Chapter 13-28 study Flashcards by Tammara Diaz

As part of the learning process, the __________ can rework electrical connections as new information arrives.

A. brain
B. hypothalamus gland
C. nerves
D. heart

A. brain

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Which system controls and adjusts the activities of other organ systems?

A. nervous system
B. digestive system
C. lymphoid system
D. cardiovascular system

A. nervous system

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Which of the following is known as the visceral motor system?

A. efferent division
B. autonomic nervous system
C. somatic nervous system
D. afferent division

B. autonomic nervous system

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The afferent division begins at the __________.

A. effector
B. somatic
C. receptor
D. visceral

C. receptor

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Which division of the nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord and the control centers responsible for processing?

A. central nervous system
B. peripheral nervous system
C. autonomic nervous system
D. All of the listed responses are correct.

A. central nervous system

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What is an axon?

A. a long, slender cytoplasmic process of a neuron that is capable of propagation and action potential

B. a membranous wrapping that increases the speed of action potential propagation

C. a neuronal process that is specialized to respond to specific stimuli in the extracellular environment

D. the cell body of a neuron

A. a long, slender cytoplasmic process of a neuron that is capable of propagation and action potential

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Action potentials are the change in the __________ that develops after the plasmalemma is stimulated to a level known as threshold.

A. effector
B. reflex
C. membrane potential
D. receptor

C. membrane potential

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Which cell in the central nervous system is the largest and most numerous glial cell, maintains the blood–brain barrier, provides structural support, and absorbs and recycles neurotransmitters?

A. oligodendrocyte
B. microglia
C. astrocyte
D. ependymal cell

C. astrocyte

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Which type of neuron has continuous dendritic and axonal processes and has a cell body that lies off to one side?

A. anaxonic neuron
B. bipolar neuron
C. pseudounipolar neuron
D. multipolar neuron

C. pseudounipolar neuron

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Which sensory receptors monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints?

A. interoceptors
B. exteroceptors
C. proprioceptors
D. None of the listed responses is correct.

C. proprioceptors

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Which cells in the peripheral nervous system regulate the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the neuron cell body and the extracellular fluid?

A. satellite cells
B. neurolemmocytes
C. Schwann cells
D. All of the listed responses are correct.

A. satellite cells

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Why is it complicated for regeneration to occur within the central nervous system?

A. Astrocytes release chemicals that block the regrowth of axons.
B. Astrocytes produce scar tissue that can prevent axon growth across the damaged area.
C. Many more axons are likely to be involved.
D. All of the listed responses are correct.

D. All of the listed responses are correct.

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Place the steps involved in the repair of a peripheral nerve in order from beginning to end.

1. Axon sends buds into network of Schwann cells and then starts growing along cord of Schwann cells.
2. Fragmentation of axon and myelin occurs in distal stump.
3. Axon continues to grow into distal stump and is enfolded by Schwann cells.
4. Schwann cells form cord, grow into cut, and unite stumps. Macrophages engulf degenerating axon and myelin.

A. 3, 2, 1, 4
B. 3, 1, 2, 4
C. 3, 4, 1, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 2

D. 3, 1, 4, 2

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__________ is the ability of a plasmalemma to respond to an adequate stimulus.

A. inhibitory
B. electrical synapse
C. excitability
D. chemical synapse

C. excitability

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Place the sequence of events of a chemical vesicular synapse in order from start to finish.

Receptor binding results in a change in the permeability of the postsynaptic cell membrane.
Arrival of the action potential at the terminal bouton triggers release of neurotransmitter from secretory vesicles, through exocytosis at the presynaptic membrane.
The effects of one action potential on the postsynaptic membrane are short-lived because the neurotransmitter molecules are either enzymatically broken down or reabsorbed.
The neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
If the degree of excitation is sufficient, receptor binding may lead to the generation of an action potential in the axon or sarcolemma.

A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
B. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
C. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
D. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

A. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

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The following are collections of neuron cell bodies in the central nervous system.

A. columns
B. ganglia
C. tracts
D. nuclei

D. nuclei

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Which function of a neural circuit occurs when several neurons or neuronal pools are processing the same information at one time?

A. parallel processing
B. divergence
C. convergence
D. serial processing

A. parallel processing

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What term is used to describe a group of interconnected neurons with specific functions that is defined on the basis of function rather than anatomical grounds?

A. neural circuit
B. nonvesicular synapse
C. neuronal pool
D. vesicular synapse

C. neuronal pool

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Which portion of gray matter in the central nervous system is located on the surface of the brain?

A. neural cortex
B. centers
C. nuclei
D. higher centers

A. neural cortex

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A collection of neuron cell bodies with a common function is referred to as __________.

A. columns
B. tracts
C. center
D. pathways

C. center

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A group of neuron cell bodies in the central nervous system, which share a common function, is known as a _______________.

A. center
B. tract
C. column
D. neural cortex
E. soma
F. ganglion

A. center

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Sensory neurons of the peripheral nervous system are usually _______________.

A. multipolar
B. anaxonic
C. pseudounipolar
D. bipolar
E. multipolar AND anaxonic
F. multipolar AND pseudounipolar

C. pseudounipolar

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Which of the following is/are NOT (a) function(s) of ependymal cells?

A. They line the ventricles in the brain and the central canal in the spinal cord.

B. They assist in producing, circulating, and monitoring cerebrospinal fluid.

C. They remove cell debris, wastes, and pathogens by phagocytosis.

D. They regulate ion, nutrient, and dissolved-gas concentrations.

E. They remove cell debris, wastes, and pathogens by phagocytosis AND they regulate ion, nutrient, and dissolved-gas concentrations.

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Which of the following receptors monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints?

A. interneurons
B. exteroceptors
C. proprioceptors
D. neuroeffectors
E. interoceptors
F. visceral motor neurons

C. proprioceptors

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Which of the following is NOT a type of neuroglia found in the central nervous system (CNS)? A. satellite cells B. astrocytes C. ependymal cells D. microglia E. oligodendrocytes

A. satellite cells

Nerve impulses would travel most quickly through axons of which of the following characteristics? A. 20 µm diameter, unmyelinated B. 15 µm diameter, unmyelinated C. 20 µm diameter, myelinated D. 0.5 µm diameter, myelinated E. 0.5 µm diameter, unmyelinated F. 1 µm diameter, myelinated

C. 20 µm diameter, myelinated

Which of the following structures is/are usually lost by neurons during differentiation? A. neurofibrils B. neurofilaments C. centrioles D. Nissl bodies E. chromatophilic substance F. perikaryon

C. centrioles

Which of the following neural circuits is characterized by a system in which information is relayed in a stepwise sequence, from one neuron to another, or from one neural pool to the next, and in a sequential manner? A. reverberation B. Wallerian processing C. serial processing D. parallel processing E. divergence F. convergence

C. serial processing

Which of the following most accurately describes the neuroglia of the central nervous system (CNS)? A. Cytoplasmic processes of astrocytes facilitate the exchange of proteins with the extracellular fluid within the CNS. B. The processes of oligodendrocytes are slender and more numerous compared to those of astrocytes, and they tie clusters of axons together and improve the functional performance of neurons. C. The microglia appear early in embryonic development through the division of endodermal stem cells. D. The astrocytes are packed with neurofibrils that extend across the breadth of the cell, forming a structural network that supports the neurons of the brain and spinal cord. E. Ependymal cells are cuboidal to columnar in form, have slender processes that branch extensively, and make direct contact with glial cells.

E. Ependymal cells are cuboidal to columnar in form, have slender processes that branch extensively, and make direct contact with glial cells.

Which of the following statements regarding peripheral nerve regeneration after injury is FALSE? A. The injured axon sends buds into a network of Schwann cells. B. Fragmentation of the axon and myelin occurs in the proximal stump. C. Macrophages engulf the degenerating axon and myelin. D. The axon is enfolded by Schwann cells.

B. Fragmentation of the axon and myelin occurs in the proximal stump.

Neurons that are located entirely within the brain and spinal cord, that outnumber all other neurons combined (in both total number and in types), and that process sensory information and coordinate motor activity are known as

interneurons

In the embryonic brain, astrocytes appear to be involved in directing the growth and interconnection of developing neurons through the secretion of chemicals known as

neurotropic factors

The white matter of the central nervous system (CNS) contains bundles of axons that share common origins, destinations, and functions. These bundles are called

tracts

Every peripheral axon, whether it is unmyelinated or myelinated, is covered by

Schwann cells, neurolemmocytes

The perikaryon of a representative neuron contains groups of fixed and free ribosomes that are present in large numbers and are called

chromatophilic substance, Nissl bodies

During nerve regeneration in the peripheral nervous system, after injury, oligodendrocytes form a cord, grow into the cut, and unite stumps. True or False

False

Sensory neurons of the peripheral nervous system are usually of this structural classification, and they may have myelinated axons and have a single elongate process with the cell body situated to one side.

pseudounipolar neurons

This is a functional classification of neurons that innervate peripheral effectors other than skeletal muscles. There are two groups; one has cell bodies inside the CNS, and the other has cells in the peripheral ganglia.

visceral motor neurons

This is a functional classification of neurons that transmit information about internal conditions and the status of other organ systems.

visceral sensory neurons

Relatively rare, this structural classification of neurons plays an important role in relaying sensory information concerning sight, smell, and hearing, and it also has two processes separated by the cell body.

bipolar neurons

This is a structural classification of neurons with poorly understood functions that are found only in the central nervous system and in special sense organs. They have more than two processes, but the axons cannot be distinguished from dendrites.

anaxonic neurons

Which of the following is the most common type of neuron in the central nervous system, having several dendrites and one axon and being exemplified by all the motor neurons that control skeletal muscle? A. pseudounipolar neurons B. bipolar neurons C. anaxonic neurons D. multipolar neurons

D. multipolar neurons

Histologically, neural tissue dominated by myelinated axons is defined as __________. A. gray matter B. neural cortex C. neuroglia D. white matter

D. white matter

A synapse between neurons may involve a synaptic terminal and which of the following structures? A. a dendrite B. an axon C. a cell body D. All of the listed responses are correct.

D. All of the listed responses are correct.

Axons connecting the ganglion cells with the peripheral effectors are known as which of the following? A. terminal arborizations B. postganglionic fibers C. terminal boutons D. preganglionic fibers

B. postganglionic fibers

Which of the following divisions carries motor commands to muscles and glands? A. the efferent division of the central nervous system B. the afferent division of the central nervous system C. the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system D. the afferent division of the peripheral nervous system

C. the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system

Many oligodendrocytes cooperate in the formation of the myelin sheath along the entire length of a myelinated axon; the relatively large areas wrapped in myelin are called

internodes

Which cells appear early in embryonic development through the division of mesodermal stem cells? A. Schwann cells B. oligodendrocytes C. ependymal cells D. microglia

D. microglia

Schwann cells sheathe every axon in the peripheral nervous system. True OR False

False

Histologically, neuronal processes that are specialized to respond to specific stimuli in the extracellular environment are called

dendrites

Which of the following components of the nervous system controls skeletal muscle contractions? A. somatic nervous system B. autonomic nervous system C. parasympathetic nervous system D. sympathetic nervous system

A. somatic nervous system

Which of the following statements regarding Schwann cells is/are true? A. Unmyelinated axons are enclosed by Schwann cell processes. B. A Schwann cell can myelinate only about 10 mm down the length of a single axon. C. A single Schwann cell may surround several different unmyelinated axons. D. Both the statement "Unmyelinated axons are enclosed by Schwann cell processes" and the statement "A single Schwann cell may surround several different unmyelinated axons" are true.

D. Both the statement "Unmyelinated axons are enclosed by Schwann cell processes" and the statement "A single Schwann cell may surround several different unmyelinated axons" are true.

