Chemo Drugs I Flashcards

1
Q

How many cell doublings are typically needed for cancer to be clinically detectable?

A

Around 30 (could take years to develop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List the 4 stages of metastasis

A
  1. clonal evoution
  2. intravasation
  3. extravasation
  4. growth in the distant metastatic site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Skipper Hypothesis?

A

The ability of chemotherapy to cure is inversely proportional to the tumor burder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are two big factors in the development of chemoresistance?

A

Faster mutation rate and Time

Treating early is better, before development of chemoresistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe

  • Complete remission
  • Partial remission
  • Stable disease
  • Progression of Disease
A

Complete remission is NOT cured. You have killed enough cells that you no long see them

Partial remission– over 50% reduction of tumor size with no new lesions

Stable disease– nothing changed with chemo (didn’t grow, didn’t shrink)

Progression of disease (worsened)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the purpose of Phase I, II, and III chinical trials?

A

Phase I – determine dose and dose limiting toxicity

Phase II – determine activity

Phase III – determine efficacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the ANC? How is it used?

A

Absolute Neutrophil Count = (% segs + % bands) x Total leukocytes

Low ANC and a fever – need to be admitted with cultures drawn
Start broad spectrum ABX until PMN count begins recovering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ondansetron MOA

A

5HT3 antagonist used as an anti-emetic agent

Blocks 5HT3 receptors in the CTZ of the area postrema

AEs: Constipation, risk of QT prolongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alkylating Agents

MOA

A

Binds covalently to DNA
-Sulfur avid

Cell cycle non-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cyclophosphamide

MOA

A

Activated in the liver by a P450 oxidase

Phosphoramide Mustard is the DNA damaging agent that binds DNA via its chlorethyl groups

Alkylation may be intrastrand or interstrand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cyclophosphamide

AEs

A

N/V
Hair loss
Myelosuppression

Hematuria can occur, but it is not problematic at standard doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Cyclophosphamide

Indications

A

Breast Cancer

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (diffuse large B cell lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is Ifosphamide different than Cyclophosphamide?

A

Ifosphamide only has 1/5 the alkylating activity of Cyclophosphamide, so it needs to be given at higher doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ifosphamide

Coadministered with…?

A

Coadministered with Mensa, which is protective against Ifosphamide’s hematuria side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ifosphamide

Indications

A

Soft tissue sarcomas

Testicular cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Temozolamide

MOA

A

Monofunctioning alkylating agent

Methylates the DNA

17
Q

Temozolamide

Indications

A

Glioblastoma and other primary brain tumors

18
Q

Temozolamide

AEs

A

N/V, hair loss, myelosuppression

Must give prophylaxis against PCP pneumonia

19
Q

Platinum Coordinating Compounds

General MOA

A

Alkylating agents with Platinum in +2 oxidation state

20
Q

What are the 3 main Platinum Coordinating Compounds?

A

Cisplatin
Carboplatin
Oxaliplatin

21
Q

General Mechanism of resistance to DNA alkylating agents

A

Nucleotide excision repair molecules can break the alkylating agents

22
Q

Cisplatin

Indications

A

Testicular cancer (curative)

Lung, ovary, head and neck, bladder cancers too

23
Q

Cisplatin

Dose limiting toxicity

A

Nephrotoxicity (high doses will ruin the kidneys)

Cisplatin is also excreted by the kidneys, so it is often given with saline and maybe a mannitol diuretic. Therefore burdensome to administer in clinic

24
Q

Cisplatin

Contraindications

A

Renal impairment

Impaired cardiac or respiratory function (may not handle the high fluid load taken with cisplatin)

25
Q

Carboplatin

Indications

A

Testicular cancer (curative)

Lung, ovary, head and neck, bladder cancers too

MAY be given to someone on dialysis

26
Q

Carboplatin

Dose limiting toxicity

A

Myelosuppression

27
Q

Why would carboplatin be preferred over cisplatin?

A

Carboplatin is also excreted by the kidneys, but it is NOT nephrotoxic.

You can give carboplatin to someone on dialysis or someone who couldn’t handle the fluid overload with cisplatin

28
Q

Oxaliplatin

Indications

A

Colorectal cancer (doubles survival)

29
Q

Oxaliplatin

AEs

A

Myelosuppression
N/V
Vein irritant

Acute cold induced neuropathy

Chronic sensory neuropathy

Jaw pain with FIRST CHEW after oxaliplatin (it goes away)

30
Q

Vincristine

MOA

A

Prevents polymerization of tubulin in M phase (cell cycle specific)

31
Q

Vincristine

AEs

A

Neuropathy is dose limiting (esp if they lose fine motor activity)

32
Q

Vincristine

Indications

A

Lymphoma

Hodgkin disease

Lymphoblastic Leukemia

33
Q

Paclitaxel (Taxol)

MOA

A

Prevents tubulin disassembly (M phase specific)

34
Q

Paclitaxel (Taxol)

AEs

A

Hepatic metabolism

Myelosuppression, hair loss, N/V, stomatitis, peripheral sensory neuropathy

35
Q

Paclitaxel (Taxol)

Indications

A

Ovarian, Lung, GI, Breast cancers

36
Q

Etoposide

MOA

A

Produces DNA double stranded breaks by targeting topoisomerase II

Blocks G1 –> S

37
Q

Etoposide

AEs

A

N/V, hair loss, Myelosuppression

Reduce dose in renal or hepatic dysfunction

38
Q

Etoposide

Indications

A

Testicular Cancer
Lung cancer
Lymphomas