Final AI questions Flashcards
(154 cards)
1
Q
Q9) What is “cost reduction” in the context of new product categories?
A) Replacing existing products with similar performance but lower cost
B) Cutting down the manufacturing cost of existing products
C) Selling products at a discount
D) Removing expensive features from a product
A
A
2
Q
Q21) In the context of new products, what is “Additions to existing product lines”?
A) Adding a new feature to an existing product
B) Adding a completely new product to the line
C) Enhancing the performance of an existing product
D) Fleshing out the product line as offered to the firm’s current market
A
D
3
Q
Q26) What is the role of a project manager or team leader in the field of new products?
A) To oversee the entire product development process
B) To be responsible for a particular function like marketing research or production planning
C) To take the new product idea from idea generation to launch
D) To manage the financial aspects of the product
A
A
4
Q
Q27) What is the role of marketing in the new products process?
A) To ensure that the product is well received in the market
B) To manage down the amount of risk and uncertainty
C) To leverage internal learning and knowledge
D) To create a strategy for new products
A
C
5
Q
Product protocl
A
A product protocol is a written agreement that outlines the key requirements and guidelines for developing a new product. It aligns all teams (marketing, R&D, engineering, etc.) on what the product must do, for whom, and how it will be evaluated.
6
Q
Product concept
A
A product concept is a detailed description of a new product idea from the customer’s point of view. It explains what the product is, who it’s for, and why they would want it.
7
Q
Stage-gate process
A
The Stage-Gate process is a step-by-step system used to guide new product development from idea to launch.
🔄 It works like this:
The process is divided into stages (where work is done) and gates (where decisions are made).
🛠️ Stages:
Each stage involves specific activities (e.g., market research, product design, testing).
✅ Gates:
At each gate, managers review progress and decide:
Go (proceed)
Kill (stop)
Hold (delay)
Recycle (redo)
)
🎯 Purpose:
To reduce risk, improve decision-making, and manage resources effectively as a product moves through development.
8
Q
What is the incubation period
A
the incubation period is the time when a new product idea is being developed quietly before it is formally announced or launched.
In short:
🟡 Incubation period = the behind-the-scenes phase where:
ideas are tested
feasibility is assessed
basic prototypes may be built
It’s like the “warming-up” phase before the product officially enters the development process.
9
Q
Spiral Development
A
Spiral development is an iterative product development process where the product is built, tested, and improved in cycles (or spirals) based on user feedback.
In short:
🔁 Spiral development = “Build → Test → Get Feedback → Improve → Repeat”
Each loop adds more features or refinements until the product is ready.
✅ It reduces risk and ensures the final product better fits user needs.
10
Q
Iterative Prototyping
A
Iterative prototyping is a development approach where a product is repeatedly designed, tested, and refined through multiple cycles.
In short:
🔁 Iterative prototyping = “Make a prototype → Test it → Learn from feedback → Improve it → Repeat”
It’s closely tied to spiral development, and both focus on continuous improvement based on user input and testing.
11
Q
Comprehensive prototype
A
In product innovation, a comprehensive prototype is a fully functional and detailed version of the product that closely resembles the final product in both form and function.
12
Q
Q1) What are the three types of innovation?
A) Ongoing innovation, revolutionary innovation, iterative innovation
B) Incremental innovation, disruptive innovation, transformative innovation
C) Adjusted innovation, reconfigured innovation, redefined innovation
D) Continuous innovation, radical innovation, breakthrough innovation
A
C
13
Q
Reconfigured Innovation
A
Rearranging or combining existing components or technologies in a new way to improve performance or reduce cost.
14
Q
Redefined Innovation
A
Definition: Changing the fundamental purpose or user experience of a product, often leading to a new value proposition.
15
Q
Adjusted Innovation
A
Minor modifications made to an existing product or service to better fit a new market or user need.
16
Q
Q8) What is the term for the evaluation step before development work begins?
A) Concept test
B) Screening
C) Pre-technical evaluation
D) Project evaluation
A
C
17
Q
Q9) What is the purpose of a Quality Function Deployment?
