The next expected byte from the sender (SEQ + 1).
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Q8: What does the TCP FIN flag do?
A: Gracefully closes a TCP connection.
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Q7: What does the TCP ACK flag do?
A: Acknowledges the receipt of data.
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Q10: What is the TCP 3-way handshake?
A: SYN → SYN+ACK → ACK.
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Q9: What does the TCP RST flag do?
A: Abruptly resets and closes a connection.
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Q11: What is the TCP 4-way termination?
A: FIN → ACK → FIN → ACK.
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Q12: What happens in the CLOSED TCP state?
A: Any packet not containing RST receives an RST response.
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Q13: What happens in the LISTEN TCP state when a SYN is received?
A: It opens a session and replies with SYN+ACK.
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Q15: What happens when a host receives an unsolicited SYN+ACK?
A: It responds with RST.
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Q14: What happens if a host in LISTEN state receives just an ACK?
A: It sends back an RST.
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Q16: What is a TCP SYN flood?
A: A DoS attack where many SYNs are sent to exhaust server resources.
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Q17: Why is SYN flooding effective?
A: The server allocates resources for each half-open connection.
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Q18: What is the default timeout before a server sends RST after a SYN?
A: About 2 minutes.
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Q19: How can an attacker make a SYN flood more effective?
A: By spoofing source IPs or using zombies to avoid RSTs.
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Q21: What info must an attacker know to hijack a TCP session?
A: Client and server IPs, ports, and sequence numbers.
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Q20: What is TCP session hijacking?
A: Taking over an active TCP session by predicting sequence numbers.
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Q23: What is UDP?
A: User Datagram Protocol, a fast, stateless transport protocol.
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Q22: Why is guessing the server's sequence number hard?
A: It’s a 32-bit random number (1 in 2³² chance if perfectly random).
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Q26: How do open UDP ports respond?
A: They do not respond to probes.
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Q25: What types of applications often use UDP?
A: DNS, DHCP, SNMP, real-time systems like VoIP and games.
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Q24: Does UDP guarantee packet delivery?
A: No, it is connectionless and unreliable by design.
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Q28: What is RIP?
A: Routing Information Protocol — a distance-vector IG
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Q27: How do closed UDP ports respond?
A: They send back a "port unreachable" message.
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Q29: How does RIP v1 route traffic?
A: Based on hop count (number of routers to destination).
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Q32: What does OSPF stand for?
A: Open Shortest Path First.
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Q33: What algorithm does OSPF use to compute paths?
A: Dijkstra’s algorithm.
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Q31: How is RIP v2 different from RIP v1?
A: It supports authentication for routing updates.
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Q30: What is the weakness of RIP v1?
A: It has no authentication, making it vulnerable to spoofing.
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Q34: What is an LSA in OSPF?
A: Link-State Advertisement — a message describing a router’s links and costs.
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Q35: How often are LSAs sent?
A: Every 30 minutes or upon topology changes.
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Q36: What does the Sequence Number field in an LSA do?
A: Ensures only the most recent update is accepted.
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Q37: What does the Age field in an LSA indicate?
A: How long the LSA has existed.
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Q38: What is the LSA Checksum for?
A: To verify the integrity of the LSA (excluding the age field).
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Q39: What does the Link States field show?
A: Links connected to the advertising router.
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Q40: What is OSPF "Fight-back"?
A: When a router sees a forged LSA claiming to be from itself, it sends a new correct LSA with a higher sequence number.
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Q41: What is "Announcement Flooding" in OSPF?
A: LSAs are re-broadcast by every router that receives them.
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Q42: What is "Locality" in OSPF?
A: Routers only advertise links they’re directly connected to.
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Q43: What is OSPF’s "Bi-directionality" rule?
A: A link is valid only if both routers advertise it.
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Q44: How can an attacker bypass OSPF Fight-back?
A: By sending two fake LSAs in quick succession: First one triggers fight-back Second one has the same sequence as fight-back, so the fight-back is ignored.
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Q47: What is a "stateless protocol"?
A: A protocol (like UDP) that doesn’t retain session information.
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Q45: Why does this LSA attack work?
A: OSPF considers the second LSA as "duplicate but same age" and discards the legitimate one.
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Q46: What is a "stateful protocol"?
A: A protocol (like TCP) that keeps track of the connection’s state.
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Q48: What is the difference between a segment and a datagram?
A: Segment = TCP (with headers and order), Datagram = IP (connectionless).
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Q49: What does DoS mean?
A: Denial of Service — an attack to make a system unavailable to users.
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Q50: What is a zombie in a DoS attack?
A: A compromised host used to send spoofed or malicious traffic.
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Q51: What is a port scan?
Q51: What is a port scan?A: A method to discover which ports on a host are open and accepting connections.
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Q54: What’s the purpose of SYN+ACK in TCP?
A: It confirms that the server received the SYN and is ready to establish the connection.
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Q52: What is the role of checksums in TCP?
A: To detect errors in the transmitted segment.
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Q53: What does it mean when a port sends RST?
A: The port is closed or refuses the connection.
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Q55: What is the function of IP in relation to TCP?
A: IP routes datagrams from source to destination; TCP ensures reliable delivery on top of IP.
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