The cell bodies of sensory neurons and visceral motor neurons within the peripheral nervous system are found in which of the following structures? A. ganglia B. tracts C. columns D. pathways

A. ganglia

Astrocytes within the central nervous system are packed with microfilaments that extend across the breadth of the cell, forming a structural framework that supports the neurons of the brain and spinal cord. True OR False

True

Which of the following is NOT a function of astrocytes? A. produce myelin, which wraps axons and functions as an insulator B. perform repairs in damaged neural tissue C. guide neuron development D. maintain the blood–brain barrier

A. produce myelin, which wraps axons and functions as an insulator

Some neural circuits utilize positive feedback to produce which of the following? A. convergence B. serial processing C. reverberation D. divergence

C. reverberation

Neuron cell bodies in the peripheral ganglia are surrounded by ________ , which regulate the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the neuron cell body and the extracellular fluid.

satellite cells

In a multipolar neuron, which specialized region connects the initial segment of the axon to the soma? A. collateral B. axon hillock C. terminal bouton D. telodendria

B. axon hillock

Regarding nerve impulses, an action potential develops immediately before the plasmalemma is stimulated to threshold. True OR False

False

Which of the following statements regarding interoceptors is FALSE? A. They monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints. B. They monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems. C. They provide sensations of deep pressure and pain. D. They provide the sensation of taste.

A. They monitor the position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints.

In the peripheral nervous system, the process known as __________ defines the deterioration of an axon distal to a site of injury.

Wallerian degeneration

The ventricles of the brain and central canal of the spinal cord are lined by a cellular layer called the ___________

ependyma, ependymal cells

Demyelination is NOT associated with which of the following conditions? A. diphtheria B. rabies C. multiple sclerosis D. Guillain-Barré syndrome

B. rabies

Label

Label the Neuronal Pools

The __________ consists of the brain and spinal cord. a) somatic nervous system (SNS) b) peripheral nervous system (PNS) c) central nervous system (CNS) d) autonomic nervous system (ANS)

c) central nervous system (CNS)

The adult spinal cord extends from the foramen magnum to the inferior border of the __________. a) L1 vertebra b) L2 vertebra c) L3 vertebra d) L4 vertebra

a) L1 vertebra

Which of the following describes a filum terminale? a) It extends from the conus medullaris along the length of the vertebral canal as far as the dorsum of the coccyx. b) It is a slender strand of fibrous tissue. c) Its origin is the inferior tip of the conus medullaris. d) All of the listed responses are correct.

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Where are the denticulate ligaments located? a) arachnoid mater b) pia mater c) dura mater d) subarachnoid space

b) pia mater

What is the outermost covering of the spinal cord and brain? a) arachnoid mater b) pia mater c) dura mater d) All of the listed responses are correct.

c) dura mater

How many pairs of spinal nerves are associated with the cervical vertebrae? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 12

c) 7

The arachnoid mater consists of simple squamous epithelium and is separated from the pia mater by which of the following? a) denticulate ligaments b) subdural space c) epidural space d) subarachnoid space

d) subarachnoid space

The projections of gray matter toward the outer surface of the spinal cord are called __________. a) descending tracts b) ascending tracts c) horns d) central canal

c) horns

Which white mater columns are between the posterior gray horns and the posterior median sulcus? a) lateral white columns b) posterior white columns c) anterior white columns d) None of the listed responses is correct.

b) posterior white columns

Which gray horns contain neurons concerned with somatic motor control? a) gray commissures b) lateral gray horns c) anterior gray horns d) posterior gray horns

c) anterior gray horns

Which of the following statements about spinal contusion is true? a) It occurs when the spinal cord becomes physically squeezed or distorted within the vertebral canal. b) It produces a period of spinal shock due to a jolt of energy. c) It occurs when the spinal cord is completely severed. d) It is hemorrhage occurring in the meninges and within the spinal cord as a result of whiplash or falls.

d) It is hemorrhage occurring in the meninges and within the spinal cord as a result of whiplash or falls.

Which spinal segment of the cervical plexus innervates the skin of the upper chest, shoulder, neck, and ear? a) C3–C5 b) C1–C5 c) C2–C3 d) C1–C4

c) C2–C3

Which nerve of the brachial plexus innervates the serratus anterior muscle? a) subscapular nerve b) suprascapular nerve c) long thoracic nerve d) dorsal scapular nerve

c) long thoracic nerve

Which nerve of the lumbar plexus innervates the adductor muscles of the hip, the gracilis muscle, and skin over the medial surface of the thigh? a) femoral nerve b) obturator nerve c) saphenous nerve d) genitofemoral nerve

b) obturator nerve

Which nerve of the sacral plexus innervates the skin of the perineum and the posterior surface of the thigh and leg? a) gluteal nerve b) posterior femoral cutaneous nerve c) pudendal nerve d) sciatic nerve

b) posterior femoral cutaneous nerve

Which nerve plexus innervates the pectoral girdle and upper limbs? a) brachial plexus b) lumbar plexus c) sacral plexus d) cervical plexus

a) brachial plexus

Place in order the following steps of a stretch reflex. 1) activation of a motor neuron 2) arrival of stimulus and activation of the receptor 3) response by effector 4) information processing in the CNS 5) activation of a sensory neuron a) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 b) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 d) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1

b) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

Which type of reflex is genetically determined? a) innate reflex b) acquired reflex c) somatic reflex d) visceral reflex

a) innate reflex

Place in order the following steps of the stretch reflex. 1) stimulus 2) information processing at a motor neuron 3) response 4) activation of a sensory neuron 5) activation of motor neuron a) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 b) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 c) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2 d) 1, 2, 4, 2, 5

b) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

Which type of reflex controls the actions of smooth and cardiac muscles and the actions of glands? a) acquired reflex b) spinal reflex c) visceral reflex d) somatic reflex

c) visceral reflex

The spinal meninges surround the dorsal and ventral roots within the intervertebral foramina. True or False

True

Which of the following is an example of a reflex classification based on the nature of the resulting motor response? a) monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes b) autonomic, visceral, and somatic reflexes c) innate and acquired reflexes d) cranial and spinal reflexes

b) autonomic, visceral, and somatic reflexes

Regarding gross anatomy of the spinal cord, which of the following structures supplies/supply nerves to the pectoral girdle? a) dorsal root b) rami communicantes c) lumbosacral enlargement d) cervical enlargement

d) cervical enlargement

Which nerve of the lumbar plexus is responsible for supplying the abdominal muscles (external and internal obliques and transversus abdominis) and the skin over the inferior abdomen and buttocks? a) genitofemoral nerve b) iliohypogastric nerve c) ilioinguinal nerve d) obturator nerve

b) iliohypogastric nerve

Where is cerebrospinal fluid found? a) in the subarachnoid space b) in the epidural space c) within the pia mater d) in the subdural space

a) in the subarachnoid space

Which of the following statements regarding the stretch reflex is/are true? a) It provides automatic regulation of skeletal muscle. b) It is a simple monosynaptic reflex. c) It responds to information provided by the stretch receptors of muscle spindles. d) All of the listed statements are true.

d) All of the listed statements are true.

Within the brachial plexus, all three posterior divisions of the trunks unite to form the posterior cord, and the anterior divisions of the superior and middle trunks unite to form the ___________

lateral cord

Which structure of the spinal cord contains axons crossing from one side of the cord to the other before reaching a destination within the gray matter? a) posterior (dorsal) gray horn b) anterior (ventral) gray horn c) gray commissure d) lateral gray horn

c) gray commissure

The median nerve of the brachial plexus supplies the flexor muscles of the arm, including the biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles. True or False

False

Reflexes classified by development as being genetically determined are called __________, in contrast to acquired reflexes, which are learned.

innate reflexes

Which of the spinal meninges consist(s) of a layer of dense, irregular connective tissue with an epithelial covering on both inner and outer surfaces? a) pia mater b) dura mater c) arachnoid mater d) dura mater and arachnoid mater

b) dura mater

The brachial plexus consists of which spinal nerve segments? a) C5–T1 b) C1–C5 c) C5–T6 d) C1–C8

a) C5–T1

Which of the following is a structure of the rami communicantes that supplies postganglionic fibers to smooth muscles and glands of the body wall and limbs? a) gray ramus b) ventral ramus c) white ramus d) dorsal ramus

a) gray ramus

Regarding the rami communicantes, the gray ramus is typically distal to the white ramus and includes unmyelinated postganglionic fibers. True OR False

False

Which structure of the spinal cord contains somatic and visceral sensory nuclei? a) posterior white column b) posterior (dorsal) gray horn c) anterior (ventral) gray horn d) lateral white column

b) posterior (dorsal) gray horn

Which of the following statements regarding nerve plexuses is FALSE? a) They form during development as small skeletal muscles fuse with their neighbors to form larger muscles with compound origins. b) They include the cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral plexuses. c) They exist where dorsal rami are converging and branching to form compound nerves. d) None of the listed statements is false.

c) They exist where dorsal rami are converging and branching to form compound nerves.

White and gray rami communicantes are found only in spinal nerve segments _____________________.

T1–L2

Which connective tissue covering of a peripheral nerve is composed of collagenous fibers, elastic fibers, and fibrocytes and divides the nerve into a series of fascicles? a) epineurium b) perineurium c) dura mater d) endoneurium

b) perineurium

Spinal cord tracts show a regional organization comparable to that found in the nuclei of the gray matter of the cord. True or False

True

Which nerve of the brachial plexus supplies the rhomboid and levator scapulae muscles? a) suprascapular nerve b) dorsal scapular nerve c) thoracodorsal nerve d) subscapular nerve

b) dorsal scapular nerve

Regarding the sacral plexus, as the _____________ nerve approaches the popliteal fossa, it divides to form two branches: the common fibular nerve and the tibial nerve.

sciatic

Spinal nerves are classified as _________________ because they contain both afferent and efferent fibers.

mixed nerves

The distribution of the sensory fibers within which of the following structures illustrates the segmental division of dermatomes supplied by the spinal cord? a) ventral and white rami b) gray and white rami c) dorsal and ventral rami d) dorsal and gray rami

c) dorsal and ventral rami

Match the spinal segments of the lumbar and sacral plexuses with the associated nerve. 1. S1–S3__ 2. L2–L4__ 3. L4–S3__ 4. L1, L2__ 5. S2–S4__ --------------------------------------- A. genitofemoral nerve B. obturator nerve C. posterior femoral cutaneous nerve D. sciatic nerve E. pudendal nerve

1. c 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. 3

Match the nerve of the brachial plexus with the structures it innervates. 1. subscapular nerves______ 2. radial nerve ____ 3. medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve______ 4. long thoracic nerve______ 5. axillary nerve_____ _____________________________________ A. serratus anterior muscle B. teres major muscle C. deltoid and teres minor muscles; sensory fibers from skin of shoulder D. sensory fibers from skin over anterior, medial surface of arm and forearm E. many extensor muscles of arm and forearm, supinator muscle, and digital extensor muscles

1. b 2. e 3. d 4. a 5. c

The ________________________ consists of muscular and cutaneous branches of the ventral rami of spinal nerve C1-C4, and some nerve fibers of C5.

cervical plexus

The neural "wiring' of a reflex is called a ________________________ , which begins at a receptor and ends at a peripheral effector, such as a muscle or gland cell.

reflex arc

Every spinal segment is associated with a pair of ___________________ that contain the cell bodies of sensory neurons.

dorsal root ganglia

The ___________________________ of each spinal nerve provides sensory innervation from, and motor innervation to, a specific segment of the skin and muscles of the neck and back.

dorsal ramus

Specialized membranes collectively known as the _______________ provide protection, physical stability, and shock absorption for the spinal cord.

spinal meninges

Afferent sensory and efferent motor information travels by several different routes, depending on which of the following factors? a) the priority level of the information b) where the information is going c) where the information is coming from d) All of the listed responses are correct.