A) To evaluate customer needs and preferences
B) To define the business plan for a new product
C) To develop a marketing strategy
D) To create a product protocol
A
D
18
Q
Q11) What is the purpose of a comprehensive business analysis in the development phase?
A) To identify problems and suggest solutions
B) To evaluate customer feedback on prototypes
C) To ensure the product meets quality standards
D) To prepare for product launch
A
D
19
Q
Q13) What are the advantages of accelerating time to market?
A) Lower costs and better quality
B) Increased market share and customer satisfaction
C) Improved planning and risk management
D) Higher profits and faster innovation
A
B) Increased market share and customer satisfaction
20
Q
Q14) What is the purpose of the stage-gate process?
A) To ensure continuous reduction of uncertainty
B) To guide resource allocation in the new product development
C) To speed up the product development and launch process
D) To minimize risk in the new product development process
A
C) To speed up the product development and launch process
21
Q
Q15) What are the key characteristics of the stage-gate process?
A) Sequential activities and fixed gates
B) Overlapping activities and flexible gates
C) Regular evaluation points and guideline-based process
D) Step-by-step process and strict gates
A
C
22
Q
Q16) What is the term for the gates in the stage-gate process?
A) Decision points
B) Fuzzy gates
C) Clear gates
D) Sharp gates
A
A
23
Q
Q19) What is the term for innovations that create a new market or value network?
A) Incremental innovations
B) Disruptive innovations
C) Breakthrough innovations
D) Revolutionary innovations
A
B
24
Q
Q20) What are the characteristics of serial innovators?
A) Systems thinking and high creativity only
B) Curiosity and knack for intuition only
C) Systems thinking, high creativity, and curiosity only
D) Systems thinking, high creativity, curiosity, and knack for intuition
A
D
25
Q21) What is the process followed by serial innovators?
A) Finding a problem, inventing a solution, and obtaining feedback
B) Understanding the problem, determining customer interest, and developing a prototype
C) Determining customer interest, inventing a solution, and obtaining feedback
D) Understanding the problem, inventing a solution, and developing a prototype
A
26
Q22) What is the term for the iterative process between the customer and the firm in new product
development?
A) Spiral development
B) Feedback loop
C) Customer-centric approach
D) Iterative prototyping
A
27
Q23) What types of prototypes are developed in lickety-stick spiral development?
A) Working prototypes tested with customers
B) Focused prototypes without functionality
C) Comprehensive prototypes for market testing
D) Iterative prototypes based on customer feedback
B
28
Q24) What is one technique for attaining speed in a new product project?
A) Minimizing spend time and seeking silver bullets
B) Making slow and cautious decisions
C) Focusing on cost reduction at all stages
D) Avoiding communication and flexibility
A) Minimizing spend time and seeking silver bullets
29
Do some research on Serial Innovators than
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The strategic buckets approach
The strategic buckets approach is a portfolio management method where a company allocates its innovation resources (time, money, people) into predefined categories or "buckets" that align with its strategic priorities.
31
Q8) What are the four types of leverage capabilities used to achieve focus in the PIC?
A) Technological strengths, marketing capabilities, financial resources, customer relationships
B) Technology, product experience, customer franchise, end-use experience
C) Research and development capabilities, supply chain efficiency, brand equity, distribution network
Downloaded
B
32
Q10) What is the purpose of the guidelines section in the PIC?
A) To define the target market for the new product
B) To outline the specific features and benefits of the new product
C) To specify the degree of innovativeness and timing for the new product
D) To establish financial goals and metrics for the new product
C
33
Q11) How can a firm prepare a Product Innovation Charter (PIC)?
A) By evaluating, rating, and ranking opportunities
B) By conducting market research and customer surveys
C) By identifying problems and suggesting solutions
D) By aligning the product development process with the business strategy
A
34
Q12) What is the purpose of product portfolio planning?
A) To identify and rank potential projects for development
B) To allocate resources to different projects in the portfolio
C) To ensure a steady stream of new product opportunities
D) To assess the value and profitability of existing products
C
35
Q13) What are the three portfolio management goals according to Robert Cooper?
