check your understanding week 8 Flashcards
1
Q
Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of
A
hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.
2
Q
While in the hospital for management of acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL), a patient develops severe thrombocytopenia. The most appropriate action for this condition is
A
activity restriction.
3
Q
Diabetic neuropathy is thought to result from
A
decreased myoinositol transport.
4
Q
The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.
A
tubular
5
Q
The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease.
A
True
6
Q
The most common symptom of multiple myeloma is
A
bone pain.
7
Q
The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI) is prevention.
A
True
8
Q
The stroke etiology with the highest morbidity and mortality is
A
intracranial hemorrhage.
9
Q
The patient most at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury is a(n)
A
elderly patient with hypertrophy of the prostate.
10
Q
It is true that Bell palsy is a
A
paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.
11
Q
Which finding is indicative of orthostatic hypotension in a person with a supine blood pressure (BP) of 110/70 and a heart rate (HR) of 100?
A
Sitting BP 88/60, HR 118
12
Q
The therapy that most directly improves cardiac contractility in a patient with systolic heart failure is
A
digitalis.
12
Q
The most commonly ordered diagnostic test for evaluation of the urinary system is
A
ultrasonography.
13
Q
Obstructive disorders are associated with
A
low expiratory flow rates.
14
Q
The most common type of renal stone is
A
calcium.
15
Q
The difference between stress incontinence and urge incontinence is that stress incontinence
A
is caused by a pelvic floor muscle problem, whereas urge incontinence is caused by a problem with the detrusor muscle.
16
Q
Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to
A
pulmonary stenosis.
17
Q
Causes of hypomagnesemia include
A
chronic alcoholism.
18
Q
The breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver and muscles is called
A
glycogenolysis.
19
Q
The major cause of death from leukemic disease is
A
infection.
20
Q
A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely
A
carcinoma.
21
Q
Untreated acute cholecystitis may lead to ________ of the gallbladder wall.
A
gangrene
22
Q
Clinical manifestations of extracellular fluid volume deficit include
A
weak pulse, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate.
23
Q
Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream. This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be
A
an autoimmune process.
24
It is true that biliary cancer
tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously.
25
Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of
vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).
26
A primary laboratory finding in end-stage chronic renal disease is
increased serum creatinine.
27
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases
water reabsorption in the collecting tubule of the kidney.
28
Which electrolyte imbalances cause increased neuromuscular excitability?
Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia
29
A laboratory test result that helps confirm the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is
positive antinuclear antibodies.
30
The prothrombin time (PT) and INR (international normalized ratio) measure the integrity of
extrinsic pathway.
31
Pain in fibromyalgia involves
changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.
32
The formation of active vitamin D
is impaired in renal failure.
32
Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
False
33
A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is
dry cough.
34
Prosthetic joint infection is most often because of
hematogenous transfer.
35
First-degree heart block is characterized by
prolonged PR interval.
36
The oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis is characterized by
fluid excess and electrolyte imbalance.
37
The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B12 (cobalamin) or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called megaloblasts.
True
38
A patient presents to the physician’s office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin. The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.
4 and 7
38
Dumping syndrome is commonly seen after __________ procedures.
gastric bypass
39
Clinical manifestations of moderate to severe hypokalemia include
muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.
40
Sepsis has been recently redefined as
a systemic inflammatory response to infection.
41
The increased anterior-posterior chest diameter associated with obstructive lung disease is caused by
increased residual lung volumes.
42
Croup is characterized by
a barking cough.
43
Metaplasia is
the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
44
A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis would be
systemic manifestations of inflammation.
45
A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for
endocrine disorders.
46
People who have osteoporosis are at risk for
bone fractures.
46
Respiratory alkalosis is caused by
hyperventilation.
47
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is often associated with
nonketotic hyperosmolality.
48
Growth hormone-deficient infants would display
normal birth length and weight
49
Propylthiouracil may be used to treat hyperthyroidism, because it
inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.
50
A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?
Septic
51
The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in
non-Hispanic black adults.
52
The arterial oxygen content (CaO2) for a patient with PaO2 100 mm Hg, SaO2 95%, and hemoglobin 15 g/dL is _____ mL oxygen/dL.
19.4
53
The electrolyte that has a higher concentration in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid is _____ ions.
sodium
54
One of the most common causes of acute pain is
headache.
55
While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs). What is the significance of this finding?
Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.
56
The condition associated with end-stage chronic renal disease that is the most immediately life threatening is
hyperkalemia.
57
Which is not considered to be a risk factor for thrombus formation?
Thrombocytopenia
58
A thyroid gland that grows larger than normal is known as
goiter.
59
A patient who reports an intestinal fistula also reports feeling “weak and dizzy” when she stands. While taking her blood pressure she becomes temporarily unresponsive but quickly regains consciousness when put into a supine position. What nursing interventions will the nurse implement before calling the physician?
Give her water or juice and some salty crackers and ask if she has had any diarrhea or vomiting.
60
The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is
smoking.
61
A risk factor for osteoporosis is
early menopause.
62
Jaundice is a common manifestation of
liver disease.
63
The liver is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of VIII.
True
64
A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) are characteristic of which type of anemia?
Iron deficiency
64
In addition to E. coli, a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is
urinary retention and reflux.
65
What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR) of leukemia?
CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.
66
Steroids may be used in the management of acute exacerbation of symptoms in patients with multiple sclerosis, because
demyelination is mediated by immune mechanisms.
67
Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called
bursitis.
68
All the following stress-induced hormones increase blood glucose except
aldosterone.
69
The definitive treatment for cholecystitis is
cholecystectomy.
70
The pathophysiologic basis of acute glomerulonephritis is
an immune complex reaction.
71
A patient who reports dizziness and who has absent P waves, wide QRS complexes, and a heart rate of 38 beats/minute on an ECG is most likely in which rhythm?
Ventricular escape rhythm
72
A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristic of
prostatic enlargement.
73
Myxedema coma is a severe condition associated with
hypothyroidism.
