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Flashcards in DIT Warm-Up Questions Deck (101):
1

What embryonic structure (derived from the hypoblast) serves as a secondary energy source?

Endodermal yolk sac

2

What embryonic structure serves as a reservoir of nonspecialized (undifferentiated) stem cells?

Endodermal yolk sac

3

What are the 3 germ layers that derive from epiblast?

ecto, meso, endo

4

What is the embryologic origin of the tissue just proximal to the pectinate line?

Tissue just distal?

endoderm

surface ecto

5

What effect might ACE inhibitor have on developing fetus?

renal abnormalities

6

What effect might aminoglycosides have on developing fetus?

ototoxicity

7

What effect might DES have on developing fetus?

vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma

8

What effect might tetracyclines have on developing fetus?

discolored teeth

9

What effect might valproic acid have on developing fetus?

neural tube defect

10

Which vitamin should not be supplemented in large acts during pregnancy

vitamin A (high risk for spontaneous abortions and birth defects - cleft palate, cardiac)

11

Which amino acids are found in nuclear localization signals?

PAL: proline, arginine, lysine

12

What is the most common cause of intellectual disability in infants?

alcohol (fetal alcohol syndrome)

13

How do Rb protein and p53 regulate the cell cycle?

prevents G1 --> S phase

14

During what weeks of fetal development does organogenesis take place?

week 3-8

15

What molecules provide the structural framework for DNA and the nuclear envelope?

nuclear lamins

16

What is deficient in I-cell disease?

phosphotransferase
(tags lysosomal enzymes with mannose-6-phosphate so it will go to lysosome and be sequestered)

17

What are the stages that an embryo goes through between conception and the development of an inner cell mass?

zygote --> morula --> blastocyst

18

What drugs interfere with microtubule functioning?

- anti-cancer (vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel)

- colchicine
- benzimidazoles (mebendazole, albendazole)
- griseofulvin

19

Which cell types are constantly regenerating themselves due to an absence of the G0 phase and a short G1 phase? (3)

- skin
- hair follicles
- bone marrow

20

What are the characteristic features of a cell undergoing apoptosis? (5)

1. cellular shrinkage
2. pyknosis (nuclear shrinkage)
3. membrane blebbing
4. karyorrhexis, karyolysis
5. apoptotic bodies

21

How do Bax and Bcl-2 affect apoptosis?

Bax = pro-apoptotic (activated by DNA damage or apoptotic signals)

Bcl-2 = anti-apoptotic regulator of mitochondrial permeability

22

What protein is involved in transporting endocytose vesicles from the plasma membrane to the endosome?

clathrin (via receptor mediated endocytosis)

23

Which metals are known to facilitate the generation of oxygen free radicals? (2)

iron and copper

24

Which tumor suppressor proteins prevent the progression of the cell into S phase

Rb, p53

25

What developmental structure matches each of the following descriptions?

a. the fetal placental structure that secretes hCG

b. maternal component of the placenta

a. syncytiotrophoblast

b. decidua basalis

26

How does having a HIGH cholesterol content in the plasma membrane affect the function of the plasma membrane?

- decrease fluidity
- increase melting temperature

27

A patient presents with an aganglionic colon and other neural crest derivative deficiencies. What other findings would you expect to see?

- PNS abnormalities
- autonomic dysfunction
- conductive hearing loss (b/c ossicles aren't formed properly)
- anterior chamber eye problems
- dental abnormalities
- albinism
- heart defects (truncus arteriosus, transposition)

28

Which amino acids are modified in the Golgi apparatus? (4)

1. Serine
2. Threonine
3. Asparagine
4. Tyrosine

29

Failure of what process results in I-cell disease?

failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate marker to lysosomal enzymes (thus goes to the outside of the cell instead of to lysosome)

30

What organelle becomes hypertrophied in hepatocytes with chronic phenobarbital use?

smooth ER

31

What enzyme mitigates the aging effects on cellular division by maintaining chromosomal length?

telomerase

32

Which types of proteins are responsible for fostering the progression through the cell cycle?