A) Strategic fit, financial viability, market demand
B) Strategic fit, strategic contribution, strategic priorities
C) Strategic alignment, portfolio value, project balance
D) Strategic balance, market share, revenue growth
B
36
Q16) What are the three most common types of product platforms?
A) Technological platforms, category platforms, branding platforms
B) Technological platforms, modular platforms, market platforms
C) Modular platforms, category platforms, branding platforms
D) Technological platforms, category platforms, strategic platforms
A
37
Q18) Which approach dominates in stage-gate product portfolio tools?
A) Sharpening gate decision making on individual projects
B) Reviewing all projects after each stage to prioritize and allocate resources
C) Conducting a comprehensive market analysis before gate decision making
D) Allocating resources based on the project's expected net present value
A
38
Q20) What is the purpose of the strategic buckets approach in new product portfolio analysis?
A) To prioritize projects based on their strategic fit and financial viability
B) To visualize the distribution of projects across different strategic criteria
C) To allocate resources based on the project's expected net present value
D) To identify and assess potential risks associated with individual projects
B
39
5) What makes a new product truly 'exist'?
A. Its presence in a store
B. Its conceptualization
C. Its success in meeting the goal assigned in the project in the PIC
D. Its manufacturing process
C
40
6) A product concept statement primarily claims:
A. How the product was made
B. The cost of the product
C. The proposed customer value
D. The benefits of the product
C
41
Q3) How is the bothersomeness index adjusted in problem analysis?
A. By users' awareness of currently available solutions of the problem
B. By users' satisfaction with the product
C. By the frequency of product use
D. By the severity of the problems
A
42
Q20) Who are the primary sources of information in the reverse brainstorming process?
A. Light product users
B. Experts in the field
C. Heavy product users
D. Stakeholders in the company
C
43
Q1) What are the four steps of the reverse brainstorming problem analysis procedure?
A. Determine product for exploration, find heavy product users, gather problems from users, sort and
rank problems
B. Identify the product, seek feedback, brainstorm on problems, solve problems
C. Research the product, find light product users, gather benefits from users, sort and rank benefits
D. Understand the product, find target audience, ask for product improvements, prioritize
improvements
A:
44
Qualitative analysis
Qualitative analysis in product development is the use of non-numerical methods (like user interviews, observations, or open-ended surveys) to understand customer needs, preferences, and experiences with a product.
45
Conjoint analysis
Conjoint analysis is a market research method used to find out which features or attributes of a product are most important to customers by showing them different combinations and analyzing their choices.
46
Trade-off analysis
Trade-off analysis is a decision-making tool used to compare multiple product features or options, helping identify the best balance between competing factors like cost, quality, performance, and customer value.
47
Perceptual Analysis
Perceptual analysis is the process of understanding how customers perceive different products or brands, often using visual maps to show how products compare on key attributes (like price, quality, innovation, etc.).
48
Gap analysis
Gap analysis is the process of identifying the difference ("gap") between the current state of a product, service, or process and the desired or ideal state.
49
Q2) Which type of analysis is used to determine how various products are perceived by their market
position?
A) Qualitative analysis
B) Perceptual analysis
C) Gap analysis
D) Dimensional analysis
C
50
Q3) What are the two types of gap maps mentioned in the text?
A) Qualitative gap maps and quantitative gap maps
B) Perceptual gap maps and determinant gap maps
C) Determinant gap maps and dimensional gap maps
D) Arbitrary gap maps and factor gap maps
B
51
Q4) What statistical technique is commonly used for creating perceptual gap maps?
A) Factor analysis
B) Gap analysis
C) Trade-off analysis
D) Conjoint analysis
A
52
Q7) What is a disadvantage of a conjoint analysis?
A) It does not consider purchase occasion and variety-seeking behavior.
B) It only includes a few attributes at a time.
C) It relies too much on customer perceptions of reality.
D) It does not provide perceptual gap maps.