74
Pelvic floor muscle training is appropriate for
urge incontinence.
75
Which type of leukemia primarily affects children?
ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
75
The signs and symptoms of adrenocortical hormone excess may occur from either a primary or secondary disorder. A symptom associated with primary Cushing syndrome is
hyperglycemia.
76
The effects of histamine release include
increased vascular permeability.
77
The risk for contrast media–induced acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is highest in
a 70-year-old patient with heart failure.
78
Administration of a vasodilator to a patient in shock would be expected to
decrease left ventricular afterload.
79
A patient is diagnosed with heart failure with normal ejection fraction. This patient is most likely characterized by a(n)
elderly woman without a previous history of MI.
80
The American Diabetes Association recommends a postprandial blood glucose level of ________ mg/dL for adults with diabetes.
less than 180
81
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a rheumatic disease attributed to
autoimmune mechanisms.
82
The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease.
False
83
The nurse provides teaching regarding dietary intake of potassium to avoid an electrolyte imbalance when a patient
has chronic heart failure that is treated with diuretics.
84
Signs and symptoms of clinical dehydration include
decreased urine output.
85
The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be because of
tumor necrosis factor.
86
The gate control theory of pain transmission predicts that activity in touch receptors will
decrease pain signal transmission in the spinal cord.
87
Empyema is defined as an
infection in the pleural space.
88
The most common source of osteomyelitis is
an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.
89
Which causes vasoconstriction?
Norepinephrine
90
Thalassemia may be confused with iron-deficiency anemia, because they are both
microcytic.
91
The patient reports persistent pelvic pain and urinary frequency and urgency. She says the pain improves when she empties her bladder. She does not have a fever and her repeated urinalyses over the past months have been normal, although she has a history of frequent bladder infections. She also has a history of fibromyalgia and hypothyroidism. Based on her history and complaints, her symptoms are characteristic of
interstitial cystitis.
92
The most common presenting sign/symptom with rheumatic fever is
polyarthritis.
93
When the cause is unknown, a condition is said to be idiopathic
True
94
The physiologic mechanisms involved in the pain phenomenon are termed
nociception.
95
Surgical removal of a gland may result in
hyposecretion.
96
Calcium oxylate stone formation is facilitated by
hypercalciuria.
97
What indicator is most helpful in evaluating long-term blood glucose management in patients with diabetes mellitus?
Glycosylated hemoglobin levels (HbA1c)
98
A patient presenting with a severe, pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.
migraine
99
Excessive red cell lysis can be detected by measuring the serum
bilirubin.
100
Of the statements below, the accurate statement regarding nutrition and cellular health is
deficient cellular uptake by one cell type may contribute to excess nutrient delivery to other cell types.
101
The dementia of Alzheimer disease is associated with structural changes in the brain, including
deposition of amyloid plaques in the brain.
102
The most common types of uterine tumors are known as
leiomyomas.
102
A middle-aged patient has a follow up visit for a recorded blood pressure of 162/96 mm Hg taken 3 weeks ago. The patient has no significant past medical history and takes no medications, but smokes 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day, drinks alcohol regularly, and exercises infrequently. The patient is about 40 lbs. overweight and admits to a high-fat, high-calorie diet. At the office visit today, the patient’s blood pressure is 150/92 mm Hg. What is the least appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
Begin antihypertensive drug therapy.
103
A bone disorder that results from insufficient vitamin D is referred to as
osteomalacia.
104
Neuromuscular disorders impair lung function primarily because of
weak muscles of respiration.
105
Cardiogenic shock is characterized by
reduced cardiac output.
106
The direct cause of stress incontinence is
pelvic muscle weakness.
107
Malignant neoplasms of epithelial origin are known as
carcinomas.
108
Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as
hyperemesis gravidarum.
109
The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is
Escherichia coli.
110
The most important determinant for prescribing therapy for acute stroke is
ischemic versus hemorrhagic cause.
111
The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is
measured to improve oxygenation.
112
Anemia in people who have end-stage chronic renal disease is caused by
decreased secretion of erythropoietin.
113
Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?
Absent breath sounds on the left
114
Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with
Epstein–Barr virus.
115
What is likely to lead to hyponatremia?
Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water
116
Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria?
128/82
117
Which pulmonary function test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?
Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
118
The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.
threshold
119
In general, with aging, organ size and function
decrease.
120
The patient who requires the most careful monitoring for development of metabolic acidosis is a patient who
has had diarrhea for over a week.
121
________ edema occurs when ischemic tissue swells because of cellular energy failure.
Cytotoxic
122
The pain of nonarticular rheumatism (“growing pain”) is worse
during the night.
123
A patient with renal disease is at risk for developing uremia as the nephrons progressively deteriorate, because
GFR declines.
124
It is true that Graves disease is
associated with autoantibodies to TSH receptors.
125
The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in the United States is
sepsis.
126
Which disorder usually causes skeletal pain and involves significant bone demineralization from vitamin D deficiency?
Osteomalacia
127
The organism that causes pulmonary tuberculosis is
Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
128
A unique characteristic feature of fibromyalgia is the presence of
tender point pain.
129
Hypernatremia may be caused by
decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion.
130
Scrotal pain in males and labial pain in females may accompany renal pain as a result of
associated dermatomes.
131
Systemic disorders include
rheumatoid arthritis.
132
Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by
recipient antibodies.
133
In older women, osteoporosis is thought to be primarily because of
estrogen deficiency.
134
A patient exhibiting respiratory distress as well as a tracheal shift should be evaluated for
pneumothorax.
135
Upper extremity weakness in association with degeneration of CNS neurons is characteristic of
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
136
A patient has been exposed to meningococcal meningitis, but is not yet demonstrating signs of this disease. This stage of illness is called the _____ stage.
latent
137
The initial treatment of an individual experiencing a seizure is concentrated on
maintaining an airway.
138
Pain is thought of as
a subjective experience that is difficult to measure objectively.
