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Pharmacology > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Vomiting (Emesis)

A
  • Forceful ejection of stomach contents through the mouth
  • Protective mechanism to remove harmful substances from body
  • Initiated by activation of the emetic center

Can be generated by impulses caused by-

  • Pain, excitement, fear— cerebral cortex
  • Disturbances inner ear (vestibular apparatus)- CRTZ
  • Drugs-CRTZ
  • Metabolic Conditions- CRTZ
  • Irritation peripheral receptors
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2
Q

GI DRUGS

A
  • Emetics
  • Anti-emetics
  • Anti-ulcer
  • Diarrhea stopping
  • Stool loosening
  • Saliva stopping
  • Motility enhancing
  • Foam stopping
  • Enzyme supplements
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3
Q

Regulation of GI System

A

SNS stimulation:

  • decrease intestinal motility and tone
  • decreases intestinal secretions
  • Inhibits relaxation of sphincters
  • Sympathomimetic or anticholinergic drugs cause similar actions

PSNS stimulation:

  • increase motility and tone
  • increases secretions
  • stimulates relaxation of sphincters
  • Cholinergic or parasympathomimetic drugs cause similar actions
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4
Q

What animals do NOT vomit?

A

Horses, rabbits, and rodents

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5
Q

What can vomiting lead to?

A

It can lead to electrolyte disturbances, hypokalemia, and dehydration

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6
Q

What are emetics used for?

A

Used to induce vomiting
-for animals that have ingested toxins

(must first weigh risk of aspirating stomach contents into lungs versus potential benefits of induced vomiting)

Administer within 2-4 hours

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7
Q

How is an emetic classified?

A

Classified according to site of action

  • Centrally Acting- act on CRTZ
  • Peripherally Acting- act on peripheral receptors
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8
Q

Centrally Acting Emetic Drugs:

A
  • Apomorphine

- Xylazine

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9
Q

Peripherally Acting Emetic Drug:

A

3% Hydrogen Peroxide

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10
Q

What is Apomorphine?

A

A centrally acting emetic drug
(it is a morphine derivative)

USE: induce emesis in dogs
Side Effects: protracted vomiting, depression

Given by IV or IM injection OR tablets placed in conjunctival sac (poorly absorbed from GIT)

-It stimulates dopamine receptors in CRTZ (cats have fewer receptors)

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11
Q

What is Xylazine?

A

It is a centrally acting emetic

-Stimulates Alpha2 receptors in both CRTZ and emetic center in cats

DRUG OF CHOICE FOR INDUCING EMESIS IN CATS

-Within minutes of injecting can be reversed with yohimbine

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12
Q

What is 3% Hydrogen Peroxide used for?

A

-peripherally/locally acting emetic

Can cause direct irritation of oropharynx and gastric lining

Administer within 5-10 minutes
Side Effects: aspiration, severe gastritis, and ulceration in cats

MUST USE 3% NOT 10%

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13
Q

What do Antimetics do?

A

Prevent or decrease vomiting

-phenothiazine derivatives

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14
Q

Phenothiazine Derivative Drugs

A
  • Acepromazine (PromAce)
  • Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
  • Prochlorpromazine (Compazine)
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15
Q

phenothiazine Derivatives

A

Antimetics

Centrally Acting– block dopamine receptors in CRTZ and emetic center

Lowers the seizure threshold so contraindicated in epileptic animals

USES: motion sickness in dogs and cats
Side Effects: hypotension, sedation

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16
Q

Antihistamines

A

Block input from vestibular system to CRTZ

USES: to control vomiting due to motion sickness, vaccine reactions, or inner ear problems

Side Effects: Sedation

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17
Q

Antihistamine Drugs

A

Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

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18
Q

Procainamide derivative

A

Act centrally-block CRTZ

Act peripherally-speed gastric emptying, increase sphincter tone, increase force of contractions

USES: antimetic especially for chemotherapy, kidney failure, and viral gastroenteritis

Side Effects: behavioral/CNS disorders

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19
Q

Procainamide derivative Drug

A

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

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20
Q

NK-1 receptor antagonist

A

USES: prevention and treatment of acute vomiting; prevention vomiting due to motion sickness

Side Effects: pain and swelling at injection site, diarrhea, anorexia

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21
Q

NK-1 receptor antagonist Drug:

A

Maropitant (Cerenia) – prevention and treatment of acute vomiting

Injectable solution: dogs/cats
Oral Tablets: Dogs

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22
Q

What do Antiulcer Drugs do?