B
53
Q9) Which type of conjoint analysis shows several alternative product choices to the respondent?
A) Adaptive conjoint analysis
B) Full-profile conjoint analysis
C) Perceptual conjoint analysis
D) Choice-based conjoint analysis
D
54
Q12) How many types of templates are there in the creativity template?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
D
55
Q13) Which template involves finding a functional dependency between two independent variables?
A) Attribute dependency template
B) Replacement template
C) Displacement template
D) Component control template
A
56
Q14) Which template involves removing one component of the product and replacing it with one
from another environment?
A) Attribute dependency template
B) Replacement template
C) Displacement template
D) Component control template
B
57
Q15) Which template involves removing an intrinsic component and its function to create a new
product?
A) Attribute dependency template
B) Replacement template
C) Displacement template
D) Component control template
C
58
Q16) Which template involves identifying and creating a new connection between a component
internal to the product and one that is external?
A) Attribute dependency template
B) Replacement template
C) Displacement template
D) Component control template
D
59
Q17) What is the method of generating ideas by looking at others called?
A) Qualitative analysis
B) Attribute dependency
C) Replacement analysis
D) Analogy
D
60
Q24) What are modifications to the core product that provide new benefits called?
A) Upgrades
B) Add-ons
C) Extras
D) Accessories
A
61
Q25) Which type of enhancement improves the quality of the core product for customer segments?
A) Upgrades
B) Add-ons
C) Extras
D) Accessories
A
62
Q26) Which type of enhancement adds extra products to provide customization or variety?
A) Upgrades
B) Add-ons
C) Extras
D) Accessories
B
63
Q27) Which type of enhancement adds features that appeal to customers depending on their usage
rate?
A) Upgrades
B) Add-ons
C) Extras
D) Accessories
C
64
Q28) Which type of enhancement provides stand-alone complementary products?
A) Upgrades
B) Add-ons
C) Extras
D) Accessories
D
65
Q30) Which TRIZ example involves objects located inside other objects?
A) Segmentation
B) Local quality
C) Universality
D) Nested doll
D
66
Top-two-boxes score
It is the percentage of respondents who select the top two most favorable responses on a scale.
And therefefore would probabily buy it
67
Concept evaluation
Concept evaluation is the process of analyzing and comparing early product ideas to decide which ones are worth developing further.
68
Q1) What is the purpose of concept testing?
a) To identify poor concepts
b) To estimate sales or trial rate
c) To develop the idea
d) All of the above
a
69
Q3) Which of the following is not an instrument used in concept evaluation?
a) Uniqueness
b) Need fulfillment
c) Perceived attributes of innovations
d) Scalability
c
70
cumulative expenditures curve
A cumulative expenditures curve shows how costs build up over time during the new product development process. It helps visualize when and how much money is being spent at each stage.
71
Risk/Payoff Matrix – What It Determines
The risk/payoff matrix helps determine the balance between the potential reward (payoff) of a product idea and its associated risk (uncertainty or chance of failure).
72
Q15) Which of the following is NOT one of the Rogers variables for perceived attributes of
innovations?
a) Relative advantage
b) Compatibility
c) Complexity
d) Scalability
s
73
What does the A-T-A-R model calculate?
The A-T-A-R model calculates the sales or profit potential
74
Q26) What is the purpose of the risk matrix decisions?
The purpose of the risk matrix decisions is to evaluate and prioritize product ideas or projects based on their level of risk and potential impact, helping teams:
Identify which ideas are worth pursuing
75
The strategic portfolio mode
The strategic portfolio mode is an approach to managing a company’s mix of innovation or product development projects to ensure alignment with strategic goals, resource limits, and risk appetite.
76
what is a profile sheet
A profile sheet is a visual or descriptive summary that outlines the key attributes, strengths, and weaknesses of a product concept, often used during concept evaluation.
77
Q1) What does the term 'full screen' imply in the context of product development?
A) The size of the product being developed
B) The feasibility of technical accomplishment and commercial accomplishment
C) The aesthetic design of the product
D) The use of computer technology in the product development process
B
78
Q2) What does a scoring model in product development involve?