139
The arterial blood gas pH = 7.52, PaCO2 = 30 mm Hg, HCO3– = 24 mEq/L demonstrates
respiratory alkalosis.
140
A person with acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop
respiratory alkalosis.
141
The hallmark manifestation of acute respiratory distress syndrome is
hypoxemia.
142
Celiac sprue is a malabsorptive disorder associated with
inflammatory reaction to gluten-containing foods.
143
A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of
octreotide acetate.
144
What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client’s report of dysphagia?
Chest pain during meals
145
A patient is diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The patient is hyperventilating and is therefore at risk for the respiratory complication of respiratory acidosis.
False
146
In type I diabetes, respiratory compensation may occur through a process of
respiratory alkalosis.
147
Clinical manifestations of Graves disease may include
tremor.
147
The classic manifestations of Parkinson disease include
rest tremor and skeletal muscle rigidity.
148
Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.
False
149
Prerenal acute kidney injury may be caused by
severe hypotension.
150
Which group of clinical findings indicates the poorest neurologic functioning?
Assumes decorticate posture with light touch, no verbal response
151
The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is
intracellular accumulations.
152
Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.
Candida albicans
153
A severe complication of elevated intracranial pressure is
brain herniation.
154
The person at highest risk for developing hypernatremia is a person who
receives tube feedings because he or she is comatose after a stroke.
155
A clinical finding consistent with a hypoglycemic reaction is
tremors.
156
The most common site affected in Paget’s disease is the
lower spine.
157
The major buffer in the extracellular fluid is
bicarbonate.
158
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (adrenogenital syndrome) results from
blocked cortisol production.
159
Constipation in an elderly patient can be best treated by
increasing fiber in the diet.
160
The condition characterized by oliguria and hematuria is
acute glomerulonephritis.
161
A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis. This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.
III
162
Dysfunction of which organ would lead to clotting factor deficiency?
Liver
163
Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of
metabolic acid deficit.
164
A patient with chronic gastritis would likely be tested for
Helicobacter pylori.
165
Copious amounts of foul-smelling sputum are generally associated with
bronchiectasis.
166
After surgery to remove a lung tumor, your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy, which will
kill rapidly dividing cells.
167
More than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated with
alcoholism.
168
Hepatic encephalopathy is associated with
increased blood ammonia levels.
169
Manifestations from sodium imbalances occur primarily as a result of
cellular fluid shifts.
170
The first indication of brain compression from increasing intracranial pressure (ICP) may be
sluggish pupil response to light.
171
Hypertension is closely linked to
obstructive sleep apnea.
172
Following a bone fracture, the most likely event to occur is
development of a blood clot beneath the periosteum.
173
A viral hepatitis screen with positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) should be interpreted as ________ hepatitis B.
acute
174
A laboratory finding that would help confirm the diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism is
hypokalemia.
175
A ureterocele is
a cystic dilation of a ureter.
176
Emesis causes
metabolic alkalosis.
177
It is true that epidural bleeding is
characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.
178
What is necessary for red blood cell production?
Iron
179
Nephrotic syndrome involves loss of large amounts of ________ in the urine.
protein
180
Detrusor muscle overactivity can be improved by administration of
botulinum toxin.
181
Allergic (extrinsic) asthma is associated with
IgE-mediated airway inflammation.
182
What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding?
Inadequate water intake
183
A malignant bone-forming tumor is referred to as a(n)
osteosarcoma.
184
A disease that is native to a particular region is called
endemic.
185
Esophageal varices represent a complication of ________ hypertension.
portal
186
The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of declining renal function is
serum creatinine.
187
Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they
develop recurrent infections.
188
A patient who should be routinely evaluated for peptic ulcer disease is one who is
being treated with high-dose oral glucocorticoids.
189
The major underlying factor leading to the edema associated with glomerulonephritis and nephrotic syndrome is
proteinuria.
190
Orthostatic hypotension may be a manifestation of
Parkinson disease.
190
The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the
kidney.
191
The final stage of gout, characterized by crystalline deposits in cartilage, synovial membranes, and soft tissue, is called
tophaceous gout.
191
Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?
Jaundice
192
Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.
True
192
The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with
antibiotics.
193
Cryptorchidism is
associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
193
The cause of the most common form of anemia is
iron deficiency.
194
The assessment findings of a 5-year-old with a history of asthma include extreme shortness of breath, nasal flaring, coughing, pulsus paradoxus, and use of accessory respiratory muscles. There is no wheezing and the chest is silent in many areas. How should you interpret your assessment?
The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately.
195
Findings that should prompt an evaluation for renal cancer include
hematuria.
196
Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?
Purpura
197
Asthma is categorized as a(n)
obstructive pulmonary disorder.
198
An increased urine bilirubin is associated with
hepatitis.
199
To avoid the progression of cutaneous lesions, a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) should
avoid sun exposure.
200
The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of
nitrites.
201
The cellular change that is considered preneoplastic is
dysplasia.
201
Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to
fibromyalgia syndrome.
202
The majority of tachydysrhythmias are believed to occur because of
reentry mechanisms.
203
One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is
ischemic conditions.
204
Pain with passive stretching of a muscle is indicative of
noncontractile tissue injury.
205
A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a
radical mastectomy.
206
A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes
early menarche and late first pregnancy.
207
The stage of spinal shock that follows spinal cord injury is characterized by
absent spinal reflexes below the level of injury.
208
The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN) in hospitalized patients is
contrast media.
209
The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in
fibrinolysis.
210
A person who has hyperparathyroidism is likely to develop
hypercalcemia.
211
What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells?
Absence
212
How do clinical conditions that increase vascular permeability cause edema?
By allowing plasma proteins to leak into the interstitial fluid, which draws in excess fluid by increasing the interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
213
Beta-blockers are advocated in the management of heart failure because they
reduce cardiac output.
214
Treatment for hemophilia A includes
factor VIII replacement.
215
The pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis involves
immune cells accumulating in pannus and destroying articular cartilage.