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following sensory neurons deliver the action potential to the Central Nervous System? a) third-order neuron b) second-order neuron c) first-order neuron

c) first-order neuron

Which item is an anatomical principle of neurons within sensory tracts? a) medial-lateral rule b) sensory modality arrangement c) somatotopic arrangement d) All listed responses are correct.

d) All listed responses are correct.

What tract carries sensations of pain, temperature, and "crude" sensations of touch and pressure? a) inferior spinocerebellar tract b) posterior spinocerebellar tract c) anterior spinocerebellar tract d) spinothalamic tract

d) spinothalamic tract

Which corticospinal tracts provide conscious motor control of skeletal muscles? a) lateral corticospinal tracts b) anterior corticospinal tracts c) corticobulbar tracts d) All of the listed responses are correct.

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Subconscious regulation of balance and muscle tone is a function of which of the following tracts? a) rubrospinal tracts b) vestibulospinal tracts c) reticulospinal tracts d) tectospinal tracts

b) vestibulospinal tracts

Subconscious regulation of upper limb muscle tone and movement is a function of which of the following tracts? a) tectospinal tracts b) reticulospinal tracts c) rubrospinal tracts d) vestibulospinal tracts

c) rubrospinal tracts

Along the length of pyramids, what is the percentage of axons that cross the decussate to enter the descending lateral corticospinal tracts? a) 15 percent b) 45 percent c) 65 percent d) 85 percent

d) 85 percent

Fine-touch, vibration, pressure, and proprioception sensations from the right side of the body are the functions of ____________. a) spinocerebellar tracts b) lateral spinothalmic tracts c) posterior columns d) anterior spinothalmic tracts

c) posterior columns

What is the function of the lateral spinothalmic tract? a) crude touch and pressure sensations from the right side of the body b) pain and temperature sensations from the right side of the body c) proprioceptive input from the Golgi tendon, organs, muscle spindles, and joint capsules d) fine touch, vibration, pressure, and proprioception sensations from the right side of the body

b) pain and temperature sensations from the right side of the body

The sensation of proprioception, fine touch, pressure, and vibration from levels at or superior to T6 is controlled by which tract(s)? a) fasciculus cuneatus b) spinothalamic tracts c) fasciculus gracilis d) spinocerebellar tracts

a) fasciculus cuneatus

Which of the following may issue somatic motor commands as a result of processing performed at a subconscious level? a) diencephalon b) brain stem c) cerebrum d) All of the listed responses are correct.

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Which somatic motor control modifies voluntary and reflexive motor patterns at the subconscious level? a) brain stem b) medulla oblongata c) basal nuclei d) hypothalamus

c) basal nuclei

Which somatic motor control plans and initiates voluntary activity? a) cerebellum b) thalamus c) medulla oblongata d) cerebral cortex

d) cerebral cortex

Which somatic motor control controls reflexes in response to visual and auditory stimuli? a) brain stem and spinal cord b) thalamus and mesencephalon c) pons and superior medulla oblongata d) basal nuclei and hypothalamus

b) thalamus and mesencephalon

What somatic motor control does the cerebellum possess? a) coordinates complex motor patterns b) controls simple cranial and spinal reflexes c) controls basic respiratory reflexes d) plans and initiates voluntary motor activity

a) coordinates complex motor patterns

What somatic motor control is under the command of the inferior medulla oblongata? a) controlling basic respiratory reflexes b) coordinating complex motor patterns c) controlling balance reflexes and more-complex respiratory reflexes d) modifies voluntary and reflexive motor patterns at the subconscious level

a) controlling basic respiratory reflexes

Which of the following control(s) simple cranial and spinal reflexes? a) cerebellum b) inferior medulla oblongata c) brain stem and spinal cord d) pons and superior medulla oblongata

c) brain stem and spinal cord

Over which of the following do the pons and superior medulla oblongata have somatic motor control? a) coordinating complex motor patterns b) modifying voluntary and reflexive motor patterns at the subconscious level c) balance reflexes and more-complex respiratory reflexes d) basic respiratory reflexes

c) balance reflexes and more-complex respiratory reflexes

What somatic motor control does the hypothalamus possess? a) plans and initiates voluntary motor activity b) controls stereotyped motor patterns related to eating, drinking, and sexual activity, and modify respiratory reflexes c) controls basic respiratory reflexes d) controls simple cranial and spinal reflexes

b) controls stereotyped motor patterns related to eating, drinking, and sexual activity, and modify respiratory reflexes

All of the levels of somatic motor control affect the activity of ______ neurons.

lower motor

Regarding anterior spinocerebellar tracts, axons of most ___________ cross before entering the tract, and then cross again within the cerebellum.

second-order neurons, Second order neurons , 2nd order neurons

The ________________________ tracts, sometimes called the pyramidal system, provide voluntary control over skeletal muscles.

corticospinal

Control of muscle tone and gross movements of the neck, trunk, and proximal limb muscles are primarily controlled by the ________________ pathway.

subconscious motor

Highly localized information about "what," "where," "when" of sensations, such as fine touch and vibration, enter the spinal cord inferior to T6 and travels to the medulla oblongata within the __________.

fasciculus gracilis

Roughly how many neurons are in the brain? a) 20 thousand b) 20 million c) 20 billion d) 20 trillion

c) 20 billion

Which brain region contains, as its major function, relaying and processing centers for sensory information? a) thalamus b) pons c) mesencephalon d) hypothalamus

a) thalamus

The body of which ventricle lies within the parietal lobes with an anterior horn extending into the frontal lobe of the brain? a) fourth ventricle b) lateral ventricles c) third ventricle d) All of the listed responses are correct.

b) lateral ventricles

Protection, support, and nourishment of the brain involve each of the following EXCEPT __________. a) the cerebrospinal fluid b) the blood-brain barrier c) the skin of the skull d) the cranial meninges

c) the skin of the skull

Which of the following is a function of the cerebrospinal fluid? a) supporting brain b) preventing contact between delicate neural structures and the surrounding bones c) transporting nutrients, chemical messengers, and waste products d) All of the listed responses are correct.

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Which part of the medulla oblongata has the function to regulate heart rate and force of contraction? a) respiratory rhythmicity centers b) cardiac centers c) vasomotor centers d) None of the listed responses are correct.

b) cardiac centers

Which of the following cranial nerves are associated with the medulla oblongata? a) CN VIII, CN IX, CN X, CN XI, CNXII b) CN VII, CN IX, CN X, CNXI, CN XII c) CN VII, CN VI, CN X, CNXI, CN XII d) CN III, CN IV, CN V, CN X, CN XII

a) CN VIII, CN IX, CN X, CN XI, CNXII

Which item below describes the function of the respiratory centers of the pons? a) It interconnects the pontine nuclei with the cerebellar hemispheres on the opposite side. b) It modifies output in the medulla oblongata. c) It interconnects the cerebellar hemispheres. d) It is the nuclei associated with four cranial nerves and the cerebellum.

b) It modifies output in the medulla oblongata.

The pons extends inferiorly from the mesencephalon to where? a) medulla oblongata b) hypothalamus c) telencephalon d) thalamus

a) medulla oblongata

What gives the red nucleus of the mesencephalon its red color? a) hormones b) blood vessels c) cerebrospinal fluid d) lymphoid vessels

b) blood vessels

Which structure(s) in the mesencephalon regulates activity in the basal nuclei? a) reticular formation b) red nuclei c) cerebral peduncles d) substantia nigra

d) substantia nigra

Centers controlling emotions, autonomic functions, and hormone production occur in which structure in the brain? a) pons b) hypothalamus c) medulla oblongata d) thalamus

b) hypothalamus

Which of the following structures are found in the diencephalon? a) hypothalamus b) thalamus c) epithalamus d) All listed responses are correct.

d) All listed responses are correct.

What structure(s) connects the cerebellar cortex and nuclei with cerebellar peduncles? a) cerebellar peduncles b) arbor vitae c) cerebellar cortex d) cerebellar nuclei

b) arbor vitae

Which cerebellar peduncle links the cerebellum with the mesencephalon, diencephalon, and cerebrum? a) middle cerebellar peduncle b) inferior cerebellar peduncle c) superior cerebellar peduncle d) None of the listed choices are correct.

c) superior cerebellar peduncle

The part of the cerebral cortex that functions in conscious control of the skeletal muscles is called __________. a) primary sensory cortex b) primary motor cortex c) auditory cortex d) visual cortex

b) primary motor cortex

Which structure(s) connect the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum, and the spinal cord? a) longitudinal fasciculi b) projection fibers c) arcuate fibers d) association fibers

b) projection fibers

Which cranial nerve innervates the superior oblique muscle of the eye? a) CN XI accessory nerve b) CN II optic nerve c) CN VII facial nerve d) CN IV trochlear nerve

d) CN IV trochlear nerve

What does the maxillary branch of the CN (V) trigeminal nerve innervate? a) lower eyelid, upper lip, gums and teeth, cheek, part of the nose, palate, and part of the pharynx b) tongue musculature c) lateral rectus muscle

a) lower eyelid, upper lip, gums and teeth, cheek, part of the nose, palate, and part of the pharynx

What does the external branch of the CN (XI) accessory nerve innervate? a) skeletal muscles of the palate, pharynx, and larynx b) olfactory epithelium c) sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles d) retina of the eye

c) sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

The external branch of the accessory nerve (N XI) controls the ___________ and trapezius muscles.

sternocleidomastoid muscle

The ___________________________ is a continuation of the dural sheet that lines the sella turcica of the sphenoid; thereby anchoring the dura mater to the sphenoid and sheathing the base of the pituitary gland.

diaphragma sellae

Axons leaving the vestibular and cochlear nuclei relay the sensory information to other centers or initiate _____________________ .

reflexive motor responses

Why are longer, deeper states of unconsciousness NOT necessarily dangerous? a) Dreaming takes place. b) Hormone balance is maintained. c) Blood flow is reduced. d) Nourishment is provided.

d) Nourishment is provided.

Which statement(s) describe(s) the autonomic nervous system's (ANS) neurotransmitters and their effects? a) Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers also release ACh, but the effects may be either stimulatory or inhibitory, depending on the nature of the receptor. b) All preganglionic autonomic fibers release ACh at their synaptic terminals, and their effects are stimulatory. c) Most postganglionic sympathetic terminals release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (NE), with usually a stimulatory effect. d) All of the listed responses are correct.

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Which division of the ANS gives rise to the "fight-or-flight" response? a) sympathetic division b) craniosacral division c) parasympathetic division d) None of the listed responses is correct.

a) sympathetic division

Which division(s) of the ANS give(s) rise to the "rest-and-response" response? a) craniosacral division b) sympathetic division c) thoracolumbar division d) All of the listed responses are correct.

a) craniosacral division

The sympathetic division of the ANS consists of which of the following? a) specialized neurons in the interior portion of the suprarenal gland b) preganglionic neurons located between segments T1 and L2 of the spinal cord c) ganglionic neurons in the ganglia near the vertebral column d) All of the listed responses are correct.