A) Keeping scores of rival products
B) Using factors from the categories: technical accomplishment and commercial accomplishment
C) Judging the product based on public opinion
D) Ranking the product in comparison to other products in the market
B
79
Q16) What is the main purpose of creating a ‘profile sheet’ in the full screen process?
A) To estimate the sales of the product
B) To graphically arrange the 5-point scorings on the different factors
C) To calculate the production cost of the product
D) To design the marketing strategy for the product
B
80
Q21) What does the term 'newness' imply when selecting the most appropriate forecasting model?
A) The freshness of the product in terms of its manufacturing date
B) The novelty of the product in terms of its features and benefits
C) The uniqueness of the product in terms of its design and appearance
D) The innovation of the product in terms of its concept and market presence
B
81
Q23) What is the role of a 'Life cycle concept' in financial analysis?
A) It helps in determining the lifespan of a product in the market
B) It provides better insight into when expenses are typically made during the product development
and marketing stages
C) It predicts the sales of the product at a future date
D) It helps in identifying the target customers for the product
B
82
Q28) What is a hierarchical decision tree used for in the Analytic Hierarchy Process (AHP)?
A) It helps in deciding the price of the product
B) It assists in identifying primary and secondary activities that are considered important in reaching
the goals
C) It aids in increasing the production cost of the product
D) It helps in marketing the product
Q29)
B
83
Ongoing (Incremental) Innovation
ngoing (Incremental) Innovation
Small, continuous improvements to existing products or processes
Low risk, often customer-driven
Example: New features in a smartphone update
84
Revolutionary (Radical/Disruptive) Innovation
Breakthrough changes that create entirely new markets or disrupt existing ones
High risk, high potential reward
Example: Introduction of the smartphone or electric cars
85
Def of add-ons
Add-ons are additional features, components, or services that are not part of the core product, but can be purchased or added separately to enhance its value, functionality, or experience.
86
Extras
Extras are additional features, services, or benefits that come along with the core product, often as bonuses or perks — sometimes free, sometimes included in a premium version.
87
protocol process
The protocol process refers to the creation and use of a product protocol — a formal agreement or document that clearly defines:
88
Q4) What is an Oobeya room?
A. A room where a team works on a prototype.
B. A room for meeting clients.
C. A room for final product testing.
D. A room where all the product documentation is stored.
A
89
Q5) What is wildcatting in the context of product development?
A. Aggressive marketing of a new product.
B. Betting on a technology that hasn’t been proven yet.
C. Exceeding the budget in product development.
D. Ignoring customer feedback during the product development process.
B
90
Q12) Which strategy is suggested to improve the efficiency of QFD?
A. Concentrate on all the engineering characteristics.
B. Organize the engineering characteristics into groups, and designate responsibility to functional
areas.
C. Ignore the cost-benefit analysis of each engineering characteristic.
D. Discourage cross-functional dialogue and interaction.
C
91
Q15) What is meant by "hardening of the requirement in the protocol" as a warning in the protocol
process?
A. People tend to resist changes in the protocol once established.
B. The protocol becomes more complex over time.
C. The protocol requires more technical expertise to understand.
D. The protocol leads to increased project costs.
A
92
Q19) Who should an effective QFD team choose as an administrator?
A. An external consultant.
B. The CEO of the company.
C. A team member.
D. The customer representative
C
93
Q20) What is the purpose of benchmarking in a product protocol?
A. To evaluate the success of a marketing campaign.
B. To compare the product with competitors.
C. To estimate the production volumes.
D. To identify regulatory requirements.
B
94
Q22) What are the 'engineering characteristics' in a House of Quality?
A. The product's manufacturing details.
B. The product's physical features.
C. The technical specifications translating customer needs.
D. The customer's ranking of the product.
C
95
Q23) The house of quality WHATS shows:
A. The product's manufacturing process.
B. The relation between technical parts
C. The customer attributes.
D. The competing products' rankings.
C
96
Q24) In the product protocol, what does 'augmentation dimension' refer to?