216
The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is a measure of the integrity of
the intrinsic pathway.
217
Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckebach) is characterized by
lengthening PR intervals and dropped P wave.
218
The cellular component that is most susceptible to radiation injury is the
DNA.
219
A patient with a history of alcoholism presents with hematemesis and profound anemia. The expected diagnosis is
gastroesophageal varices.
220
The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as
epispadias.
221
Premature infants are at greater risk for developing
necrotizing enterocolitis.
221
Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?
HIV/AIDS
222
Your patient is scheduled for a staging procedure. She wants to know what that means. The correct response is which of the following?
It is a procedure for determining the extent of tumor spread.
223
When a patient experiencing nephrotic syndrome asks, “What causes my urine to be so full of protein,” the nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that
the glomerular membrane has increased permeability.
224
Acute right lower quadrant pain associated with rebound tenderness and systemic signs of inflammation are indicative of
appendicitis.
225
A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is
mast cells.
226
The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by
hypoventilation.
227
The most likely cause of anemia in a patient with end-stage renal disease is
insufficient erythropoietin.
228
Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?
Anticonvulsants
229
A normal bleeding time in association with normal platelet count, and increased prothrombin time (PT) and INR, is indicative of
vitamin K deficiency.
230
Reperfusion injury to cells
involves formation of free radicals.
231
Nephrotic syndrome does not usually cause
hematuria.
232
Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the
cardinal ligaments.
233
All these cellular responses are potentially reversible except
necrosis.
234
Which acid are the kidneys unable to excrete?
Carbonic
235
The characteristic x-ray findings in tuberculosis include
Ghon tubercles.
236
A 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT, but a normal platelet count, is likely to be diagnosed with
hemophilia.
237
In addition to renal colic pain, signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include
hematuria.
238
The imbalance that occurs with oliguric renal failure is
hyperkalemia.
239
To best prevent emphysema, a patient is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke
impairs α1-antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate.
239
An increase in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen occurs with
shift to the left.
239
Which vessel normally demonstrates the most rapid blood flow?
The vena cava
240
Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.
liquefactive
241
The inward-pulling force of particles in the vascular fluid is called _____ pressure.
capillary osmotic
242
Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular
death.
243
Abnormalities in intracellular regulation of enzyme activity and cellular production of ATP are associated with
hypophosphatemia.
244
Osteoporosis commonly occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease because of
hyperparathyroidism.
245
Hepatitis B is usually transmitted by exposure to
blood or semen.
245
What effect do demyelinating disorders such as multiple sclerosis have on neurotransmission?
Slower rate of action potential conduction
246
Restriction of which electrolytes is recommended in the management of high blood pressure?
Sodium
247
A college student living in a dormitory reports a stiff neck and headache and is found to have a fever of 102°F. This information is most consistent with
meningitis.
248
If an individual has a fully compensated metabolic acidosis, the blood pH is
in the normal range.
249
Extreme cold injures cells by all the following except
decreased blood viscosity.
250
Many of the responses to stress are attributed to activation of the sympathetic nervous system and are mediated by
norepinephrine.
251
In contrast to all other types of shock, the hyperdynamic phase of septic shock is associated with
high cardiac output.
252
Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.
posterior
253
A patient diagnosed with chronic compensated heart failure reports that, “My feet swell if I eat salt but I don’t understand why” The nurse’s best response is
“Salt holds water in your blood and makes more pressure against your blood vessels, so fluid leaks out into your tissues and makes them swell.”
254
The most common tumor-suppressor gene defect identified in cancer cells is
P53.
255
New-organ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
False
256
Cystic fibrosis is associated with
bronchiectasis.
257
Proto-oncogenes
are normal cellular genes that promote growth.
258
An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed
hypertrophy.
259
Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to
rupture.
259
Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space is called
pleural effusion.
260
The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma.
False
261
One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is
hypertension.
262
Which disorder is associated with a type III hypersensitivity mechanism of injury?
Systemic lupus erythematosus
263
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors block the
conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
264
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) is caused by
absent or diminished levels of progesterone.
265
Ascending paralysis with no loss of sensation is characteristic of
Guillain-Barré syndrome.
266
Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is because of
peripheral pooling of blood.
267
The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is
air embolus.
268
What form of viral hepatitis is likely to be transmitted sexually?
Hepatitis B
269
Gouty arthritis is a complication of
inadequate renal excretion of uric acid.
270
A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is
hyponatremia.
270
The megakaryocyte is a precursor to
platelets.
271
In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.
False
272
The hypersecretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of
recurrent infection.
273
A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety. The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum. This patient is most likely experiencing
acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
274
A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience
fever.
275
A tumor which results in excessive production and release of catecholamines is
pheochromocytoma.
275
A patient who was involved in a fall from a tree becomes short of breath. The lung sounds are absent on one side. This patient is experiencing ________ shock.
obstructive
276
Paraneoplastic syndromes in cancer involve excessive production of substances by multiple means. A common substance found in excessive amounts resulting from cancer paraneoplastic syndromes is
calcium.
277
An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is
histamine.
278
Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by
tissue thromboplastin.
279
Respiratory acidosis is associated with
increased carbonic acid.
280
The primary effect of aging on all body systems is
decreased functional reserve.
280
Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in
permanent damage and death.
281
The most common causes of prehepatic jaundice are ________ and ineffective erythropoiesis.
hemolysis
282
Bacterial pneumonia leads to hypoxemia caused by
accumulation of alveolar exudates.
283
A patient injured severely in a motor vehicle accident is hospitalized with acute kidney injury as well as multiple broken bones and lacerations. When family members ask what is meant by the term ‘prerenal,’ the nurse responds
“Your husband’s kidney injury did not start in the kidney itself, but rather in the blood flow to the kidney.”
284
Seizures that involve both hemispheres at the outset are termed
generalized.
285
In the acute phase of stroke, treatment is focused on
stabilization of respiratory and cardiovascular function.