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Which sympathetic pathway's general function is to innervate visceral organs in the abdominopelvic cavity? a) collateral ganglia b) postganglionic fibers c) preganglionic fibers d) suprarenal medullae

a) collateral ganglia

When sympathetic activation occurs, what effect does an individual experience? a) a general elevation in muscle tone through stimulation of the extrapyramidal system so that the person looks tense and may even begin to shiver b) a feeling of energy or euphoria, often associated with a disregard for danger and a temporary insensitivity to painful stimuli c) increased alertness through stimulation of the reticular activating system, causing the individual to feel "on edge" d) All of the listed responses are correct.

c) increased alertness through stimulation of the reticular activating system, causing the individual to feel "on edge"

Why are the preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division short? a) because the ganglia are close to the brain b) because the ganglia are close to the spinal cord c) so they don't need epinephrine to work d) None of the listed responses is correct.

b) because the ganglia are close to the spinal cord

Which sympathetic ganglion is located near the base of the inferior mesenteric artery and innervates the small intestine and the initial segments of the large intestine? a) inferior mesenteric ganglion b) celiac ganglion c) superior mesenteric ganglion d) None of the listed responses is correct.

c) superior mesenteric ganglion

Which splanchnic nerve innervates the small and large intestine? a) greater splanchnic nerve b) lesser splanchnic nerve c) sacral splanchnic nerve d) lumbar splanchnic nerve

b) lesser splanchnic nerve

Which ganglion of the parasympathetic division innervates the eye? a) pterygopalatine ganglia b) ciliary ganglion c) submandibular ganglion d) otic ganglion

b) ciliary ganglion

The general functions of the parasympathetic division include which of the following? a) increase smooth muscle activity along the digestive tract b) constrict respiratory passageways c) reduce heart rate and force of contraction d) All of the listed responses are correct.

d) All of the listed responses are correct.

Which cranial nerve is associated with the parasympathetic division’s sending signals to the lacrimal gland? a) CN III b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X

b) CN VII

Which target organ(s) does CN IX effect? a) nasal glands, tear glands, and salivary glands b) visceral organs in the inferior portion of the abdominopelvic cavity c) parotid salivary gland d) intrinsic eye muscles

c) parotid salivary gland

Which target organ(s) does CN III effect? a) parotid salivary gland b) intrinsic eye muscles c) visceral organs in the inferior portion of the abdominopelvic cavity d) visceral organs of the neck, thoracic cavity, and most of the abdominal cavity

b) intrinsic eye muscles

Which parasympathetic division ganglion innervates the lacrimal gland? a) submandibular ganglion b) pterygopalatine ganglion c) otic ganglion d) None of the listed responses is correct.

b) pterygopalatine ganglion

Which visceral reflex stimulates the sudden rise in blood pressure in the carotid artery? a) baroreceptor reflex b) cardioacceleratory reflex c) swallowing reflex d) vasomotor reflex

a) baroreceptor reflex

In the sympathetic division, varicosities and enlarged terminal knobs that release transmitter near target cells are characteristic of which of the following? a) visceral motor neurons b) postganglionic fibers c) neuroeffector junction d) preganglionic fibers

c) neuroeffector junction

The stimulus of the swallowing reflex is the movement of food and drink into the pharynx. What is its response? a) reduction in heart rate and force of contraction b) sudden explosive ejection of air c) smooth muscle and skeletal muscle contractions d) increased glandular secretions and sensitivity

c) smooth muscle and skeletal muscle contractions

Irritation of the digestive tract lining is the stimulus, and the response is the reversal of the normal action of smooth muscle to eject the contents of the digestive tract. This describes which visceral reflex? a) vasomotor reflexes b) vomiting reflex c) gastric and intestinal reflexes d) defecation

b) vomiting reflex

The modified neurons of the suprarenal medulla have relatively long axons that, when stimulated, release norepinephrine and epinephrine into an extensive network of capillaries. True or False

False

Match the parasympathetic or sympathetic reflex to its characteristic (stimulus, response, and comments). 1. gastric and intestinal reflexes 2. vomiting reflex 3. emission and ejaculation 4. direct light and consensual light reflexes 5. pupillary reflex --------------------------------------------------- a. mediated by the vagus nerve (CN X) b. constriction of pupils of both eyes c. reversal of normal smooth muscle action to eject contents d. low light level reaching visual receptors e. involves the contraction of the bulbospongiosus muscles

1. a 2. c 3. e 4. b 5. d

From which spinal segments do preganglionic fibers originate and pass through the sympathetic chain ganglia and the celiac ganglion, WITHOUT synapsing, and proceed to the suprarenal medulla? a) T3–T6 b) T5–T8 c) T7–T10 d) T9–T12

b) T5–T8

Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS? a) Preganglionic neurons are located in lateral gray horns of spinal cord segments T1–L2. b) It is also referred to as the thoracolumbar division of the ANS. c) Preganglionic fibers release ACh, stimulating ganglionic neurons. d) Most postganglionic fibers release ACh at neuroeffector junctions.

d) Most postganglionic fibers release ACh at neuroeffector junctions.

Which of the following statements about collateral ganglia is FALSE? a) They are single structures. b) They consist of a pair of interconnected masses of gray matter situated at the base of the celiac trunk. c) They are located anterior and medial to the descending aorta. d) They are embedded in an extensive weblike network of nerve fibers.

c) They are located anterior and medial to the descending aorta.

Which of the following statements is true of the parasympathetic division of the ANS? a) It predominates under resting conditions. b) It has preganglionic fibers that release ACh, stimulating ganglionic neurons. c) It consists of preganglionic fibers originating in either the brain stem or the sacral spinal cord. d) All of the listed responses are true.

d) All of the listed responses are true.

Which of the following statements about beta receptors is FALSE? a) They trigger changes in the metabolic activity of target cells. b) They are sensitive to epinephrine. c) They are found in skeletal muscle and in smooth muscles surrounding respiratory airways, the heart, and the liver. d) They are stimulated primarily by norepinephrine.

d) They are stimulated primarily by norepinephrine.

In the sympathetic division, the sacral splanchnic nerves end in the ___________ , an autonomic network supplying pelvic organs and the external genitalia.

hypogastric plexus

Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic ganglion? A) submandibular ganglion B) otic ganglion C) celiac ganglion D) ciliary ganglion

C) celiac ganglion

Regarding the sympathetic chain ganglia, only the thoracic and superior lumbar ganglia receive preganglionic fibers from the white rami. True or False

True

Exposure to nicotinic receptors by acetylcholine always causes excitation of the ganglionic neuron or muscle fiber through the opening of plasmalemma _________ .

ion channels

Which of the following accurately describes preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division of the ANS? A) Their myelinated fibers are carried together as the white ramus communicans into a nearby collateral ganglion. B) Their axons enter the ventral roots of spinal segments T1–L2. C) Their cell bodies occupy the lateral portion of anterior gray horns of spinal segments T1–L2. D) None of the listed responses is correct.

B) Their axons enter the ventral roots of spinal segments T1–L2.

Which of the following statements about muscarinic receptors is FALSE? A) They are stimulated by a toxin produced by some poisonous mushrooms. B) When stimulated, they produce responses that reflect the activation or inactivation of specific enzymes. C) When stimulated, they produce longer-lasting effects than do nicotinic receptors. D) They are found at all adrenergic neuroeffector junctions.

D) They are found at all adrenergic neuroeffector junctions.

Which of the following sympathetic structures are NOT adrenergic? A) most ganglionic neurons B) most postganglionic terminals or fibers C) all preganglionic fibers D) All of the structures listed are adrenergic.

C) all preganglionic fibers

Extensive divergence occurs in the sympathetic division, with one preganglionic fiber synapsing on as many as 22 ganglionic neurons. True or False

True

Which of the following is a specialized cell or cell process that monitors conditions in the body or the external environment and which, when it is stimulated, directly or indirectly alters the production of action potentials in a sensory neuron? A) sense organ B) sensation C) perception D) sensory receptor

D) sensory receptor

The special senses include all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) equilibrium B) gustation C) olfaction D) All of the listed responses are special senses.

D) All of the listed responses are special senses.

A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as ________. A) adaption B) labeled line C) receptor specificity D) sensory coding

A) adaption

What are free nerve endings? A) the connection between receptor and cortical neurons B) the dendrites of sensory neurons, which are the simplest receptors C) structures that provide information on the intensity and rate of change of a stimulus D) single receptor cells

B) the dendrites of sensory neurons, which are the simplest receptors

What information does sensory coding provide? A) the variation of a stimulus B) the strength of a stimulus C) the duration of a stimulus D) All of the listed responses are correct.

D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Which general sensory receptors are stimulated or inhibited by physical distortion, contact, or pressure on their plasmalemmae? A) thermoreceptors B) nociceptors C) mechanoreceptors D) chemoreceptors

C) mechanoreceptors

Which mechanoreceptors are found where tactile sensitivities are extremely well developed and are common at the eyelids, lips, fingertips, nipples, and external genitalia? A) Ruffini corpuscles B) lamellated corpuscles C) Meissner's corpuscles D) pacinian corpuscles

C) Meissner's corpuscles

Which general sensory receptors are specialized neurons that can detect small changes in the concentration of specific chemicals or compounds? A) nociceptors B) thermoreceptors C) chemoreceptors D) mechanoreceptors

C) chemoreceptors

In olfactory organs, the lamina propria contains which of the following? A) blood vessels B) olfactory glands that produce thick, pigmented mucus C) nerves D) All of the listed responses are correct.

D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Where is olfactory epithelium located? A) covering the inferior surface of the cribriform plate B) covering the superior nasal conchae of the ethmoid bone C) covering the superior portions of the nasal septum D) All of the listed responses are correct.

D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves, which one arises from the axons leaving the olfactory epithelium in bundles? A) CN XII B) CN II C) CN III D) CN I

D) CN I

Which of the following is a type of papilla on the human tongue? A) fungiform B) circumvallate C) filiform D) All of the listed responses are correct.

D) All of the listed responses are correct.

Which cranial nerves monitor taste buds? A) CN VI, CN XI B) CN VII, CN X C) CN IV, CN IX D) CN VI, CN XII

B) CN VII, CN X

Which of the following is NOT a primary taste sensation? A) sweet B) sour C) salty D) All of the listed responses are primary taste sensations.

D) All of the listed responses are primary taste sensations.

Which of the following bones is NOT considered an auditory ossicle? A) stapes B) incus C) petrous part of the temporal bone D) malleus

C) petrous part of the temporal bone

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the vestibular nuclei? A) to relay information from the vestibular apparatus to the cerebral cortex, providing a conscious sense of position and movement B) to integrate the sensory information concerning balance and equilibrium arriving from each side of the head C) to relay information from the vestibular apparatus to the parietal lobe of the brain D) to send commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord

C) to relay information from the vestibular apparatus to the parietal lobe of the brain

Which of the following is NOT a function of the vascular tunic of the eye? A) providing a route for blood vessels and lymphatics that supply tissues of the eye B) regulating the amount of light exiting the anterior portion of the eye C) secreting and reabsorbing the aqueous humor that circulates within the eye D) controlling the shape of the lens

B) regulating the amount of light exiting the anterior portion of the eye

Which portion of the eye begins at the junction between the cornea and sclera and extends posteriorly to the ora serrata? A) iris B) pupil C) suspensory ligaments D) ciliary body

D) ciliary body

Which two systems of the body work together to monitor and adjust the body's physiological activities? endocrine system and lymphoid system endocrine system and nervous system endocrine system and cardiovascular system None of the listed responses is correct.

endocrine system and nervous system

Melatonin is secreted by which endocrine gland? parathyroid gland pineal gland suprarenal gland thyroid gland

pineal gland

Which hormone types are small molecules with a five-carbon ring at one end and are released by most body cells with the compounds coordinating cellular activities and affecting enzymatic processes that occur in extracellular fluids? peptide hormones eicosanoids steroid hormones amino acid derivatives

eicosanoids

Which of the following describes hypothalamus control over endocrine organs? control of sympathetic output to suprarenal medullae secretion of regulatory hormones to control activity of the pars distalis of the pituitary gland production of ADH and oxytocin All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Of the pituitary hormones, which one affects the reabsorption of water, the elevation of blood volume, and blood pressure throughout the body? ACTH GH MSH ADH