Cyclins + CDKs (cyclin-dependent kinases)

33

Which neurotransmitters have altered levels in anxiety disorder?

Decreased GABA
Increased NE

34

Which collagen is typically deficient in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

type 5

35

Which collagen is typically deficient in osteogenesis imperfecta?

type 1

36

What regulates the progression of G1 --> S?

Rb, p53

37

What arachidonic acid product has actions that oppose that of prostacyclins (PGI-2)?

thromboxane (pro-thrombotic)

38

In what disorder is there an abnormal breakdown of elastin?

alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (elastase uninhibited; leads to emphysema)

39

Whats the defect in Marfan syndrome?

defect in fibrillin

40

What organelle and cytochrome are particularly important in intrinsic apoptosis?

mitochondria, releases cytochrome C

41

What prenatal testing is abnormal in a fetus with a neural tube defect?

- increased AFP in maternal serum and amniotic fluid
- increased Ach in amniotic fluid

42

What effect might aminoglycosides have on a developing fetus?

ototoxicity

43

What molecule targets proteins in the ER for lysosomes?

mannose-6-phosphate

44

What birth defects can result from ACE inhibitors?

renal damage

45

What birth defects can result from folate antagonists?

neural tube defects

46

What birth defects can result from tetracyclines?

discolored teeth

47

What birth defects can result from lithium?

Ebstein's anomaly (displacement of septal and posterior tricuspid leaflets towards the apex)

48

What group of genes is responsible for skeletal development

HOX genes (homeobox)

49

What is required for a molecule to enter into the nucleus through a nuclear pore?

nuclear localization signals (PAL = lysine, arginine, proline)

50

Which amino acids are modified by the Golgi apparatus?

STAT
- serine
- threonine
- asparagine
- tyrosine

51

In which diseases are levels of GABA altered? (2)

decreased in
- anxiety
- huntington

52

Which cytokine is particularly important in maintaining granulomas?

TNF-alpha

53

What is the function of lysosomes?

breakdown cellular waste and debris

54

What information is communicated at the:

a. Nucleus solitarius?
b. Nucleus ambiguus?
c. Dorsal motor nucleus?

a. sensory CN10 (taste), baroreceptor, chemoreceptor, GI distention

b. speech + swallow

c. parasym

55

Which areas of the hypothalamus regulates the autonomic nervous system?

- anterior: para
- posterior: sym

56

Which hypothalamic nucleus produces ADH to regulate water balance?

supraoptic

57

Which hypothalamic nucleus regulates the release of gonadotropic hormones? (2)

arcuate, preoptic

58

Which CN relays hypoxia measured by the carotid body?

CN9

59

Which CN relays BP from the aortic arch?

CN10

60

Which CN controls salivation from the sublingual and submandibular glands?

CN7

61

Which CN controls salivation from the parotid glands?

CN9

62

Which CN relays BP from the carotid?

CN9

63

Which type of collagen is abnormal in Alport syndrome?

type 4

64

A 43 yo male presents with symptoms of dizziness and tinnitus. CT shows an enlarged internal acoustic meatus. What is the diagnosis?

acoustic schwannoma

65

Which portions of the hypothalamus are inhibited by leptin? which are stimulation by leptin?

a. lateral
b. ventromedial

66

What substances are utilized by natural killer cells to induce apoptosis in other cells? (2)

- perforin
- granzyme B

67

Which intracranial tumor best fits each of the following descriptions?

- polycythemia

hemangioblastoma

68

Which intracranial tumor best fits each of the following descriptions?
- psammoma bodies

meningioma

69

Which intracranial tumor best fits each of the following descriptions?
- perivascular pseudorosettes

ependymoma

70

What brain structure is responsible for extraocular moments during REM sleep?

PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation)

71

What are the endogenous agonists to the different opioid receptors? (3)

1. mu receptor - beta-endorphin
2. delta receptor - enkephalin
3. kappa receptor - dynorphin

72

A patient comes to your office and before you notice any other symptoms, you see that the patient's uvula deviates to the right when she says "Ah." What neurological areas might be damaged in order for this abnormality to be seen?