286
After suffering a heart attack, a middle-aged man is counseled to take a cholesterol-lowering medication. This is an example of
tertiary prevention.
287
Emphysema results from destruction of alveolar walls and capillaries, which is because of
release of proteolytic enzymes from immune cells.
288
In general, the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with
ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia).
289
A known cause of hypokalemia is
insulin overdose.
290
Complete healing of a bone fracture occurs when
the callus has been completely replaced with mature bone.
291
Left-sided heart failure is characterized by
pulmonary congestion.
292
Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?
Anaphylactic
293
Pulse pressure is defined as
systolic pressure – diastolic pressure.
294
Which dysrhythmia is thought to be associated with reentrant mechanisms?
Preexcitation syndrome tachycardia (Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome)
295
Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by
inflammation, stiffness, and fusion of spinal joints.
296
Excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion can cause _____ concentration.
decreased serum sodium
297
The primary cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome is
lack of surfactant.
298
Peripheral edema is a result of
venous thrombosis.
299
Clinical manifestations of a stroke within the right cerebral hemisphere include
left-sided muscle weakness and neglect.
300
All obstructive pulmonary disorders are characterized by
resistance to airflow.
301
Venous obstruction leads to edema because it ________ pressure.
increases capillary hydrostatic
302
An increase in ADH secretion occurs in response to
dehydration.
303
Early manifestations of a developing metabolic acidosis include
headache.
304
Patients with acute pancreatitis are generally made NPO and may require continuous gastric suctioning in order to
remove the usual stimuli for pancreatic secretion.
305
Which alterations can lead to edema?
Decreased lymphatic flow
306
Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called
overflow incontinence.
307
Disseminated intravascular coagulation is a serious complication of septic shock characterized by abnormal clot formation in the microvasculature throughout the body.
True
308
Narcotic administration should be administered carefully in patients with acute pancreatitis related to potential for
sphincter of Oddi dysfunction.
309
A patient with heart failure who reports intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
310
Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ________ rate.
mortality
311
Obstructive sleep apnea would most likely be found in a patient diagnosed with
Pickwickian syndrome.
312
Which group of clinical findings describes the typical presentation of ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)?
Pain in long bones, infection, fever, bruising
313
Causes of metabolic acidosis include
tissue anoxia.
314
The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is
energy and repair.
315
Secondary injury after head trauma refers to
brain injury resulting from the body’s response to tissue damage.
315
Patients presenting with symptoms of unstable angina and no ST segment elevation are treated with
antiplatelet drugs.
316
What finding should prompt further diagnostic testing in a child presenting with diarrhea?
Blood and mucus in the stools
317
Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by
hypokalemia.
318
Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have
a productive cough.
319
Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?
No change in serum glucocorticoid level
320
A patient presenting with muscle cramps, fatigue, anxiety, depression, and prolonged Q-T intervals on EKG may be showing symptoms of
hypoparathyroidism.
321
Proton pump inhibitors may be used in the management of peptic ulcer disease to
decrease hydrochloric acid (HCl) secretion.
322
High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle, because it increases
afterload.
323
Most muscle strains are caused by
abnormal muscle contraction.
324
Acceleration-deceleration movements of the head often result in polar injuries in which
focal injuries occur in two places at opposite poles.
325
The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
True
325
The process responsible for distribution of fluid between the interstitial and intracellular compartments is
osmosis.
326
Which change in a patient’s assessment has the greatest urgency?
Serum potassium concentration is increasing; has developed cardiac dysrhythmias, but denies any difficulty breathing
327
The finding of hypotension, rigid abdomen, and absent bowel sounds in a patient with pancreatitis
indicates peritonitis with substantial risk for sepsis and shock.
328
It is true that growth hormone excess in adults
results in the condition of acromegaly.
329
Steatohepatitis is caused by an accumulation of ________ in the liver cells.
fat
330
Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock?
Septic
331
An early indicator of colon cancer is
a change in bowel habits.
331
It is useful to conceptualize pain physiology according to the four stages because each stage provides an opportunity for
intervention.
332
Epigastric pain that is relieved by food is suggestive of
gastric ulcer.
333
“Tell me again the name of that chemical that makes crystals when my gout flares up,” asks the client. The nurse’s best response is
uric acid.
333
What form of oral rehydration, bottled water or salty broth, is best suited for a patient who is demonstrating signs of clinical dehydration?
Salty soup, because it will provide some sodium to help hold the fluid in his blood vessels and interstitial fluid
334
Signs consistent with a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis include
proteinuria.
335
Paget’s disease is characterized by
excessive bone resorption followed by excessive formation of fragile bone.
336
A patient with pancreatitis may experience muscle cramps secondary to
hypocalcemia.
337
Clinical manifestations of severe symptomatic hypophosphatemia are caused by
deficiency of ATP.
337
COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes
air trapping.
337
_________ is a form of spina bifida in which a saclike cyst filled with CSF protrudes through the spinal defect but does not involve the spinal cord.
Meningocele
338
Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes
fluid administration.
338
Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) syndrome is an example of a(n)
deficient immune response.
339
In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal blood pressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?
Class II, Compensated Stage
340
Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
341
When exposed to inhaled allergens, a patient with asthma produces large quantities of
IgE.
342
The majority of cardiac cells that die after myocardial infarction do so because of
apoptosis.
343
The most definitive diagnostic method for active tuberculosis is acquired via
sputum culture.
344
Widespread atelectasis, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and diffuse, fluffy alveolar infiltrates on chest radiograph are characteristic of
acute respiratory distress syndrome.
345
Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.
secondary
346
Which neurologic disorder is commonly referred to as Lou Gehrig disease?
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
347
Normal bile is composed of
water, electrolytes, and organic solutes.
347
A patient reporting vision changes, photophobia, and lid lag may be exhibiting signs of
Graves disease.
347
Red blood cells differ from other cell types in the body, because they
have no cytoplasmic organelles.
348
Cor pulmonale refers to
right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
349
A person is unaware that his bladder is full of urine, but complains that he is leaking urine almost constantly. The most accurate term for this type of incontinence is
overflow.