ADH

Which hormone is NOT secreted by the adenohypophysis? LH ACTH ADH GH

ADH

Which hormone(s) secreted by the thyroid gland affect(s) the decrease of calcium ion concentration in body fluids? calcitonin triiodothyronine thyroxine All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What manufactures, stores, and secretes thyroid hormones and is typically lined by a simple cuboidal epithelium composed of T thyrocytes? thyroid cartilage follicle cavity thyroid follicle colloid

thyroid follicle

What types of endocrine cell are glandular and produce PTH? chief cells principal cells parathyroid cells All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What is the importance of hormones produced by the thymus gland? stimulates production of red blood cells stimulates osteoclasts the development and maintenance of normal immunological defenses synthesizes vitamin D

the development and maintenance of normal immunological defenses

Which region(s) of the suprarenal cortex produce(s) mineralocorticoids? zona glomerulosa zona fasciculata zona reticularis All of the listed responses are correct.

zona glomerulosa

Which region of the suprarenal gland secretes epinephrine? zona glomerulosa zona reticularis zona fasciculata suprarenal medulla

suprarenal medulla

Which hormone stimulates the secretion of aldosterone by the suprarenal cortex? angiotensin II angiotensin I angiotensinogen renin

angiotensin II

Insulin is secreted by which pancreatic cells? alpha cells beta cells F cells delta cells

beta cells

Which pancreatic hormone inhibits the secretion of insulin and glucagon? pancreatic polypeptide glucagon somatostatin insulin

somatostatin

Which hormone inhibits gallbladder contractions and regulates the production of pancreatic enzymes? beta cells F cells alpha cells delta cells

F cells

Which reproductive system hormone accelerates the movement of the oocyte along the uterine tube and prepares the uterus for the arrival of the developing embryo? estradiol inhibin estrogen progesterone

progesterone

The functions of testosterone include which of the following? to maintain the secretory glands of the male reproductive tract to stimulate muscle growth to promote the production of functional sperm All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The pineal gland is located in which region of the diencephalon? epithalamus thalamus hypothalamus None of the listed responses is correct.

epithalamus

The effects of aging on the hormones include which of the following? At puberty, the levels of reproductive hormones change. At menopause, the concentration of reproductive hormones in women declines. Most tissues can become less responsive to circulating hormones even though hormone concentration remains normal. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The __________ is also called the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and contains the axons and axon terminals of __________ neurons. adenohypophysis; hippocampal adenohypophysis; hypothalamic neurohypophysis; hypothalamic neurohypophysis; hippocampal

neurohypophysis; hypothalamic

Which of the following statements comparing the nervous system to the endocrine system is FALSE? In general, the nervous system produces short-term effects, whereas the endocrine system’s effects may last for days. The adrenal medulla is a modified sympathetic ganglion. The activities of the nervous and endocrine systems are coordinated closely, and their effects are typically in opposition to one another. Endocrine glands release hormones into the bloodstream for distribution throughout the body.

The activities of the nervous and endocrine systems are coordinated closely, and their effects are typically in opposition to one another.

Antidiuretic hormone, or ADH, is released in response to a variety of stimuli, most notably to which of the following? a rise in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a fall in blood volume or pressure a fall in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a rise in blood volume or pressure a rise in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a rise in blood volume or pressure a fall in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a fall in blood volume or pressure

a rise in the concentration of blood electrolytes or a fall in blood volume or pressure

Which of the following statements regarding the hypothalamic control of the adenohypophysis is true? After leaving the hypothalamus, the capillary network unites to form a series of larger vessels that spiral around the infundibulum. The secondary capillary plexus in the floor of the tuberal area receives blood from the superior hypophyseal artery. The hypophyseal portal system delivers hormones to the posterior pituitary. The vessels between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis are called the hypophyseal portal system.

The vessels between the hypothalamus and the adenohypophysis are called the hypophyseal portal system.

Which class of hormones consists of small molecules with a five-carbon ring at one end that coordinate cellular activities and enzymatic processes in extracellular fluids? peptide hormones steroid hormones amino acid derivatives eicosanoids

eicosanoids

Which of the following adenohypophyseal hormones induces ovulation in women and promotes the ovarian secretion of progestins to prepare the body for possible pregnancy? luteinizing hormone prolactin follicle-stimulating hormone growth hormone

luteinizing hormone

Which of the following syndromes occurs as a result of overproduction of thyroxine? gigantism Graves' disease Cushing's disease Addison's disease

Graves' disease

Which term actually applies to a blend of several different complementary hormones that promote the maturation and functional competence of the immune system? triiodothyronine (T3) thymosin parathyroid hormone calcitonin

thymosin

Which of the following pancreatic hormones targets all cells EXCEPT red blood cells and the cells of the brain, kidney, and digestive tract epithelium? glucagon somatostatin insulin pancreatic polypeptide

insulin

Which of the following hormones increases calcium ion concentrations in body fluids and increases bone mass? calcitonin thymosin parathyroid hormone thyroxine (T4)

parathyroid hormone

Which of the following reproductive hormones support follicle maturation, the development of female secondary sex characteristics, and associated behaviors? inhibins androgens progestins estrogens

estrogens

Which hormone increases the rate of cellular metabolism and oxygen consumption in almost every cell of the body and accounts for roughly 90 percent of all thyroid secretions? thymosin triiodothyronine (T3) calcitonin thyroxine (T4)

thyroxine (T4)

Which of the following suprarenal structures produces mineralocorticoids, steroid hormones that affect the electrolyte composition of body fluids? adrenal medulla zona glomerulosa zona reticularis zona fasciculata

zona glomerulosa

Components of the cardiovascular system include which of the following? heart blood blood vessels All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What substance in the body distributes nutrients and hormones, carries metabolic waste, and transports specialized cells for defense? heart blood lymph None of the listed responses is correct.

blood

Blood distributes oxygen to approximately how many cells in the human body? 75 thousand 75 million 75 billion 75 trillion

75 trillion

Which of the following is NOT a formed element? plasma RBC platelet WBC

plasma

What percentage of plasma consists of water? 72 percent 79 percent 88 percent 92 percent

92 percent

Of the different types of plasma proteins, which one makes up 65 percent of the total volume of plasma? albumins fibrinogen globulins None of the listed answers is correct.

albumins

Essential components of clotting systems include which of the following? electrolytes fibrinogen albumins RBCs

fibrinogen

What is another name for immunoglobins? serum fibrin antibodies lipoproteins

antibodies

Which formed element has a very large, kidney-bean-shaped nucleus with an abundant pale cytoplasm? neutrolphil monocyte basophil eosinophil

monocyte

Which cell in the blood is responsible for the cell's ability to transport O2 and CO2? hemoglobin eosinophil lymphocyte None of the listed responses is correct.

hemoglobin

Of the different blood types, which constitutes the blood type of approximately 40 percent of the U.S. population? AB O B A

What is agglutination? the rupture of RBCs the situation when the donor and recipient blood are the same type the clumping of RBCs All of the listed responses are correct.

the clumping of RBCs

What term is used to describe an abnormally low platelet count? anemia thrombocytosis polycythemia thrombocytopenia

thrombocytopenia

The function of platelets includes which of the following? the formation of a temporary patch in the walls of damaged blood vessels the transport of chemicals important to blood clotting the active contraction after clot formation has occurred All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What stem cell in the body divides to form all the blood cells in the process of blood cell formation? myeloid pluripotential lymphoid progenitor

pluripotential

A specialist in blood formation and function is called a(n) ________. histologist hematologist cardiologist endocrinologist

hematologist

Which of the following best describes the name of the stem cell responsible for the production of white blood cells? leukopoietic lymphopoietic erythropoietic All of the listed responses are correct.

leukopoietic

The effects of erythropoietin include which of the following? stimulates increased rates of cell division in erythroblasts accelerates the rate of hemoglobin synthesis speeds up the maturation of RBCs All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Megakaryocytes give rise to ________. granulocytes agranulocytes platelets RBCs

platelets

Progenitor cells give rise to which of the following? monocytes basophils eosinophils All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following statements regarding blood types is FALSE? The blood of a type A, type B, or type O individual always contains antibodies that will attack foreign surface antigens. The surface antigens are glycoproteins or glycolipids, whose characteristics are genetically determined. A typical white blood cell plasmalemma contains a number of surface antigens, or agglutinogens, exposed to the plasma. An individual's blood type is determined by the presence or absence of specific components in erythrocyte cell membranes.

A typical white blood cell plasmalemma contains a number of surface antigens, or agglutinogens, exposed to the plasma.

Which of the following plasma proteins function(s) to transport ions, hormones, and lipids, and also has/have an immune function? regulatory proteins globulins fibrinogen albumins

globulins

Which of the following granular leukocytes migrate to sites of injury and discharge their histamine-containing granules into the interstitial fluids, which dilate blood vessels? eosinophils acidophils neutrophils basophils

basophils

The blood does NOT function in _______________. defense against toxins and pathogens transport of metabolic wastes from sites of excretion to peripheral tissues delivery of hormones and enzymes to target tissues stabilization of body temperature

transport of metabolic wastes from sites of excretion to peripheral tissues

Which of the following white blood cells account for 2–4 percent of the total leukocytes? basophils neutrophils lymphocytes eosinophils

eosinophils

Which of the following leukocytes are two to three times the diameter of a typical red blood cell and are known as "free macrophages" outside the bloodstream? lymphocytes basophils eosinophils monocytes

monocytes

What does the hematocrit value indicate? the percentage of whole blood contributed by formed elements the percentage of whole blood contributed by albumins and globulins the percentage of whole blood contributed by platelets the percentage of whole blood contributed by leukocytes

the percentage of whole blood contributed by formed elements

Megakaryocytes give rise to _______________. basophils monocytes erythrocytes platelets

platelets

Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs? spleen and red bone marrow red bone marrow and thymus gland spleen and thymus gland thymus gland and tonsils

red bone marrow and thymus gland

Which of the following statements regarding platelets is/are true? All of the listed responses are true. Platelets are continually replaced, and an individual platelet circulates for 10–12 days before being removed by phagocytes. About one-half of the platelets in the body, at any moment, are held in the spleen and other vascular organs. A microliter of circulating blood contains an average of 100,000 platelets.

Platelets are continually replaced, and an individual platelet circulates for 10–12 days before being removed by phagocytes.

