patho review Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q
  1. Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of
A

Hyperparathyroidism.

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following categories doesn’t belong to the intrarenal disorders?
A

Belongs to Intrarenal Disorders:
* Congenital
* Neoplastic
* Infectious
* Obstructive
* Glomerular

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3
Q
  1. This test identifies gross abnormalities related to size, position, and shape (may show renal calculi).
A

KUB Xray ( Kidney, ureter and bladder)

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4
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about autosomal recessive forms of cystic kidney disease?
A

Cystic kidney diseases
Autosomal recessive forms
Ø Evident at birth
Ø Kidneys enlarged
Ø Respiratory distress or palpable kidneys on physical examination
Ø Severe systemic hypertension
Ø Liver problems
Ø Diagnosis: inheritance pattern with liver biopsy

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5
Q
  1. Which is false about Nephroblastoma (Wilms’ tumor)?
A

Nephroblastoma (Wilms’ tumor)
* Most common kidney cancer in children
* Clinical manifestations: identified by palpable abdominal mass; may also have abdominal pain, hypertension, and/or hematuria
* Treatment: nephrectomy, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy
* Excellent cure rate

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6
Q
  1. The following are normal protective mechanisms against infection in the Urinary tract, except.
A

Normal protective mechanisms against infection
Ø Acidic pH
Ø Presence of urea in the urine
Ø Men: bacteriostatic prostatic secretions
Ø Women: glands in the distal urethra secrete mucus
Ø Micturition: wash out pathogens
Ø Unidirectional urine flow, prevents reflux

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7
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about Acute pyelonephritis?
A

Acute pyelonephritis
* Infection of renal pelvis/parenchyma usually from ascending UTI
* Major risk factor: pregnancy
* Clinical manifestations: CVA tenderness (classic sign) accompanied by fever, chills, N/V, anorexia, which increases fever-induced dehydration
* Urosepsis: organisms in the bloodstream originating from a UTI
* Diagnosis: presence of WBC casts indicative of upper UTI
* Treatment: promptly managed with antimicrobials to avoid decreased renal function

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8
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about the consequences of complete obstruction in the Kidney?
A

Consequences:
Ø Hydronephrosis
Ø Decreased GFR
Ø Ischemic kidney damage because of increased intraluminal pressure
Ø Acute tubular necrosis (intrarenal acute renal failure)
Ø Chronic kidney disease

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9
Q
  1. Which is false about IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
A

TRUE:
Ø Most commonly diagnosed
Ø Common in adults
Ø Upper respiratory or gastrointestinal viral infections
Ø Hematuria presents in 1 to 2 days
Ø Prognosis: variable, may progress to end-stage renal disease

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10
Q
  1. Which is false about Chronic glomerulonephritis?
A

TRUE:
* Assumes a progressive course ultimately developing into end-stage renal disease
o Sclerosis and fibrosis of kidney
* Present with persistent proteinuria, with or without hematuria, and slowly declining renal function
* Dialysis or kidney transplantation necessary

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11
Q
  1. Which is false about Nephrotic syndrome?
A
  • Occurs because of increased glomerular permeability to proteins
  • Urinary loss of 3 to 3.5 g of protein per day
  • Proteinuria leads to hypoalbuminemia and generalized edema; decreased blood colloid oncotic pressure.
  • Increase in liver activity can cause hyperlipidemia and hypercoagulability.
  • Most common finding: edema
  • Treatment: conservative symptom management
  • Lipid-lowering agents
  • Steroids
  • Antihypertensives
  • Management of underlying process when identified
  • May resolve spontaneously, others progress to end-stage renal disease
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12
Q
  1. Which is false about Minimal change disease (MCD)?
A
  • Previously called lipoid nephrosis
  • Alteration in glomerular podocytes
  • Sudden onset of edema, nephrotic levels of protein loss, and hypoalbuminemia
  • Responds well to corticosteroids
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13
Q
  1. Concerning the Stages of chronic kidney disease, which is false?
A
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13
Q
  1. The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is
A

Hematuria

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14
Q
  1. A ureterocele is
A

a cystic dilation of a ureter

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14
Q
  1. Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called
A

Overflowing Incontinence

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14
Q
  1. A patient who has difficulty walking without assistance is incontinent of urine when help doesn’t get to her quickly enough. The term for this type of incontinence is
14
Q
  1. Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?
A

Active sexually woman

14
Q
  1. The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence
A

is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.

15
Q
  1. The direct cause of stress incontinence is
A

Pelvic Muscle Weakness

15
Q
  1. A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is
A

chills and fever.