- left vagus
- left nucleus ambiguus

note: a lesion above nucleus ambiguus won't cause uvula to deviate

73

A patient cannot adduct her left eye on lateral gaze, but convergence is normal. What structure is damaged?

left MLF (INO)

74

A mother brings in her 2yo child who has had multiple viral and fungal infections and is found to be hypocalcemic. Which of the 3 germ layers gives rise to the missing structure in this child?

missing 3rd/4th branchial pouches --> endoderm

remember, CAP
Cleft --> ecto
Arch --> meso
Pouch --> endo

75

Describe the sensory innervation of the tongue (sensation and taste)

ant 2/3 sensation: V3
ant 2/3 taste: CN7

post 1/3 taste+sensation: CN9

76

What structures are derived from the branchial pouches?

1: mastoid air cells, middle ear cavity, eustachian tubes

2. lining of palatine tonsils
3. thymus, inf. parathyroid glands
4. sup parathyroid glands

77

What structures run through the cavernous sinus?

CN 3, 4, 6, v1, v2
internal carotid artery

78

What are the clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta?

- blue sclera
- brittle bones --> multiple fractures
- dental problems
- hearing loss

79

What are the 3 diff. mechanisms cells employ to break down proteins?

1. ubiquitin
2. lysosomes
3. ca2+ dependent enzymes

80

Which medication is an opioid cough suppressant commonly used with the expectorant guaifenesin?

dextromethorphan (cough suppression)
--> DM

81

Which medication is an opioid used in the treatment of diarrhea? (2)

loperamide
diphenoxylate

82

Which medication is a non-addictive weak opioid agonist?

tramadol

83

Which medication is a partial opioid agonist that causes less respiratory depression

butorphanol

84

What neoplasm are patients with TS at risk of developing?

multiple hamartomatous tumors (benign)
- giant cell astrocytoma
- renal angiomyolipoma
- cardiac rhabdomyoma

*note, tumors may become malignant

85

What artery is involved with aneurysm causing the eye to look down and out?

Pcomm aneurysm

86

What artery is involved with aneurysm that may cause b/l loss of lateral visual fields

Acomm (pressing optic chiasm)

87

Which diuretic is used in the treatment of pseudotumor cerebri?

Acetazolamide

88

When does implantation of the zygote take place?

6 days after fertilization

89

In what disorder is there an abnormal breakdown of elastin?

alpha1 anti-trypsin deficiency

90

Which regions of the brain are included in the limbic system? (6)

- amygdala
- hippocampus
- septal nucleus
- mammilary body
- fornix
- cingulate gyrus

91

When performing a LP for anesthesia administration, where is the anesthesia dosed? Where is CSF found?

- b/w L3-4 in epidural space
- CSF found in subarachnoid space

92

Which agents are often used in the treatment of urge incontinence?

On The Damn Toilet
- oxybutynin
- tolterodine
- darifenacin, solifenacin
- trospium

93

Outline the pathway by which stimulation of Gq receptor activates protein kinase C

Gq --> phospholipase C
- converts PIP2 into IP3 and DAG
- DAG --> protein kinase C

94

a 30 yo schizophrenic man now has urinary retention due to his neuroleptic. What do you treat it with?

cholinergic agonist (bethanechol)

95

What is the equation for volume of distribution (Vd)

Vd = amt of drug given (in IV form) / conc of drug in plasma

96

What effect does changing Km and Vmax have on potency and efficacy

increased Vmax --> increased efficacy
decreased Km --> increased potency (inverse relation)

97

What drug class does vecuronium fall under?

non-depolarizing NMJ blocker (paralytic)

-curium, -curonium

98

What drug class does desipramine fall under?

TCA
-ipramine, -triptyline

99

What drug class does terazosin fall under?

alpha1 antagonist
-zosin

100

What is the clinical use for tiotropium?

inhaled anti-cholinergic drug for COPD, asthma

101

What enzyme catalyses the conversion of tyrosine to L-DOPA

tyrosine hydroxylase