DIT Warm-Up Questions Flashcards
(101 cards)
1
Q
What embryonic structure (derived from the hypoblast) serves as a secondary energy source?
A
Endodermal yolk sac
2
Q
What embryonic structure serves as a reservoir of nonspecialized (undifferentiated) stem cells?
A
Endodermal yolk sac
3
Q
What are the 3 germ layers that derive from epiblast?
A
ecto, meso, endo
4
Q
What is the embryologic origin of the tissue just proximal to the pectinate line?
Tissue just distal?
A
endoderm
surface ecto
5
Q
What effect might ACE inhibitor have on developing fetus?
A
renal abnormalities
6
Q
What effect might aminoglycosides have on developing fetus?
A
ototoxicity
7
Q
What effect might DES have on developing fetus?
A
vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
8
Q
What effect might tetracyclines have on developing fetus?
A
discolored teeth
9
Q
What effect might valproic acid have on developing fetus?
A
neural tube defect
10
Q
Which vitamin should not be supplemented in large acts during pregnancy
A
vitamin A (high risk for spontaneous abortions and birth defects - cleft palate, cardiac)
11
Q
Which amino acids are found in nuclear localization signals?
A
PAL: proline, arginine, lysine
12
Q
What is the most common cause of intellectual disability in infants?
A
alcohol (fetal alcohol syndrome)
13
Q
How do Rb protein and p53 regulate the cell cycle?
A
prevents G1 –> S phase
14
Q
During what weeks of fetal development does organogenesis take place?
A
week 3-8
15
Q
What molecules provide the structural framework for DNA and the nuclear envelope?
A
nuclear lamins
16
Q
What is deficient in I-cell disease?
A
phosphotransferase
tags lysosomal enzymes with mannose-6-phosphate so it will go to lysosome and be sequestered
17
Q
What are the stages that an embryo goes through between conception and the development of an inner cell mass?
A
zygote –> morula –> blastocyst
18
Q
What drugs interfere with microtubule functioning?
A
- anti-cancer (vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel)
- colchicine
- benzimidazoles (mebendazole, albendazole)
- griseofulvin
19
Q
Which cell types are constantly regenerating themselves due to an absence of the G0 phase and a short G1 phase? (3)
A
- skin
- hair follicles
- bone marrow
20
Q
What are the characteristic features of a cell undergoing apoptosis? (5)
A
- cellular shrinkage
- pyknosis (nuclear shrinkage)
- membrane blebbing
- karyorrhexis, karyolysis
- apoptotic bodies
21
Q
How do Bax and Bcl-2 affect apoptosis?
A
Bax = pro-apoptotic (activated by DNA damage or apoptotic signals)
Bcl-2 = anti-apoptotic regulator of mitochondrial permeability
22
Q
What protein is involved in transporting endocytose vesicles from the plasma membrane to the endosome?
A
clathrin (via receptor mediated endocytosis)
23
Q
Which metals are known to facilitate the generation of oxygen free radicals? (2)
A
iron and copper
24
Q
Which tumor suppressor proteins prevent the progression of the cell into S phase
A
Rb, p53
25
What developmental structure matches each of the following descriptions?
a. the fetal placental structure that secretes hCG
b. maternal component of the placenta
a. syncytiotrophoblast
| b. decidua basalis
26
How does having a HIGH cholesterol content in the plasma membrane affect the function of the plasma membrane?
- decrease fluidity
| - increase melting temperature
27
A patient presents with an aganglionic colon and other neural crest derivative deficiencies. What other findings would you expect to see?
- PNS abnormalities
- autonomic dysfunction
- conductive hearing loss (b/c ossicles aren't formed properly)
- anterior chamber eye problems
- dental abnormalities
- albinism
- heart defects (truncus arteriosus, transposition)
28
Which amino acids are modified in the Golgi apparatus? (4)
1. Serine
2. Threonine
3. Asparagine
4. Tyrosine
29
Failure of what process results in I-cell disease?
failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate marker to lysosomal enzymes (thus goes to the outside of the cell instead of to lysosome)
30
What organelle becomes hypertrophied in hepatocytes with chronic phenobarbital use?
smooth ER
31
What enzyme mitigates the aging effects on cellular division by maintaining chromosomal length?
telomerase
32
Which types of proteins are responsible for fostering the progression through the cell cycle?