What is the primary site of blood cell formation in the adult? thymus spleen red bone marrow yellow bone marrow

red bone marrow

Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils arise from which precursor cells? myeloblasts proerythroblasts monoblasts lymphoblasts

myeloblasts

Why does every living cell rely on surrounding interstitial fluid for survival? It is a source of O2. It is a source of nutrients. It is a place to dispose waste products. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The performance of the heart is closely monitored by what system of the body? muscular system respiratory system nervous system cardiovascular system

nervous system

Of the different types of blood vessel, which types are considered exchange vessels? arteries veins capillaries All of the listed responses are correct.

capillaries

Which type of blood vessel transports blood to the heart? vein capillary artery All of the listed responses are correct.

vein

Which of the following is the name of a serous membrane lining the pericardial cavity? visceral pericardium fibrous pericardium parietal pericardium None of the listed responses is correct.

visceral pericardium

Pertaining to the heart, what substance acts as a lubricant by reducing friction between opposing surfaces? fibrous pericardium pericardial fluid visceral pericardium parietal pericardium

pericardial fluid

What type of tissue composes the valves within the heart? myocardium visceral pericardium endocardium epicardium

endocardium

Characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue include which of the following? Cardiac muscle has specialized cell junctions called intercalated discs. Cardiac muscle cells contract without instructions from the nervous system. Cardiac muscle cells have relatively short T tubules that do not form triads with the sarcoplasmic reticulum. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Intercalated discs are specialized cell-to-cell junctions that do which of the following? lock two muscle cells together while helping maintain a three-dimensional structure of tissue aid the muscle cells to pull together with maximum efficiency because the myofibril of adjacent cells and the intercalated discs tie together allow cardiac muscle cells to be connected by gap junctions All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The extensive connective tissue network of the heart is the fibrous skeleton that includes all the following functions EXCEPT which one? reinforcing the valves of the heart and helping prevent underexpansion of the heart providing elasticity that helps return the heart to its original shape after each contraction distributing the forces of contraction stabilizing the position of the muscle cells and valves in the heart

reinforcing the valves of the heart and helping prevent underexpansion of the heart

Why would a midsagittal section of the thoracic cavity NOT cut the heart in half? The heart lies to the left of the midline of the thoracic cavity. The heart sits at an angle to the longitudinal axis of the body. The heart is rotated toward the left side. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What term is used to describe the division between the left and right ventricles indicating a linear depression on the anterior surface of the heart? posterior interventricular sulcus anterior interventricular sulcus sternocostal surface diaphragmatic surface

anterior interventricular sulcus

Which border of the heart extends to the apex of the heart? superior border right border inferior border left border

inferior border

Which sulcus of the heart marks the border between the atria and ventricles? coronary sulcus anterior interventricular sulcus posterior interventricular sulcus All of the listed responses are correct.

coronary sulcus

Which chamber of the heart contracts and sends blood into the pulmonary trunk? left atrium right ventricle right atrium left ventricle

right ventricle

Which valves of the heart are located on the left side of the heart? aortic valve and mitral valve aortic valve and tricuspid valve pulmonary valve and bicuspid valve pulmonary valve and tricuspid valve

aortic valve and mitral valve

The major branches of the right coronary artery include which of the following? atrial branches posterior interventricular branch right marginal branch All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which cranial nerve innervates the heart for parasympathetic control? CN IX CN X CN XI CN XII

CN X

Which of the following statements regarding cardiac muscle tissue is FALSE? Myofibrils in muscle cells anchor firmly to the sarcolemma at the intercalated disc. Cardiocytes average 10–20 µm in diameter and 50–100 µm in length. Cardiac muscle cells are connected by gap junctions, which create an indirect electrical connection. All of the listed statements are true; none is false.

Cardiac muscle cells are connected by gap junctions, which create an indirect electrical connection.

The autonomic centers for cardiac control are found in which area? the cardiac centers of the pons the hypothalamic cardiac centers the cardiac centers of the medulla oblongata the hippocampal cardiac centers

the cardiac centers of the medulla oblongata

Which of the following structures are known as "exchange vessels" because of the exchange of nutrients, dissolved gases, and waste products that occurs through their walls? veins arterioles capillaries venules

capillaries

Which of the following statements regarding the cardiac cycle is FALSE? The atrioventricular and semilunar valves help ensure a one-way flow of blood despite pressure oscillations. Blood will flow from a ventricle into an arterial trunk only as long as the semilunar valve is open, and arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure. Blood will flow out of an atrium only as long as the atrioventricular valve is open, and atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure. All of the listed statements are true; none is false.

Blood will flow from a ventricle into an arterial trunk only as long as the semilunar valve is open, and arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure.

Which of the following layers of the heart wall is relatively thin and contains layers that form figure-eights as they pass from atrium to atrium? atrial endocardium atrial myocardium ventricular myocardium atrial epicardium

atrial myocardium

Regarding the conducting system of the heart, the signal for contraction passes from the sinoatrial node to the atrioventricular node via which of the following? internodal pathways cardiac pacemaker cells bundle of His (HIS) Purkinje fibers

internodal pathways

Which of the following valves is/are found between the right atrium and the right ventricle? bicuspid valve mitral valve tricuspid valve mitral valve and bicuspid valve

tricuspid valve

Which of the following statements regarding the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes is true? Nodal fibers require stimulation from the nervous system to cause depolarization. When norepinephrine is released by sympathetic neurons, the rate of hyperpolarization increases, and the heart rate accelerates. Any factor that changes either the resting potential or the rate of spontaneous depolarization at the SA node will alter the heart rate. Under normal resting conditions, sympathetic activity reduces the heart rate from the inherent nodal rate of 80–100 impulses per minute to 70–80 beats per minute.

Any factor that changes either the resting potential or the rate of spontaneous depolarization at the SA node will alter the heart rate.

Which vessel(s) collect(s) blood from smaller veins draining the myocardial capillaries and deliver(s) this blood to the coronary sinus? middle cardiac vein great cardiac vein anterior cardiac vein great cardiac vein and middle cardiac vein

great cardiac vein and middle cardiac vein

Blood flows from the ascending aorta through the aortic arch into which of the following vessels? aortic sinuses descending aorta right and left coronary arteries ascending aorta

descending aorta

Physical isolation of atrial muscle cells from ventricular muscle cells is a function of which of the following? the fibrous skeleton the Purkinje fibers the bundle of His the internodal pathway

the fibrous skeleton

How many papillary muscles are normally found in the left ventricle? two three four five

two

Which of the following statements regarding cardiac muscle tissue is FALSE? Cardiac muscle cells are almost totally dependent on aerobic respiration to obtain the energy needed to continue contracting. Cardiac muscle fibers have gap junctions in the intercalated discs. The circulatory supply of cardiac muscle tissue is more extensive than that of skeletal muscle tissue. The relatively short T tubules of cardiac muscle do not form triads with the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Cardiac muscle cells are almost totally dependent on aerobic respiration to obtain the energy needed to continue contracting.

Which of the following describes the serous membrane portion that is in direct contact with the heart? fibrous pericardium parietal pericardium visceral pericardium pericardial sac

visceral pericardium

What type of system is the cardiovascular system? closed semipermeable open None of the listed responses is correct.

closed

All chemical and gaseous exchange between the blood and interstitial fluid takes place across which vessel walls? vein artery capillary None of the listed responses is correct.

capillary

Which blood vessel structure forms a connective tissue sheath around a vessel? internal elastic membrane intima media adventitia

adventitia

The basic mechanisms that are responsible for the exchange of materials across the walls of capillaries and sinusoids include all of the following EXCEPT __________. diffusion through the pores in arterioles and venules vesicular transport by endothelial cells, water, and specific bound and unbound solutes diffusion through gaps between adjacent endothelial cells diffusion across the capillary endothelial cells

diffusion through the pores in arterioles and venules

Which type of vein collects blood directly from the capillaries? large vein venule medium-sized vein All of the listed responses are correct.

venule

Which of the following does NOT help in distinguishing an artery from a vein? When not opposed by blood pressure, arterial walls contract. The walls of arteries are thicker than veins. Veins have a pleated appearance from endothelium. The media layer of arteries contains more smooth muscle and elastic fibers than that of a vein.

Veins have a pleated appearance from endothelium.

A __________ is a band of smooth muscle that guards the entrance to each capillary and the diameter of the capillary entrance by reducing or stopping the flow of blood. capillary plexus thoroughfare channel metarteriole precapillary sphincter

precapillary sphincter

Which type of blood vessel transports oxygen-rich blood to the body's skeletal muscle and internal organs? large veins muscular arteries elastic arteries medium-sized veins

muscular arteries

Arterial anastomosis provides a reliable blood supply to the tissues, so if one arterial supply becomes blocked, the other will supply blood to the capillary bed where in the body? heart other organs or body regions with significant circulatory demands brain and stomach All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which vessel below gives blood to the right thyrocervical truck? right vertebral artery right brachiocephalic artery right subclavian artery right internal thoracic artery

right subclavian artery

Which vessel does NOT arise off the aortic arch? right brachiocephalic artery left subclavian artery left common carotid artery left brachiocephalic artery

left brachiocephalic artery

Which vessel(s) supplies/supply blood to the thumb and the fingers? superficial palmar arch digital arteries radial artery ulnar artery

digital arteries

Which of the following vessels does NOT receive blood from the celiac trunk? left gastric artery splenic artery common hepatic artery superior mesenteric artery

superior mesenteric artery

Which arteries originate between the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries? renal arteries splenic artery gonadal arteries inferior phrenic arteries

gonadal arteries

The deep palmar veins drain into the radial vein and ulnar vein, and then those veins, along with the anterior crural interosseous vein, drain into which vein? brachial vein axillary vein medium antebrachial vein cephalic vein

brachial vein

Which vein forms the major tributary of the superior vena cava by joining the superior vena cava at the level of the T2 vertebra? esophageal vein hemiazygos vein azygos vein intercostal vein

azygos vein

Which vessel(s) bring(s) oxygen and nutrients to the developing fetus from the mother? umbilical vein placenta umbilical arteries None of the listed responses is correct.

umbilical vein

Which of the following is an interatrial opening in the fetal heart? fossa ovalis foramen ovale ductus arteriosus ligamentum arteriosum

foramen ovale

Of the different types of blood vessels, which gradually decline with age? medium-sized veins elastic arteries capillaries None of the listed responses is correct.

capillaries

Which of the following can occur with age-related changes in the blood? a thrombus pooling of blood in the veins of the legs because valves are not working effectively a pulmonary embolism All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Collagen fibers in blood vessels bind which structures? the media to the adventitia only the intima to the adventitia the media to both the intima and adventitia the media to the intima only

the media to both the intima and adventitia

Which of the following is NOT an age-related change of the cardiovascular system? Scar tissue replaces damaged cardiac muscle fibers. Inelastic walls of arteries become less tolerant of sudden increases in pressure, which may lead to an aneurysm. The hematocrit increases. All of the listed responses are correct.

The hematocrit increases.

Which of the following vessels have a poorly defined adventitia and a media consisting of scattered smooth muscle fibers, which do NOT form a complete layer? sinusoids fenestrated capillaries arterioles venules

arterioles

Which of the following vessels do NOT have valves? large veins medium-sized veins venules large veins and venules

large veins

The media of which vessels contain a high density of elastic fibers and smooth muscle fibers? thoroughfare channels muscular arteries arterioles elastic arteries

elastic arteries

The arteriolar segment of a passageway in a capillary bed, which contains smooth muscle cells capable of altering its diameter, is known as __________. an arteriole a metarteriole a thoroughfare channel a precapillary sphincter

a metarteriole

Which of the following is NOT considered to be an arterial trunk? mesenteric trunk thyrocervical trunk pulmonary trunk celiac trunk

mesenteric trunk

The shunt that permits most blood to bypass the fetal liver and enter the inferior vena cava is known as __________. the foramen ovale the ductus arteriosus the fossa ovalis the ductus venosus

the ductus venosus

The azygos vein is the major tributary of which of the following vessels? the internal thoracic vein the inferior vena cava the brachiocephalic vein the superior vena cava

the superior vena cava

The pulmonary circuit contains about how much of the total blood volume? 1 percent 9 percent 25 percent 50 percent

9 percent

Two umbilical arteries leave the __________, enter the umbilical cord, and deliver blood to the placenta. external iliac arteries abdominal aorta internal iliac arteries femoral artery

internal iliac arteries

Which of the following unpaired arterial vessels supplies the pancreas? inferior mesenteric artery left gastric artery common hepatic artery superior mesenteric artery

superior mesenteric artery

Which of the following tributaries of the superior vena cava collects blood from the cranium, spinal cord, and vertebrae? vertebral vein cephalic vein internal jugular vein external jugular vein

vertebral vein

Arteries called collaterals can fuse to form an __________ connecting one artery directly to another. arteriovenous anastomosis arteriole capillary arterial anastomosis

arterial anastomosis

Which system interacts with other systems and tissues to defend the body against infection and disease? cardiovascular system lymphoid system integumentary system respiratory system

lymphoid system

What is the name of the liquid connective tissue that is transported and monitored by the lymphoid system? water lymph blood None of the listed responses is correct.

lymph

Lymph consists of which of the following? interstitial fluid lymphocytes macrophages All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The primary functions of the lymphoid system include which of the following? provide an alternative route for the transport of hormones, nutrients, and waste products maintain normal blood volume and eliminate local variations in the chemical composition of the interstitial fluid produce, maintain, and distribute lymphocytes All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Superficial lymphatics travel with superficial veins and are found in all of the following locations EXCEPT __________. the loose connective tissue of the serous membranes lining the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities the deep layer next to the bone the loose connective tissue of the mucous membranes lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts None of the listed responses is correct.

the deep layer next to the bone

The __________ receives lymph from the inferior region of the abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs through the right and left lumbar trunks and intestinal trunks. cisterna chyli thoracic duct right lymphatic duct None of the listed responses is correct.

cisterna chyli

What happens if a lymphatic vessel is compressed or blocked or its valves are damaged? The entire lymphoid system stops functioning until the issue is fixed. Lymph drainage speeds up in the affected area. Lymph drainage slows or ceases in the affected area. None of the listed responses is correct.

