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Nursing School WCU > PATHO WEEK 5 CHECK FOR WEEK 6 > Flashcards

PATHO WEEK 5 CHECK FOR WEEK 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as

A

epispadias.

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2
Q

The most common types of uterine tumors are known as

A

leiomyomas.

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3
Q

The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of

A

bacteria.

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4
Q

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is caused by

A

absent or diminished levels of progesterone.

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5
Q

The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is

A

ultrasonography.

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6
Q

The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of

A

interstitial cystitis.

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7
Q

Endometriosis is a condition in which

A

ectopic endometrial tissue is present.

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8
Q

The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease.

A

True

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9
Q

It is true that fibrocystic breast disease

A

may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.

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10
Q

A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is

A

chills and fever.

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11
Q

A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by stating

A

“His renal tubules are recovering, so he is making more urine, but he is not able to concentrate urine well, because he is not fully recovered.”

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12
Q

Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called

A

overflow incontinence.

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13
Q

A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a

A

radical mastectomy.

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14
Q

Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.

A

Candida albicans

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15
Q

A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of

A

prostatic enlargement.

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16
Q

The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is

A

Escherichia coli.

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17
Q

A patient, age 3, has vesicoureteral reflux. “Why does that make him have so many bladder infections?” asks his mother. The nurse’s best response is

A

“When he urinates, urine runs back toward his kidneys and then into the bladder again, making it easy for bacteria to grow if they reach the bladder.”

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18
Q

The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is

A

smoking.

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19
Q

The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.

A

True

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20
Q

Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?

A

Sexually active women

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21
Q

The major cause of glomerulonephritis is

A

immune system damage to the glomeruli.

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22
Q

The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is

A

serum creatinine.

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23
Q

The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called

A

nephralgia.

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24
Q

The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who requires monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the

A

man who has chronic urinary tract infections.

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25
The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is
contrast media.
26
Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include
proteinuria.
27
One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is
pelvic tumor.
28
The type of glomerulonephritis which is most likely to result in a swift decline in renal function that then progresses to acute kidney injury is
crescentic glomerulonephritis.
29
Glomerular disorders include
nephrotic syndrome.
30
The risk for contrast media–induced acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is highest in
a 70-year-old patient with heart failure.
31
Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because
hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.
32
The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is
throat infection.
33
The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is
renal colic.
34
Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by
severe hypotension.
35
The patient most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury is a(n)
elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate.
36
Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?
Polycystic kidney disease
37
A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience
fever.
38
Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of
associated dermatomes.
39
One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is
hypertension.
40
In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?
Greater than 90% nephron loss
41
Absence of menstruation is called
amenorrhea.
42
Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
False
43
A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of
prostatic enlargement.
44
Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of
testicular torsion.
45
The defining characteristic of severe acute kidney injury is
oliguria.
46
The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.
True
47
A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a
radical mastectomy.
48
Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by
inability to retract the foreskin.
49
Cryptorchidism is
associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
50
A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely
carcinoma.
51
The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence
is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.
52
The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?
Stage II
53
Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.
pessary.
54
The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.
9
55
The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is
hematuria.
56
A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by stating
“His renal tubules are recovering, so he is making more urine, but he is not able to concentrate urine well, because he is not fully recovered.”
57
What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?
Cystocele
58
Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the
cardinal ligaments.
59
The most common types of uterine tumors are known as
leiomyomas.
60
A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is
increased urinary protein.
61
Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by
severe hypotension.
62
The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.
tubular
63
If acute tubular necrosis (ATN) does not resolve and continued tubular dysfunction ensues, the patient will then experience
polyuria and sodium wasting.
64
Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of
associated dermatomes.
65
The major cause of glomerulonephritis is
immune system damage to the glomeruli.
66
The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is
insufficient erythropoietin.
66
A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because
GFR declines.
67
The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is
serum creatinine.
68
What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?
Uremia
69
One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is
pelvic tumor.
70
The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in the United States is
sepsis.
71
Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?
Polycystic kidney disease
72
The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is
contrast media.
73
One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is
hypertension.
74
A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience
fever.
75
In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?
Greater than 90% nephron loss
76
Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because
hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.
77
It is true that polycystic kidney disease is
genetically transmitted.
78
Calcium oxylate stone formation is facilitated by
hypercalciuria.
79
The consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter is
hydronephrosis.
80
The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as
epispadias.
81
The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is
ultrasonography.
82
A patient has ureteral colic. The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is
chills and fever.
83
A patient being treated for acute tubular necrosis (ATN) develops mild polyuria. The nurse responds to questions about why this occurring by stating
“His renal tubules are recovering, so he is making more urine, but he is not able to concentrate urine well, because he is not fully recovered.”
84
In addition to renal colic pain, signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include
hematuria.
85
The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence
is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.
86
Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as
hyperemesis gravidarum.
87
A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of
prostatic enlargement.
88
The defining characteristic of severe acute kidney injury is
oliguria.
89
Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?
Sexually active women
90
The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of
interstitial cystitis.
91
Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of
testicular torsion.
92
The most common types of uterine tumors are known as
leiomyomas.
93
Sexual impotence is rarely because of
primary causes.
94
A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing
dysmenorrhea.
95
Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.
pessary.
96
It is true that fibrocystic breast disease
may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.
97
Absence of menstruation is called
amenorrhea.
98
The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?
Stage II
99
Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by
decreased secretion of erythropoietin.
100
The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by
fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.
101
The effect on the renal tubules during the postoliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves
regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium.
102
Calcium oxylate stone formation is facilitated by
hypercalciuria.
103
The urea-splitting bacteria contribute to the formation of ________ kidney stones.
struvite
104
Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by
bilateral kidney stones.
105
The most likely cause of acidosis in a patient with end-stage renal disease is
insufficient metabolic acid excretion resulting from nephron loss.
106
A common component of renal calculi is
calcium.
107
One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is
ischemic conditions.
108
The major cause of glomerulonephritis is
immune system damage to the glomeruli.
109
One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is
pelvic tumor.
110
In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?
Greater than 90% nephron loss
111
Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause
hematuria.
112
Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of
associated dermatomes.
113
The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is
renal colic.
114
A patient with gouty arthritis develops renal calculi. The composition of these calculi is most likely to be
uric acid crystals.
115
Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes
erythropoietin administration.
116
A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because
GFR declines.
117
The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is
throat infection.
118
A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia. This happens because
albumin is excreted in the urine.
119
Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes
fluid administration.

Nursing School WCU (36 decks)

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