Cyclins + CDKs (cyclin-dependent kinases)
33
Which neurotransmitters have altered levels in anxiety disorder?
Decreased GABA
| Increased NE
34
Which collagen is typically deficient in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?
type 5
35
Which collagen is typically deficient in osteogenesis imperfecta?
type 1
36
What regulates the progression of G1 --> S?
Rb, p53
37
What arachidonic acid product has actions that oppose that of prostacyclins (PGI-2)?
thromboxane (pro-thrombotic)
38
In what disorder is there an abnormal breakdown of elastin?
alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (elastase uninhibited; leads to emphysema)
39
Whats the defect in Marfan syndrome?
defect in fibrillin
40
What organelle and cytochrome are particularly important in intrinsic apoptosis?
mitochondria, releases cytochrome C
41
What prenatal testing is abnormal in a fetus with a neural tube defect?
- increased AFP in maternal serum and amniotic fluid
| - increased Ach in amniotic fluid
42
What effect might aminoglycosides have on a developing fetus?
ototoxicity
43
What molecule targets proteins in the ER for lysosomes?
mannose-6-phosphate
44
What birth defects can result from ACE inhibitors?
renal damage
45
What birth defects can result from folate antagonists?
neural tube defects
46
What birth defects can result from tetracyclines?
discolored teeth
47
What birth defects can result from lithium?
Ebstein's anomaly (displacement of septal and posterior tricuspid leaflets towards the apex)
48
What group of genes is responsible for skeletal development
HOX genes (homeobox)
49
What is required for a molecule to enter into the nucleus through a nuclear pore?
nuclear localization signals (PAL = lysine, arginine, proline)
50
Which amino acids are modified by the Golgi apparatus?
STAT
- serine
- threonine
- asparagine
- tyrosine
51
In which diseases are levels of GABA altered? (2)
decreased in
- anxiety
- huntington
52
Which cytokine is particularly important in maintaining granulomas?
TNF-alpha
53
What is the function of lysosomes?
breakdown cellular waste and debris
54
What information is communicated at the:
a. Nucleus solitarius?
b. Nucleus ambiguus?
c. Dorsal motor nucleus?
a. sensory CN10 (taste), baroreceptor, chemoreceptor, GI distention
b. speech + swallow
c. parasym
55
Which areas of the hypothalamus regulates the autonomic nervous system?
- anterior: para
| - posterior: sym
56
Which hypothalamic nucleus produces ADH to regulate water balance?
supraoptic
57
Which hypothalamic nucleus regulates the release of gonadotropic hormones? (2)
arcuate, preoptic
58
Which CN relays hypoxia measured by the carotid body?
CN9
59
Which CN relays BP from the aortic arch?
CN10
60
Which CN controls salivation from the sublingual and submandibular glands?
CN7
61
Which CN controls salivation from the parotid glands?
CN9
62
Which CN relays BP from the carotid?
CN9
63
Which type of collagen is abnormal in Alport syndrome?
type 4
64
A 43 yo male presents with symptoms of dizziness and tinnitus. CT shows an enlarged internal acoustic meatus. What is the diagnosis?
acoustic schwannoma
65
Which portions of the hypothalamus are inhibited by leptin? which are stimulation by leptin?
a. lateral
| b. ventromedial
66
What substances are utilized by natural killer cells to induce apoptosis in other cells? (2)
- perforin
| - granzyme B
67
Which intracranial tumor best fits each of the following descriptions?
- polycythemia
hemangioblastoma
68
Which intracranial tumor best fits each of the following descriptions?
- psammoma bodies
meningioma
69
Which intracranial tumor best fits each of the following descriptions?
- perivascular pseudorosettes
ependymoma
70
What brain structure is responsible for extraocular moments during REM sleep?
PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation)
71
What are the endogenous agonists to the different opioid receptors? (3)
1. mu receptor - beta-endorphin
2. delta receptor - enkephalin
3. kappa receptor - dynorphin
72
A patient comes to your office and before you notice any other symptoms, you see that the patient's uvula deviates to the right when she says "Ah." What neurological areas might be damaged in order for this abnormality to be seen?