Lymph drainage slows or ceases in the affected area.

Under what conditions do lymphocytes respond? in the presence of invading organisms in the presence of foreign proteins in the presence of abnormal body cells All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What cells are responsible for the production and secretion of antibodies? plasmocytes T cells NK cells All of the listed responses are correct.

plasmocytes

T cells are made in the __________ and are activated in the __________. thymus gland; red bone marrow red bone marrow; thyroid gland thyroid gland; red bone marrow red bone marrow; thymus gland

red bone marrow; thymus gland

Which tonsil is located at the base of the tongue? pharyngeal palatine lingual All of the listed responses are correct.

lingual

Which type of lymphoid tissue has lymphocytes that are loosely aggregated within connective tissue of the mucous membrane of the respiratory and urinary tracts? lymphoid nodules diffuse lymphoid tissue tonsils MALT

diffuse lymphoid tissue

Which of the following is an aggregation of lymphocytes contained within a supporting framework of reticular fibers? lymph lymphatic duct lymphoid nodule lymphatic vessel

lymphoid nodule

The aggregation of lymphocytes in the __________ gather and remove pathogens that enter the pharynx in either food or inspired air. liver spleen pancreas tonsils

tonsils

Which lymph nodes filter lymph arriving from the urinary and reproductive systems? mesenteric lymph nodes cervical lymph nodes thoracic lymph nodes abdominal lymph nodes

abdominal lymph nodes

What is the largest lymphoid organ in the body? spleen thymus gland stomach large intestine

spleen

Which part of the thymus gland contains lymphoid stem cells that divide rapidly, producing daughter cells that mature into T cells and migrate into the medulla? septa cortex medulla None of the listed responses is correct.

cortex

Which group of lymph nodes monitors lymph originating in the head and neck? thoracic lymph nodes inguinal lymph nodes popliteal lymph nodes cervical lymph nodes

cervical lymph nodes

In the spleen, which portion forms splenic cords that contain large quantities of RBCs? red pulp pink pulp white pulp blue pulp

red pulp

With increase in age, why is there an increased susceptibility to viral and bacterial infection? B cells are less responsive and antibody levels do not rise as quickly after antigen exposure. T cells become less responsive to antigens. Fewer cytotoxic T cells respond to an infection. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

With advancing age, __________ become less responsive to antigens. Additionally, __________ are less responsive, and antibody levels do NOT rise as quickly after antigen exposure. B cells; T cells T cells; B cells B cells; lymphocytes macrophages; T cells

T cells; B cells

Most immune responses begin in __________, where immature or activated __________ divide to produce many cells of the same type. secondary lymphoid structures; lymphocytes secondary lymphoid structures; macrophages primary lymphoid structures; macrophages primary lymphoid structures; lymphocytes

secondary lymphoid structures; lymphocytes

Which of the following statements regarding the spleen is/are true? Areas of white pulp form splenic cords, which contain erythrocytes. Areas of red pulp form lymphoid nodules. The cell population of the red pulp includes all of the normal components of the circulating blood, plus fixed and free macrophages. All of the listed responses are correct.

The cell population of the red pulp includes all of the normal components of the circulating blood, plus fixed and free macrophages.

Which of the following statements concerning lymph is/are FALSE? Lymph contains macrophages of various types. Lymph contains lymphocytes, which are cells responsible for the immune response. Lymph contains interstitial fluid, which resembles blood plasma but has a higher concentration of proteins. All of the listed statements are correct.

Lymph contains interstitial fluid, which resembles blood plasma but has a higher concentration of proteins.

What color are lymphatics in living tissue? dark blue bright red pale golden dark red

pale golden

Regarding the thymus, __________ cells are scattered among lymphocytes and produce thymic hormones that promote the differentiation of __________. reticular; T cells reticular; B cells plasmocytes; B cells plasmocytes; B cells

reticular; T cells

Superficial lymphatics are NOT found in, or do NOT collect lymph from, which of the following locations? the loose connective tissues of the mucous membranes lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts the loose connective tissues of the serous membranes lining the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities skeletal muscles and other organs of the neck, limbs, and trunk the subcutaneous tissue next to the skin

skeletal muscles and other organs of the neck, limbs, and trunk

Which lymph nodes filter lymph arriving from the urinary and reproductive systems? intestinal lymph nodes inguinal lymph nodes abdominal lymph nodes mesenteric lymph nodes

abdominal lymph nodes

Where are lymphatic capillaries especially numerous? in connective tissue deep to skin and mucous membranes and in the mucosa and submucosa of the digestive tract in the bone marrow in the mucosa and submucosa of the digestive tract in connective tissue deep to skin and mucous membranes

in connective tissue deep to skin and mucous membranes and in the mucosa and submucosa of the digestive tract

Which of the following cells become activated only if the same antigen appears in the body at a later date? memory T cells and memory B cells memory T cells memory B cells cytotoxic T cells

memory T cells and memory B cells

Which of the following lymphocytes is responsible for immunological surveillance as they continuously circulate through peripheral tissues? mature T cells helper T cells natural killer (NK) cells B cells

natural killer (NK) cells

Which of the following areas of a typical lymph node is dominated by T cells? the deep cortical area the medulla the outer cortex the medullary cords

the deep cortical area

The __________ segment of the thoracic duct lies __________ to the vertebral column at the level of the second lumbar vertebra. inferior; anterior superior; lateral inferior; posterior superior; anterior

inferior; anterior

Where does lymphopoiesis occur? in the lymph nodes and spleen in the bone marrow and thymus in the bone marrow and spleen in the spleen and thymus

in the bone marrow and thymus

What process requires O2 and produces CO2 by allowing the respiratory system to facilitate the exchange of gases between the air and blood? anaerobic metabolism aerobic metabolism fluid metabolism None of the listed responses is correct.

aerobic metabolism

The respiratory system includes which of the following structures? larynx sinuses nasal cavity All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? providing an extensive area for gas exchange between air and circulating blood protecting respiratory surfaces from dehydration, temperature changes, and other environmental variations assisting the regulation of blood volume and blood pressure and the control of body fluid pH producing sounds involved in speaking, singing, or nonverbal communication

assisting the regulation of blood volume and blood pressure and the control of body fluid pH

Of the three pharynges, which one includes the region of the pharynx lying between the hyoid bone and the entrance to the esophagus? oropharynx nasopharynx laryngopharynx None of the listed responses is correct.

laryngopharynx

The __________ separates the right and left portions of the nasal cavity. apex of the nose minor alar cartilage nasal septum dorsum of the nose

nasal septum

What structure(s) form(s) the boundaries of fauces? the posterior palatopharyngeal arch a curving line that connects the palatoglossal arches and uvula the palatine tonsils All of the listed responses are correct.

a curving line that connects the palatoglossal arches and uvula

Which laryngeal cartilages articulate with the superior border of the enlarged portion of the cricoid cartilage? arytenoid cartilages cuneiform cartilages corniculate cartilages All of the listed responses are correct.

arytenoid cartilages

The __________ is a tough, flexible tube with a diameter of about 2.5 cm and a length of approximately 11 cm. esophagus pulmonary artery epiglottis trachea

trachea

Which laryngeal cartilage forms most of the anterior and lateral walls of the larynx and is considered the largest laryngeal cartilage? cricoid cartilage arytenoid cartilage thyroid cartilage epiglottis

thyroid cartilage

What separates the respiratory epithelium from underlying cartilages? lamina propria annular ligaments submucosa trachea

lamina propria

Where can one find the extrapulmonary bronchi? inside the superior lobe of the lungs outside the lungs inside the inferior lobe of the lungs None of the listed responses is correct.

outside the lungs

What is the groove that provides access for entry to the pulmonary vessels and nerves? lobe root hilum All of the listed responses are correct.

hilum

Between which lobes in the right lung could one find the horizontal fissure? between the inferior and middle lobes between the superior and inferior lobes between the superior and middle lobes All of the listed responses are correct.

between the superior and middle lobes

The autonomic nervous system regulates the activity in the smooth muscle layer of the tertiary bronchioles and thereby controls the diameter of the bronchioles parasympathetically, thus leading to __________. vasoconstriction bronchodilation bronchoconstriction vasodilation

bronchoconstriction

Which of the following best describes the covering of the outer surfaces of the lungs that extends into the fissures between the lobes of the lungs? parietal pleura pleural cavity visceral pleura pleural fluid

visceral pleura

Which of the following is NOT an accessory muscle of inspiration? serratus anterior muscle sternocleidomastoid muscle pectoralis minor muscle transversus thoracis muscle

transversus thoracis muscle

What sets the basic pace and depth of respiration? medulla oblongata pneumotaxic center respiratory rhythmicity center apneustic center

respiratory rhythmicity center

When the thoracic volume changes because the rib cage changes shape, what occurs? costal breathing diaphragmatic breathing deep breathing All of the listed responses are correct.

costal breathing

Age-related changes to the respiratory system include which of the following? Arthritic changes cause restricted movement in the thoracic cage, with decreased flexibility at the costal cartilages. Elastic tissue deteriorates throughout the body, reducing the lungs' ability to inflate and deflate. Emphysema can occur. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following is considered an accessory digestive organ? pharynx stomach esophagus liver

liver

The chemical and enzymatic breakdown of complex sugars, lipids, and proteins into small organic molecules that can be absorbed by digestive epithelium is called __________. digestion ingestion secretion mechanical processing

digestion

Which component of the digestive system secretes lubricating fluids containing enzymes that break down carbohydrates? salivary glands small intestine stomach pancreas

salivary glands

Which type of tooth has one or two roots, has a flattened crown with prominent ridges, and is used for crushing, mashing, and grinding? bicuspid cuspid molar incisor

bicuspid

The functions of the tongue include which of the following? manipulation to assist in chewing and to prepare the material for swallowing sensory analysis by touch, temperature, and taste receptors mechanical processing by compression, abrasion, and distortion All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which part of the swallowing process begins as the bolus comes in contact with the palatal arches and/or the posterior pharyngeal arch? buccal phase lower esophagus sphincter pharyngeal phase esophageal phase

pharyngeal phase

Which muscles are used to push the bolus toward the esophagus? pharyngeal constrictor muscles stylopharyngeus muscles palatopharyngeus muscles palatal muscles

pharyngeal constrictor muscles

The mucosa of the esophagus contains an abrasion-resistant nonkeratinized epithelium called __________. simple squamous epithelium stratified squamous epithelium stratified cuboidal epithelium simple cuboidal epithelium

stratified squamous epithelium

The muscularis mucosae are thin or absent near the pharynx and are made of which muscle type? smooth skeletal cardiac None of the listed responses is correct.

smooth

Which region of the stomach is superior to the gastroesophageal junction and contracts the inferior and posterior surface of the diaphragm? body pylorus cardia fundus

fundus

Which abdominal region contains the appendix? right iliac region epigastric region umbilical region left lumbar region

right iliac region

Pertaining to the digestive system, which organ plays the primary role in digestion and absorption of nutrients? liver stomach large intestine small intestine

small intestine

Which anatomical subdivision(s) is/are considered a "mixing bowl" because it/they receive(s) chyme from the stomach and digestive secretions from the pancreas and liver? ileum jejunum duodenum All of the listed responses are correct.

duodenum

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that distinguishes the large and small intestines? The wall of the large intestine is thinner. Glands of the large intestine are deeper. The large intestine has villi. Goblet cells are more abundant in the large intestine.