A. The size of the product.
B. The core benefit, formal product and augmentations.
C. The increased costs due to improved product features.
D. The physical dimensions of the product.
B
97
Q25) In product development, what does 'financials' refer to?
A. The product's price.
B. The projected sales of the product.
C. The budget allocated to the product development project.
D. The product's profitability.
C
98
Q28) The lower part of the House of Quality, or number three, represents:
A. The relations between technical parts.
B. Real technical specs that are created and then ranked against other products.
C. Customer attributes.
D. Competing products' rankings.
B
99
Q29) What is the 'formal product' in the 'augmentation dimension' of a product protocol?
A. The prototype of the product.
B. The final, sellable version of the product.
C. The first version of the product that is tested.
D. The product in its initial concept phase
B
100
Q30) How does the product protocol contribute to better manageability of the project?
A. By assigning roles and responsibilities to the team members.
B. By defining requirements in measurable terms.
C. By increasing the budget for the project.
D. By decreasing communication between team members
B
101
Q2) What is 'Design for X' in the context of product development?
A. Designing exclusively for a certain customer base.
B. Creating a design with only one key focus.
C. The practice of incorporating different factors in product design.
D. A mathematical formula for design.
C
102
Q6) How is 'Product Architecture' defined?
A. The process of developing a product.
B. The process of customer need being transformed into product design.
C. The process of incorporating customer feedback into the product.
D. The process of breaking down the product into smaller components.
A
103
Q8) What does the term 'Design Consolidation' refer to?
A. The production of the final product
B. The elimination of unworkable designs.
C. The combination of the best parts of each idea into one design.
D. The final approval of the design.
B
104
Q10) What is meant by 'Market Penetration' in the context of innovation?
A. Entering a new market with an existing product.
B. Selling the current product to the existing customer base.
C. Introducing a new product to the current customer base.
D. Introducing a new product to a new market.
B
105
Q11) What does 'Product Diversification' imply in terms of innovation?
A. Selling the current product to the existing market.
B. Introducing an existing product to a new market.
C. Introducing a new product to the current market.
D. Introducing a new product to a new market
D
106
Q17) What is 'Rapid Prototyping'?
A. The creation of a solid object directly from a 3D computer model.
B. The quick creation of a product schematic.
C. The fast-tracked development of a product.
D. The immediate launch of a product into the market.
A
107
Q19) What is the role of a 'Produceability Engineer'?
A. To oversee the entire production process.
B. To ensure that production requirements are met by design decisions.
C. To market the product to potential customers.
D. To design the product's packaging.
B
108
Q20) What is meant by 'Front Loading' in the context of Design for Manufacturability?
A. Identifying and solving design problems in the initial stages.
B. Prioritizing the production of certain components.
C. Putting more resources into the early stages of product development.
D. Manufacturing a large quantity of products upfront.
A
109
Q23) What is the 'V-model' in product development?
A. A model that describes the activities and results in product development.
B. A model used for the marketing of a product.
C. A model that outlines the manufacturing process.
D. A model that describes the financial aspects of product development.
A
110
Q29) What does 'Partnering upstream with vendors' mean in product development?
A. Partnering with vendors who can provide resources for product development.
B. Partnering with vendors who can market the product.
C. Partnering with vendors who can help with product design.
D. Partnering with vendors who can finance the product development.
A
111
Q30) What is meant by 'Market Development' in the context of innovation?
A. Selling the current product to the existing customer base.
B. Entering a new market with an existing product.
C. Introducing a new product to the current customer base.
D. Introducing a new product to a new market.
Q30) What is meant by 'Market Development' in the context of innovation?
A. Selling the current product to the existing customer base.
B. Entering a new market with an existing product.
C. Introducing a new product to the current customer base.
D. Introducing a new product to a new market.
112
Q31) What is 'Product Development' in the context of innovation?
A. Selling the current product to the existing customer base.
B. Introducing an existing product to a new market.
C. Introducing a new product to the current market.
D. Introducing a new product to a new market.
C
113
Q38) What is meant by 'Quality of the user interface' in assessing an industrial design?