- left vagus
- left nucleus ambiguus
note: a lesion above nucleus ambiguus won't cause uvula to deviate
73
A patient cannot adduct her left eye on lateral gaze, but convergence is normal. What structure is damaged?
left MLF (INO)
74
A mother brings in her 2yo child who has had multiple viral and fungal infections and is found to be hypocalcemic. Which of the 3 germ layers gives rise to the missing structure in this child?
missing 3rd/4th branchial pouches --> endoderm
remember, CAP
Cleft --> ecto
Arch --> meso
Pouch --> endo
75
Describe the sensory innervation of the tongue (sensation and taste)
ant 2/3 sensation: V3
ant 2/3 taste: CN7
post 1/3 taste+sensation: CN9
76
What structures are derived from the branchial pouches?
1: mastoid air cells, middle ear cavity, eustachian tubes
2. lining of palatine tonsils
3. thymus, inf. parathyroid glands
4. sup parathyroid glands
77
What structures run through the cavernous sinus?
CN 3, 4, 6, v1, v2
| internal carotid artery
78
What are the clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta?
- blue sclera
- brittle bones --> multiple fractures
- dental problems
- hearing loss
79
What are the 3 diff. mechanisms cells employ to break down proteins?
1. ubiquitin
2. lysosomes
3. ca2+ dependent enzymes
80
Which medication is an opioid cough suppressant commonly used with the expectorant guaifenesin?
dextromethorphan (cough suppression)
| --> DM
81
Which medication is an opioid used in the treatment of diarrhea? (2)
loperamide
| diphenoxylate
82
Which medication is a non-addictive weak opioid agonist?
tramadol
83
Which medication is a partial opioid agonist that causes less respiratory depression
butorphanol
84
What neoplasm are patients with TS at risk of developing?
multiple hamartomatous tumors (benign)
- giant cell astrocytoma
- renal angiomyolipoma
- cardiac rhabdomyoma
*note, tumors may become malignant
85
What artery is involved with aneurysm causing the eye to look down and out?
Pcomm aneurysm
86
What artery is involved with aneurysm that may cause b/l loss of lateral visual fields
Acomm (pressing optic chiasm)
87
Which diuretic is used in the treatment of pseudotumor cerebri?
Acetazolamide
88
When does implantation of the zygote take place?
6 days after fertilization
89
In what disorder is there an abnormal breakdown of elastin?
alpha1 anti-trypsin deficiency
90
Which regions of the brain are included in the limbic system? (6)
- amygdala
- hippocampus
- septal nucleus
- mammilary body
- fornix
- cingulate gyrus
91
When performing a LP for anesthesia administration, where is the anesthesia dosed? Where is CSF found?
- b/w L3-4 in epidural space
| - CSF found in subarachnoid space
92
Which agents are often used in the treatment of urge incontinence?
On The Damn Toilet
- oxybutynin
- tolterodine
- darifenacin, solifenacin
- trospium
93
Outline the pathway by which stimulation of Gq receptor activates protein kinase C
Gq --> phospholipase C
- converts PIP2 into IP3 and DAG
- DAG --> protein kinase C
94
a 30 yo schizophrenic man now has urinary retention due to his neuroleptic. What do you treat it with?
cholinergic agonist (bethanechol)
95
What is the equation for volume of distribution (Vd)
Vd = amt of drug given (in IV form) / conc of drug in plasma
96
What effect does changing Km and Vmax have on potency and efficacy
increased Vmax --> increased efficacy
| decreased Km --> increased potency (inverse relation)
97
What drug class does vecuronium fall under?
non-depolarizing NMJ blocker (paralytic)
-curium, -curonium
98
What drug class does desipramine fall under?
TCA
| -ipramine, -triptyline
99
What drug class does terazosin fall under?
alpha1 antagonist
| -zosin
100
What is the clinical use for tiotropium?
inhaled anti-cholinergic drug for COPD, asthma
101
What enzyme catalyses the conversion of tyrosine to L-DOPA
tyrosine hydroxylase