15
Q
  1. The following are complications of Chronic Kidney Disease, except;
A

Complications:
* Hypertension and cardiovascular disease
* Uremic syndrome
* Metabolic acidosis
* Electrolyte imbalances
* Bone and mineral disorders
* Malnutrition
* Anemia
* Pain
* Depression

16
Q
  1. The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is
A

less than 100 mL.

17
Q
  1. About the management of Malnutrition in Chronic kidney disease, which of the following is incorrect?
A

Ø Calories, vitamins, calcium increased
Ø Sufficient carbohydrate and fat to meet energy requirements
Ø Limit dietary phosphorus, protein, sodium, potassium, and water/fluids depending on laboratory values and other clinical manifestations
Ø Limit diet factors that could increase cardiovascular risk
Ø Involving a dietitian is crucial.

18
25. Which is incorrect about Peritoneal dyalisis?
Correct: Ø Peritoneum serves as the dialyzing membrane Ø Access: dialysis catheter surgically placed in abdomen Ø Types: continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) and continuous cycling peritoneal dialysis (CCPD) * CAPD: exchanges performed by patients in their homes and without machines; instills in abdomen * CCPD: can also be done at home; uses a special machine (cycler); exchanges occur while sleeping
19
26. Absence of menstruation is called
Amenorrhea
20
27. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is due to
absent or diminished levels of progesterone.
21
28. It is true that fibrocystic breast disease
may be exacerbated by methylxanthines
22
29. A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely
Carcinoma
23
30. The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.
9
24
31. The most common types of uterine tumors are known as
Leiomyomas (benign fibroid tumors)
25
32. About Transplantation related to chronic kidney disease, which is false?
TRUE: Ø Potential option for patients with ESRD Ø Associated with a high degree of success Ø Allows for increased independence Ø Return to normal activities of daily living Ø Normal renal function Ø Antirejection drug therapy required: immunosuppressants
26
33. Which is false about Chronic kidney disease in older adults?
TRUE: * Majority of patients diagnosed with CKD are older adults. * Rates of treated ESRD among the elderly (>80 years) have risen by more than 50% in the last decade. * Dialysis for elderly is becoming worldwide. * Comorbid conditions of this population require complex care.
27
34. Which is false about the diagnosis of Micropenis?
Ø Evaluate endocrine abnormalities Ø Measure serum testosterone, luteinizing hormone, and follicle-stimulating hormone Ø Prader-Willi syndrome and Kallmann syndrome (hypothalamic-pituitary axis) Ø Klinefelter syndrome (testicular disorder)
28
35. Which is false about the Urethral Valve Abnormalities?
* Majority of abnormalities occur posteriorly and in distal prostatic urethra. * Common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants * Valves are mucosal folds that resemble thin membranes. * Valves cause obstruction when child attempts to void.
29
36. The Clinical manifestations of Urethral Valve Abnormalities include all the following except ;
Ø Intrauterine renal failure causing: * Oligohydramnios (decreased amniotic fluid) * Pulmonary hypoplasia (incomplete lung development) * Stillbirth or extreme distress at the time of birth * Inability to void (normally void within 24 hours of birth) * Abdominal masses, such as palpable bladder or hydronephrotic kidneys * Varying degrees of azotemia or renal failure * Urinary ascites (extravasated urine in the peritoneum) * Floating bowel on x-ray
30
37. All are secondary causes of erectile dysfunction, except
* Peripheral vascular disease: arterial insufficiency from obstruction, atherosclerosis, stenosis of arteries, vascular endothelial damage * Endocrine problems: diabetes, pituitary dysfunction (↓ luteinizing hormone, ↓ testosterone, ↑ prolactin) * Medications: antihypertensives, antihistamines, phenothiazines, some antidepressants * Trauma: penile fractures, pelvic fractures * Iatrogenic causes: aortoiliac vascular surgery, radical pelvic cancer surgery * Psychological causes
31
38. Which false about the etiology of neoplasms of the Penis?
* Rare in the United States: <0.2% cancer cases * Phimosis resulting from chronic inflammation most common cause * Extremely low incidence in circumcised men * 97% squamous cell CA of the glans or inner surface of the foreskin * Metastasis occurs by lymphatic dissemination. * Four stages progressing in severity
32
39. Which is false about Hypogonadism
* Incidence: 4 to 5 million * Cause: primary testicular failure * Androgen deficiency in the aging male (ADAM) or andropause o Causes erectile dysfunction (ED), loss of muscle tone, osteoporosis, and lipid metabolism changes * Diagnosis: serum testosterone level * Treatment: replace testosterone
33
40. The ________ Inflammation of testis from trauma, reflux of sterile urine up the vas deferens or secondary to a bacterial infection
Epididymitis