A. The overall look and feel of the product.
B. The ability for the user to easily understand and interact with the product.
C. The pricing strategy for the product.
D. The marketing strategies used for the product.
B
114
8) Which of the following is not a guiding principle in new product process implementation?
A) Clarity of goals and objectives
B) Ownership
C) Leadership at both senior and team levels
D) Risk avoidance
D
115
7) What term describes a network of participants who actually do the new product work, comprising
nodes, links, and operating relationships?
A) Core team
B) Ad hoc team
C) Extended team
D) Network
D
116
9) What term is used to describe high-performance teams that derive enjoyment from working
together?
A) Commitment
B) Cooperation
C) Charged behavior
D) Collaboration
C
117
10) Why is managing interfaces across functional areas important in new product development?
A) To improve product performance
B) To minimize differences
C) To avoid conflicts
D) To impose solutions
A
118
Product use testing
Giving a near-final version of a product to real users to try it out in real-world conditions, before launch, to gather feedback on performance, usability, and satisfaction.
119
Q1) What is another name for product use testing?
A) Field testing
B) Market acceptance testing
C) User testing
D) All of the above
D
120
Q3) Use testing involves testing the prototype under:
A) Extreme operating conditions
B) Controlled laboratory conditions
C) Normal operating conditions
D) Unusual operating conditions
C
121
Q5) Who should be included in the user group for product use testing?
A) Lab personnel
B) Experts
C) Employees
D) Stakeholders
E) All of the above
Q6)
E
122
Q6) How should the user group be reached during product use testing?
A) Individual contact
B) Group contact
C) Mode of contact is not important
D) Both individual and group contact
D
123
Q19) What does the term "blind test" refer to in product use testing?
A) No information given to the users
B) Users are blindfolded during testing
C) Users are not allowed to see the product
D) Users are not aware of the purpose of the test
A
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Q1) What is the key challenge of technical launch?
A. Learning from market trends
B. Learning from design and field testing while ramping up production output
C. Avoiding the risks associated with product launch
D. Predicting customer reactions
B
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Q5) Which is not a measure used for individual product assessment?
A. Customer acceptance measures
B. Time-to-market
C. Product level performance
D. Financial performance
D
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Q6) In strategic platform decisions, what is 'selective demand'?
A. Encouraging existing customers to migrate to the new product
B. Drawing market share away from competitors
C. Encouraging adoption of the new product category and lead to diffusion through the marketplace
D. Developing a new product category with no competitors yet
C
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Q9) Which type of buyer only buys when a deal is present?
A. Loyalists
B. Rotators
C. Deal-selective
D. Store brand buyers
C
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Q18) What is 'replacement demand' in strategic platform decisions?
A. Encouraging adoption of the new product category and lead to diffusion through the marketplace
B. Drawing market share away from competitors
C. Encouraging existing customers to migrate to the new product
D. Developing a new product category with no competitors yet
c
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Q20) Which of the following is not a type of buyer as per the given text?
A. Loyalists
B. Rotators
C. Price-driven
D. Seasonal buyers
Q21)
d
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Q23) What is 'Virtual product testing' an extension of?
A. Mass production
B. Mass customization
C. Strategic marketing
D. Tactical marketing
b
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Q33) In the context of mass customization, who are 'adaptive customizers'?
A. They work with customers to arrive at the optimal product
B. They let the customers do the customizing themselves
C. They sell the same basic product but adapt the product’s presentation
D. They do not inform their customers that they are customizing the product for them
b
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Q34) What does 'roll-in, roll-out' strategy refer to in the context of product line replacement
strategies?
A. Keeping the earlier product alongside the new, but with decreased support
B. Putting the new item in a different channel or diverting the existing product into another channel
C. Replacing an existing product by arranging a sequence of market segments
D. Dropping the existing product when the replacement is announced
a
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Q36) Who are the 'rotators' among the types of buyers?