350
Most gallstones are composed of
cholesterol.
351
A patient with cold and edematous extremities, low cardiac output, and profound hypotension is likely to be experiencing a progressive stage of ________ shock.
septic
352
Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?
Edema
353
A person who overuses magnesium-aluminum antacids for a long period of time is likely to develop
hypophosphatemia.
354
The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called
nephralgia.
355
Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of
intrinsic factor.
356
A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg, retinopathy, and symptoms of an ischemic stroke. This symptomology is likely the result of
hypertensive crisis.
356
A biliary cause of acute pancreatitis is suggested by an elevation in which serum laboratory results?
Alkaline phosphatase
357
A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).
358
If acute tubular necrosis (ATN) does not resolve and continued tubular dysfunction ensues, the patient will then experience
polyuria and sodium wasting.
359
Individuals diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are at risk for developing numerous complications of various organs because of
immune injury to basement membranes.
359
A common component of renal calculi is
calcium.
360
The nurse is swabbing a patient’s throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis. The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.
True
361
In individuals who have asthma, exposure to an allergen to which they are sensitized leads to which pathophysiologic event?
Inflammation, mucosal edema, and bronchoconstriction
362
It is true that encephalitis is usually
because of a viral infection in brain cells.
363
The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis. The cancer is at what stage?
Stage II
364
A 3-year-old is diagnosed with starvation ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms should you anticipate in your assessment?
Rapid, deep breathing, lethargy, abdominal pain
365
Which disorder is caused by inhalation of organic substances?
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
366
The most common type of osteomyelitis is
hematogenous.
367
Somatic death refers to death
of the entire organism.
368
The most challenging aspect of treatment for chronic pancreatitis is
pain control.
369
Viral pneumonia is characterized by
a dry cough.
370
Postrenal acute kidney injury may be caused by
bilateral kidney stones.
371
Pathophysiologically, esophageal varices can be attributed to
portal hypertension.
372
Which serum biomarker(s) are indicative of irreversible damage to myocardial cells?
Elevated CK-MB, troponin I, and troponin T
373
Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?
Insulin
374
A patient is diagnosed with a tortuous blood vessel of the right hand that bleeds spontaneously. This patient presents with
telangiectasia.
375
Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because
hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.
376
The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called
subluxation.
377
The effect of stress on the immune system
may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.
378
An infusion of mannitol would be prescribed to treat
cerebral edema.
378
The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age
8.
379
Airway obstruction in chronic bronchitis is because of
thick mucus, fibrosis, and smooth muscle hypertrophy.
379
Which clinical finding is indicative of compartment syndrome?
Absent peripheral pulses
380
A patient, who is 8 months pregnant, has developed eclampsia and is receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate to prevent seizures. To determine if her infusion rate is too high, you should regularly
check the patellar reflex; if it becomes weak or absent, her infusion rate probably is too high and she is at risk for respiratory depression or cardiac arrest.
381
A patient with a productive cough and parenchymal infiltrates on x-ray is demonstrating symptomology of
bacterial pneumonia.
382
What laboratory finding is usually found in aplastic anemia?
Pancytopenia
383
A major cause of treatment failure in tuberculosis is
noncompliance.
384
Fecal leukocyte screening would be indicated in a patient with suspected
enterocolitis.
385
The most frequent initial symptom of bladder cancer is
hematuria.
386
Which intervention has been found to retard the advancement of chronic kidney disease?
ACE inhibitors
387
Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?
Increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
388
Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection?
Cyanosis
389
Gastrointestinal drainage, perioperative and postoperative hypotension, and hemorrhage may all contribute to renal failure by causing
acute tubular necrosis.
390
The microorganism that causes the vast majority of urinary tract infections is
Escherichia coli.
391
After sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequence of
right-sided heart failure.
392
A patient being treated for hepatic encephalopathy could be expected to receive a(n) ________ diet.
low-protein and high-fiber
393
The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is generally described as ________ in nature.
steady and boring
394
________ is the most powerful predictor of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Obesity
395
Two primary acid-base disorders that are present independently are referred to as
mixed acid-base imbalance.
396
The urea-splitting bacteria contribute to the formation of ________ kidney stones.
struvite
397
Calcitonin is produced by thyroid parafollicular cells and increases bone formation by
osteoblasts.
398
Anticholinesterase inhibitors may be used to manage
myasthenia gravis.
399
It is true that gallstones are
more common in women.
400
A commonly ingested substance associated with prolongation of the bleeding time is
aspirin.
400
A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis. This is an example of
primary prevention.
401
Retroviruses are associated with human cancers, including
Burkitt lymphoma.
402
Aldosterone secretion is regulated by the presence of ________ in the circulation.
angiotensin II
403
The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is
throat infection.
404
A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake. This is an example of
secondary prevention.
405
Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person’s cells. These proteins are called ________ proteins.
HLA or MHC
406
A 5-year-old patient’s parents report loss of appetite and fatigue in their child. The parents also state that the child refuses to walk as a result of pain. The child’s most likely diagnosis is
ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
407
Risk factors for atherosclerosis include
hyperlipidemia.
408
Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in
increased pH, increased HCO3–.
409
It is true that scleroderma involves
inflammation and fibrosis of connective tissue.
409
Parkinson disease is associated with
a deficiency of dopamine in the substantia nigra.
409
Clinical manifestations of chronic arterial obstruction include
intermittent claudication.
410
The relationship of blood flow (Q), resistance (R), and pressure (P) in a vessel can be expressed by which equation?
Q = P/R
411
Familial retinoblastoma involves the transmission of what from parent to offspring?
Mutant tumor-suppressor gene
412
Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of
endorphins.
413
A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic.
False
414
Patients who experience anemic episodes when exposed to certain drugs most likely have
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.
415
The effect on the renal tubules during the postoliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis involves
regeneration of the renal tubular epithelium.
416
Endometriosis is a condition in which
ectopic endometrial tissue is present.