The large intestine has villi.

Major functions of the large intestine include which of the following? reabsorption of water and electrolytes the storing of fecal material absorption of important vitamins All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Major functions of the liver include all of the following EXCEPT __________. absorption and inactivation of lipid-soluble drugs storage of iron reserves activation of toxins synthesis and secretion of bile

activation of toxins

Which accessory and/or glandular digestive organ(s) lie(s) posterior to the stomach and extend(s) laterally from the duodenum toward the spleen? gallbladder pancreas liver All of the listed responses are correct.

pancreas

Which of the following are age-related changes to the digestive system? Cancer rates increase. The rate of epithelial stem cell division declines. Smooth muscle tone decreases. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

With the decrease in smooth muscle that occurs with age, what would one observe? Constipation occurs. General motility decreases. Peristaltic contractions are weaker. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The functions of the urinary system include which of the following? contributing to the stabilization of blood pH regulating plasma concentrations of sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, and other ions by controlling the quantities lost in urine synthesizing calcitriol All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The urinary system is composed of which of the following? kidney urinary bladder urethra All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Contraction of the urinary bladder forces urine through the urethra when what occurs? blood flow through the kidney kidney processing urination None of the listed responses is correct.

urination

Which system(s) prevent(s) the development of "pollution" problems inside the body? digestive system respiratory system urinary system All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What maintains the position of the kidneys in the abdomen? the overlying peritoneum the supporting connective tissue contact with adjacent visceral organs All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Pertaining to the kidneys, what structure is granular and reddish brown in color and is considered the outer layer? renal cortex renal pelvis renal sinus renal medulla

renal cortex

Where in the kidney does urine production occur? renal pelvis nephron renal pyramid renal lobe

nephron

The kidneys are innervated by the sympathetic nervous system to perform which of the following functions? direct stimulation of water and sodium ion reabsorption stimulation of renin release regulation of renal blood flow and pressure All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What part do the distal segments of the nephron perform? reabsorbing more than 90 percent of the water in the filtrate secreting into the filtrate waste products that were missed by the filtration process absorbing all of the useful organic substances from the filtrate absorbing all of the useful inorganic substances from the filtrate

secreting into the filtrate waste products that were missed by the filtration process

Which portion of the nephron travels in the renal medulla toward the renal pelvis? thick segment ascending limb thin segment descending limb

descending limb

Two hormones, renin and erythropoietin, are produced in the kidneys for release when what occurs in the body? Normal rates of filtrate production are restored. Renal blood pressure, blood flow, or local oxygen levels decrease. Blood volume, hemoglobin levels, and blood pressure are elevated. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

When do modification and urine production end? when the fluid enters the minor calyx when fluid enters the major calyx when fluid enters the renal pelvis None of the listed responses is correct.

when the fluid enters the minor calyx

Which part(s) of the urinary system is/are responsible for the transport, storage, and elimination of urine? urethra ureters urinary bladder All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which item below is NOT one of the three layers of the ureter? an inner mucosa that is lined with simple squamous epithelial cells an outer connective tissue layer that is continuous with the fibrous capsule and peritoneum an inner mucosa that is lined by transitional epithelium a middle muscular layer that is made up of longitudinal and circular bands of smooth muscle

an inner mucosa that is lined with simple squamous epithelial cells

What is a hollow muscular organ that functions as a temporary storage site for urine? urinary bladder renal pelvis ureter None of the listed responses is correct.

urinary bladder

What is the name of the urethra that passes through the center of the prostate gland? spongy urethra prostatic ureter membranous urethra prostatic urethra

prostatic urethra

The wall of the urinary bladder contains which of the following? mucosa of transitional epithelium a submucosa a muscular layer All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following statements about the micturition reflex is true? The micturition reflex coordinates the process of urination. The micturition reflex is triggered by stimulation of the stretch receptors in the wall of the urinary bladder when the urinary bladder is full. Both of the listed responses are correct. None of the listed responses is correct.

Both of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following could cause problems with the micturition reflex as we age? The ability to control micturition declines because of a disability to the nervous system, such as multiple sclerosis or a stroke. Sphincter muscles lose muscle tone and become less effective at voluntarily retaining urine. Urinary retention in males may develop secondary to chronic inflammation of the prostate gland. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Age-related changes in the urinary system do NOT include which of the following? decline in the number of functioning nephrons problems with the micturition reflex normal sensitivity to ADH reduction of glomerular filtration

normal sensitivity to ADH

The functional male and female reproductive cells are known as ________. spermatogenesis gametes fertilization All of the listed responses are correct.

gametes

The combination of the genetic material provided by ________ from the father and an immature ________ from the mother occurs shortly after fertilization. sperm; zygote zygote; ovum sperm; ovum ovum; sperm

sperm; ovum

The reproductive system includes which of the following? the reproductive tract, which consists of ducts that receive, store, and transport the gametes gonads, which produce gametes and hormones accessory glands and organs that secrete fluids All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

How is the female reproductive system different from the male reproductive system? The uterus in the female consists only of the muscular tissue, and the penis in the male consists only of nervous tissue. The female produces oocytes each day, and the male produces 1 billion sperm per hour. The oocyte travels along the uterine tube, which is connected directly to the cervix, whereas the sperm in the male travel from the testes to the penis. None of the listed responses is correct.

None of the listed responses is correct.

The functional differences between the male and female reproductive systems include which of the following? Males have testes, and females have ovaries. Males secrete testosterone, and females secrete estrogen. Males produce half a billion sperm per day, and females produce one immature gamete per month. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which item below describes the scrotum? layers of fascia, connective tissue, and muscle enclosing the blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics supplying the testes a pouch of skin suspended inferior to the perineum and anterior to the anus a cord of connective tissue and muscular fibers that extends from the inferior part of each testes to the posterior wall of the peritoneum abdominal musculature located in the peritoneal cavity

a pouch of skin suspended inferior to the perineum and anterior to the anus

The process by which sperm cells are produced is called ________. mitosis spermiogenesis meiosis spermatogenesis

spermatogenesis

Which of the following is NOT a distinct region of a spermatozoon? flagellum head neck body

body

The functions of the epididymis include which of the following? stores spermatozoa and facilitates their functional maturation acts as a recycling center for damaged spermatozoa monitors and adjusts the composition of the fluid produced by the seminiferous tubules All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following is NOT a component of ejaculate? spermatozoa secondary spermatocytes enzymes seminal fluid

secondary spermatocytes

Which part of the penis is the expanded distal end that surrounds the external urethral orifice? shaft glans root body

glans

What structure extends from the lateral wall of the uterus to the medial surface of the ovary? ovarian ligament ovarian vessels suspensory ligament ovarian hilum

ovarian ligament

Which of the following regions comprise(s) the uterine tube? isthmus ampulla infundibulum All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

The ________ of the uterus is the inferior portion that extends from the isthmus to the vagina. uterine cavity cervix body fundus

cervix

The functions of the vagina include which of the following? serves as a passageway for the elimination of menstrual fluids forms the lower portion of the birth canal through which the fetus passes during childbirth receives the penis during sexual intercourse and holds spermatozoa before they pass to the uterus All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What supports fetal development during pregnancy? lactation mammary glands implantation placenta

placenta

What are ovaries? small, paired organs located near the lateral walls of the pelvic cavity an organ where a fetus develops an organ the size of a golf ball located lateral to the anus None of the listed responses is correct.

small, paired organs located near the lateral walls of the pelvic cavity

What is an oogonium? secondary oocyte primary follicle primary oocyte stem cell

stem cell

What occurs when estrogen levels decline? weakening of the connective tissue supporting the ovaries, uterus, and vagina reduction in the size of the breasts reduction in the size of the uterus All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What is male climacteric? ejaculation cessation of sperm production changes in the male reproductive system that occur gradually over time increase in testosterone that occurs after age 50

changes in the male reproductive system that occur gradually over time

What term is used to describe the formation of specialized cell types during embryological development that occurs through selective changes in genetic activity? differentiation conception fertilization All of the listed responses are correct.

differentiation

________ development begins at fertilization and continues through cleavage and implantation. Prenatal Postnatal Embryonic Fetal

Embryonic

________ development begins at the start of the ninth developmental week and continues up to the time of birth. Embryonic Fetal Prenatal Postnatal

Fetal

At what sperm count is a male considered sterile? fewer than 20,000 per mL fewer than 20 million per mL fewer than 20 billion per mL fewer than 20 trillion per mL

fewer than 20 million per mL

How many chromosomes does a zygote possess? 23 26 46 48

By the end of the ________ trimester, the organs and organ systems have completed most of their development, and the fetus looks distinctly human. first trimester second trimester third trimester

second trimester

What structure begins as blood vessels from around the edges of the blastocyst and provides respiratory and nutritional support essential for further prenatal development? placenta decidua basalis chorion amnion

placenta

All the components of the cardiovascular system, including the red bone marrow, arise from which of the three germ layers? endoderm mesoderm ectoderm All of the listed responses are correct.

mesoderm

The ________ is the first of the extraembryonic membranes to appear during development. amnion chorion yolk sac allantois

yolk sac

By week ________ in the first trimester of pregnancy, the embryo has a head fold and a tail fold, and constriction of the connections between the embryo and the surrounding trophoblast narrows the yolk stalk and body stalk. 2 4 5 10

At the beginning of the ________ stage of labor, the cervix dilates completely because the cervix is being pushed open by the approaching fetus. placental dilation expulsion

expulsion

What hormone triggers labor contractions in the myometrium? androgens oxytocin FSH LH

oxytocin

While the skull develops in the embryo, which of the following arches is the largest? bronchial mandibular pharyngeal None of the listed responses is correct.

mandibular

At which week of fetal gestation does the diaphragm complete its formation by forming a transverse sheet superior to the liver? week 7 week 8 week 9 week 10

week 9

The hyoid arch forms near which bone of the skull during development? temporal frontal occipital parietal

temporal

________ in the embryonic skeleton starts to occur after approximately 10 weeks of development. Ossification Osteoporosis Osteopenia None of the listed responses is correct.

Ossification

Of the following choices, which layer(s) of the nervous system is/are present in the fifth week of development? marginal layer mantle layer ependymal layer All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

While the heart is developing in the fifth week of pregnancy, ________ begins to subdivide the interior of the heart. interatrial septa interventricular septa interatrial septa and interventricular septa None of the listed responses is correct.

interatrial septa and interventricular septa

In the developing lymphoid system, primordial lymph sacs form parallel with veins of the trunk, and a large median lymph sac marks the future location of the ________ which can be found in an adult. thoracic duct cisterna chyli right duct

cisterna chyli

Chapter 13-28 study Flashcards

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