A. Buyers who only buy the cheapest products
B. Buyers who are loyal to a particular retailer
C. Buyers who rotate between a few brands and don’t use deals
D. Buyers who only buy when a deal is present
c
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Q1) What is meant by prelaunch in the launch cycle?
A) Indirect network externalities
B) A stage where signaling and building capabilities to compete occurs
C) The announcement of the new product
D) The stage where heavy expenditure is made to overcome sales inertia
B
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Q4) What is a lean launch?
A) A technique used by supply chain managers to make the system flexible
B) A product launch that does not involve any expenditure
C) A launch strategy where the product is introduced in a limited number of cities
D) A product launch that involves a large amount of investment
C
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Q5) What is postponement in the context of a lean launch?
A) Delaying finalization of product form and identity until late in the development process
B) Launching a product without testing it in the market
C) Postponing the announcement of the product launch
D) Delaying the process of sending out pre-announcements
A
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Q6) What is form postponement?
A) Deploying inventory as late as possible
B) Locking in product design as late as possible
C) Changing the form of a product after its launch
D) A type of pre-announcement strategy
B
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Q7) What is a communications mix?
A) A combination of different communication channels used to reach the end user
B) A mix of product and promotional strategies
C) A mixture of different reseller strategies
D) A combination of supply chain management techniques
A
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Q8) What is a copy strategy statement used for?
A) For delivering the product positioning statement
B) For understanding the market segment being targeted
C) For communicating major copy points to be communicated
D) All of the above
D
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Q9) What is the role of personal selling?
A) To promote the product to potential customers
B) To announce the product launch
C) To erect barriers to entry in the market
D) To increase market penetration
A
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Q10) What is the purpose of market testing?
A) To verify production and manufacturing problems
B) To estimate potential sales and market share
C) To determine how and where to sell the product
D) All of the above
Downloaded
D
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Q18) What is the purpose of a lead country in a geographic rollout?
A) To test the product in a controlled environment before full-scale launch
B) To gain feedback from a specific demographic
C) To take advantage of regional marketing opportunities
D) To launch the product where it was developed
A
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Q19) What are the three common patterns for launch strategies and tactics?
A) The innovative new product, the offensive improvement, the defensive addition
B) The early growth, the offensive improvement, the defensive addition
C) The prelaunch, the beachhead, the early growth
D) The prelaunch, the innovative new product, the defensive addition
A
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Q23) What is the major drawback of test marketing?
A) It is expensive
B) It is time-consuming
C) It might lead to product failure
D) It can be negatively influenced by competitors
D
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Q24) What is the role of a copy strategy statement?
A) It defines the pricing strategy for a product
B) It outlines the communication strategy for a product launch
C) It establishes the target market for a product
D) All of the above
D
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Look back at chpater 17
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Q7) What is the objective of an after-action review (AAR)?
A) To train the sales team
B) To capture the events leading up to the product launch and understand the thinking behind actions
taken
C) To implement the tracking system
D) To increase executive support
B
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Q8) What happens when a product appears to be failing?
A) An after-action review (AAR) is conducted
B) A stepwise product deletion process is initiated
C) The tracking system is improved
D) A new gap analysis matrix is created
B
149
Q10) What aspect of launch management does the concept of 'Market window accuracy' pertain to?
A) Sales preparedness
B) Spotting potential problems
C) Gap analysis matrix
D) After-action review (AAR)
C
150
Q12) What's the role of the tracking system in determining the implementation of contingency plans?
A) Analyzing the hierarchy of effects
B) Comparing the plan to the expected plan
C) Providing actual data indicating progress against the plan
D) Role-playing what competitors will do
C
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Q13) What does the business case in the gap analysis matrix refer to?
A) The market opportunity for the product
B) The financial justification for the product
C) The sales strategy for the product
D) The competition for the product
Downloaded
B
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Q15) How does an innovation dashboard assist in launch management?
A) It helps in selecting control events
B) It establishes performance metrics for innovation-related aspects
C) It identifies the hierarchy of effect necessary to produce the product
D) It ensures sales preparedness
B
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Do TRIZ chapter
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Do the other one also