417
Although skin manifestations may occur in numerous locations, the classic presentation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) includes
a butterfly pattern rash on the face across the bridge of the nose.
417
The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to secondary hypertension.
True
418
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is usually managed with volume expansion and blood pressure support to enhance cerebral perfusion. This is necessary because subarachnoid hemorrhage predisposes to
cerebral vasospasm.
419
A major modifiable risk factor for nephrolithiasis is
dehydration.
420
The type of glomerulonephritis which is most likely to result in a swift decline in renal function that then progresses to acute kidney injury is
crescentic glomerulonephritis.
421
A patient has a history of falls, syncope, dizziness, and blurred vision. The patient’s symptomology is most likely related to
hypotension.
422
When a client diagnosed with COPD type A asks, “Why is my chest so big and round?”, the nurse responds that
“Loss of elastic tissue in your lungs allows your airways to close and trap air, which makes your chest round.”
423
Breast cancer in women who have the breast cancer gene
occurs at an earlier age.
424
A laboratory test finding helpful in confirming the diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia is
elevated total iron-binding capacity.
425
A compound, transverse fracture is best described as a bone that is
broken and protruding through the skin.
426
The normal post-void residual urine in the bladder is
less than 100 mL.
427
Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of
β-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
428
Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with
recurrent cystitis.
429
When systemic vascular resistance is decreased, blood flow
decreases.
430
How is a patient hospitalized with a malignant tumor that secretes parathyroid hormone–related peptide monitored for the resulting electrolyte imbalance?
Serum calcium, bowel function, level of consciousness
431
Individuals with end-stage chronic renal disease are at risk for renal osteodystrophy and spontaneous bone fractures, because
they are deficient in active vitamin D.
432
Glomerular disorders include
nephrotic syndrome.
433
Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?
Sexually active women
434
When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball, the result is redness and swelling. This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called
hyperemia.
435
The most common direct cause of acute pyelonephritis is
infection by E. coli.
436
Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulates the release of _____ from juxtaglomerular cells.
renin
437
A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing
dysmenorrhea.
438
Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of
testicular torsion.
439
An abnormally wide (more than 0.10 second) QRS complex is characteristic of
premature ventricular complexes.
440
“Please explain the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis to me,” says another nurse. “Is it just wear and tear so that the cartilage wears out?” Your best response is
“No; cells in bone, cartilage, and the synovial membrane all get activated and secrete inflammatory mediators that destroy cartilage and damage bone.”
441
Which condition is caused by a genetic defect?
Polycystic kidney disease
442
The individual at highest risk of pyelonephritis who requires monitoring for signs of its occurrence is the
man who has chronic urinary tract infections.
442
A level of ____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates likely fatal damage.
3
443
A laboratory test that should be routinely monitored in patients receiving digitalis therapy is
serum potassium.
443
Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of
increased pulmonary vascular resistance.
444
Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to
inhibit clotting factor consumption.
445
One cause of an extrinsic renal system obstruction is
pelvic tumor.
445
C.Q. was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection. His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F, skin rash, dysphagia, and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules. He complains of sore throat, malaise, and joint stiffness. A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus, and antibiotics have been prescribed. The etiology of C.Q.’s disease is
streptococcal infection.
446
Coagulative necrosis is caused by
interrupted blood supply.
447
Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by
inability to retract the foreskin.
448
A cause of thrombocytopenia includes
chemotherapy.
449
Critically ill patients may have parenterally administered vasoactive drugs that are adjusted according to their _____ pressure.
mean arterial
450
Pneumocystitis is a term that refers to a
fungal pneumonia secondary to HIV.
451
The progressive stage of hypovolemic shock is characterized by
tachycardia.
452
The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.
respiratory
453
A patient who reported a very painful sore throat 3 weeks ago is now diagnosed with acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. When asked, “Why is my urine the color of coffee?”, the nurse responds
“Your immune system was activated by your sore throat and has caused some damage in your kidneys that allows red blood cells to leak into the fluid that becomes urine and make it coffee-colored.”
454
Risk factors for hemorrhagic stroke include
acute hypertension.
455
The finding of ketones in the blood suggests that a person may have
metabolic acidosis.
456
Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in
systemic vascular resistance.
457
Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the corpus cavernosum during sexual stimulation.
True
458
Tophi are
deposits of urate crystals in tissues.
459
Diabetes insipidus is a condition that
results from inadequate ADH secretion.
460
A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is
increased urinary protein.
461
The most important preventive measure for hemorrhagic stroke is
blood pressure control.
462
What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?
Cystocele
463
Ankylosing spondylitis causes
intervertebral joint fusion.
464
Absence of menstruation is called
amenorrhea.
465
An obese but otherwise healthy teen is given a prescription for a low-calorie diet and exercise program. This is an example of
secondary prevention.
466
A restrictive respiratory disorder is characterized by
decreased residual volume.
467
A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of
mitral regurgitation.
468
What age group has a larger volume of extracellular fluid than intracellular fluid?
Infants
468
Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
False
469
Dramatic hypotension sometimes accompanies type I hypersensitivity reactions, because
massive histamine release from mast cells leads to vasodilation.
470
It is true that polycystic kidney disease is
genetically transmitted.
471
Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?
Myeloma
472
Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the spinal cord.
True
472
Which symptom suggests the presence of a hiatal hernia?
Heartburn
473
A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest. The likely cause of this pain is
stable angina.
474
Aortic regurgitation is associated with
diastolic murmur.
475
After bronchoscopy and histologic examination of a suspected tumor, your patient is diagnosed with primary bronchial carcinoma. Thus, the tumor
is malignant.
476
Diabetes mellitus is the ________ leading cause of death and a major cause of disability in the United States.
seventh
477
The chief pathologic features of osteoarthritis are
degeneration of articular cartilage, destruction of the bone under the cartilage, and thickening of the synovium.
478
Muscular dystrophy includes a number of muscle disorders that are
genetically transmitted.
479
Carbon monoxide injures cells by
reducing oxygen level on hemoglobin.
480
What results when systemic blood pressure is increased?
Vasoconstriction
481
Signs and symptoms of extracellular fluid volume excess include
bounding pulse.
482
When preparing for the admission of a client diagnosed with bronchiectasis, the nurse will
put a sputum cup and a box of tissues on the bedside table.
483
The most reliable indicator that a person is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI) is
ST-segment elevation.
484
The patient is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL). As part of treatment, the patient must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy. The most serious complication of chemotherapy is
infection.
485
A deficiency of von Willebrand factor impairs
platelet adhesion to injured tissue.
486
Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the ________ test.
Papanicolaou
487
Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI) is directed at
decreasing myocardial oxygen demands.
488
Fully compensated respiratory acidosis is demonstrated by
pH 7.36, PaCO2 55, HCO3– 36.
489
A patient with flail chest will demonstrate
outward chest movement on expiration.
490
The defining characteristic of severe acute kidney injury is
oliguria.
490
An erroneously low blood pressure measurement may be caused by
positioning the arm above the heart level.
491
Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity disorder that involves
impaired muscle function.
491
A patient who experiences early symptoms of muscle twitching, cramping, and stiffness of the hands may be demonstrating signs of
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
492
Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) ________ to hold the uterus in place.
pessary.
493
The major cause of glomerulonephritis is
immune system damage to the glomeruli.
493
Selye’s three phases of the stress response include all the following except
allostasis.
494
After evaluation, a child’s asthma is characterized as “extrinsic.” This means that the asthma is
associated with specific allergic triggers.
495
The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction is
adhesions.
496
Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation caused by
autoimmune injury.
496
The risk for contrast media–induced acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is highest in
a 70-year-old patient with heart failure.
496
Activation of parasympathetic nerves to the bladder will cause
bladder contraction.
497
It is true that the synthesis of thyroid hormones
is inhibited by iodine deficiency.
497
A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is
pulmonary embolus.
498
What compensatory sign would be expected during periods of physical exertion in a patient with limited ventricular stroke volume?
Tachycardia
499
Constrictive pericarditis is associated with
impaired cardiac filling.
499
When a parent of a toddler recently diagnosed with pneumococcal pneumonia asks why their child is so much sicker than a classmate was when they were diagnosed with pneumonia, the nurse replies
“It sounds like your child has a case of bacterial pneumonia, while the classmate had viral pneumonia.”
499
Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes
erythropoietin administration.
500
Ulcerative colitis is commonly associated with
bloody diarrhea.
501
The stage during which the patient functions normally, although the disease processes are well established, is referred to as
subclinical.
502
Cancer grading is based on
cell differentiation.
503
A patient has been hospitalized several times in 6 months with severe ECV depletion and hypokalemia resulting from chronic laxative abuse. Which blood gas results should be relayed to the physician?
pH in high part of normal range, PaO2 normal, PaCO2 high, bicarbonate high
504
Which statement is true about the incidence of multiple sclerosis?
The age of onset ranges from 20 to 50 years.
505
Total body water in older adults is
decreased because of increased adipose tissue and decreased muscle mass.
506
A newborn has melena, bleeding from the umbilicus, and hematuria. The newborn most likely experiencing
vitamin K deficiency bleeding.
507
After being diagnosed with hypertension, a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later. The patient reports “moderate” adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure. What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
Continue lifestyle modifications only.
507
Clinical manifestations of hyponatremia include
confusion, lethargy, coma, and perhaps seizures.
507
The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of
resistance.
508
Patients with structural evidence of heart failure who exhibit no signs or symptoms are classified into which New York Heart Association heart failure class?
Class I
508
Enteropathic arthritis is associated with
inflammatory bowel disease.
509
An increase in the resting membrane potential (hyperpolarized) is associated with
hypokalemia.
510
It is true that fibrocystic breast disease
may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.
511
Diarrhea causes
metabolic acidosis.
512
Angina caused by coronary artery spasm is called _____ angina.
Prinzmetal variant
513
Increased preload of the cardiac chambers may lead to which patient symptom?
Edema
514
What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?
Resistance increases by a factor of 16.
514
In which dysrhythmias should treatment be instituted immediately?
Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/minute
515
The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.
9
516
The most common sign/symptom of renal calculi is
pain.
517
Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to
soft-tissue damage.
518
Bone healing may be impaired by
nicotine use.
519
The most effective therapy for anemia associated with kidney failure is
erythropoietin administration.
520
Hyperaldosteronism causes
ECV excess and hypokalemia.
521
Clinical manifestations of hypoparathyroidism
result from decreased serum ionized calcium.
522
________ disease is a rare autosomal recessive disorder in which excessive amounts of copper accumulate in the liver.
Wilson
523
Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by
hypertension and bradycardia.
524
Low cardiac output in association with high preload is characteristic of ________ shock.
cardiogenic
525
The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.
True
526
Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except
pupil constriction.
527
What finding would rule out a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in a patient with chronic diarrhea?
Bloody stools
528
Liver transaminase elevations in which aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is markedly greater than alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is characteristic of
alcohol-induced injury.
529
A person who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is also experiencing hypoalbuminemia. This happens because
albumin is excreted in the urine.
530
Which complication of asthma is life threatening?
Status asthmaticus
531
The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves
inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.
532
Allostasis is best defined as
the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being.
533
Healing of a fractured bone with a poor alignment is called
malunion.
534
Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury, but generally felt
within the same dermatome.
535
The effects of excessive cortisol production include
immune suppression.
536
Dopamine precursors and anticholinergics are all used in the management of Parkinson disease, because they
increase dopamine activity in the basal ganglia.
537
The main clinical manifestation of a kidney stone obstructing the ureter is
renal colic.
538
What laboratory data would support a diagnosis of hemochromatosis?
Elevated ferritin
539
The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called
bcr-abl.
540
The effect of nitric oxide on systemic arterioles is
vasodilation.
541
The consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter is
hydronephrosis.