A

– they prevent formation of ulcers.

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23
Q

What are Ulcers?

A

erosions of mucosa and are named according to site: gastric ulcer, duodenal ucler, esophageal ulcer etc.

Signs: anorexia, melena, hematemesis, abdominal pain

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24
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonists (antiulcer)

A

USES: treats or prevents ulcers by reducing acid due to blocking H2 receptors of parietal cells in stomach by histamine.
Side Effects: diarrhea, inhibit liver enzymes and alter rate metabolism

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25
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonist (antiulcer) Drugs:

A
  • Cimetidine (Tagamet)
  • Ranitidine (Zantac)
  • Famotidine (Pepcid)
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26
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitors (antiulcer) Drugs

A

USES: treat gastric, esophageal and duodenal ulcers
Side Effects: constipation

  • Omeprazole (Prilosec)
  • Lansoprazole (Prevacid)
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27
Q

Antacid Drugs

A

USES: Promotes ulcer healing by neutralizing HC1; to treat rumen acidosis

Side Effects: monogastrics: constipation(calcium and aluminum) and diarrhea (magnesium)

  • Calcium carbonate (Tums)
  • Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of magnesia)
  • Aluminum hydroxide (Amphojel)
  • Aluminum/magnesium hydroxide (Maalox)
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28
Q

Gastromucosal Protectants

A

-Sucralfate (Carafate)

only used in vet med
-give 30 minutes prior to H2 receptor antagonists because it works best in an acid environment

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29
Q

AntiDiarrheals

A

Diarrhea: loose or frequent stools due to failure to adequately absorb fluids from intestinal contents
-can lead to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, nutrient loss

-Bland Diet

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30
Q

Narcotic analglesics

A

Control diarrhea by decreasing intestinal secretions and increasing segmental contractions

-drug of choice for diarrhea in dogs

Dosage Forms:

  • Diphenoxylate (Lomotil)
  • Loperamide (Imodium)
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31
Q

Anticholinergics

A

USES: treats tenesmus associated with colitis and vomiting related to colonic irritation; decreases intestinal motility and secretion.

Side Effects: dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, urine retention, constipation

Dosage forms:

  • Atropine
  • Aminopentamide (Centrine)
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32
Q

Protectants/ Adsorbents

A

Protectants: coat the mucosal surface with a protective layer
Adsorbents: make other substances adhere to its outer surface; bind bacteria/digestive enzymes/toxins to protect intestinal mucosa

USES: control diarrhea and act as adsorbant(treat toxins)
Side Effects: constipation, dark black stools

(subicylate is toxic to cats)

Dosage Forms:

  • Bismuth subsalicylate (pepto bismol)
  • Kaolin and pectin
  • Activated Charcoal (Toxiban)
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33
Q

Laxatives

A

Constipation: a conditon where passage of feces is slow or nonexistent
Laxative: loosens bowel content and encourages evaluation of stool

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34
Q

Hypersmolar/ osmotic laxatives

A

-Saline products

USES: relieve constipation

DO NOT USE PHOSPHATE ENEMA IN CATS

Dosage Forms:

  • Lactulose
  • Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of magnesia)
  • Sodium Phosphate (Fleet Enema)
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35
Q

Stool Softeners

A

Reduce Stool surface tension and reduce water absorption
USES: hard, dry feces or impactions in horses
Dosage Forms:
-Docusate Sodium(DSS)
-Docusate potassium (Pet-enema)
-petroleum products (laxatone)

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36
Q

Bulk-Forming Laxatives

A

Plant materials that absorb water into the intestines

Dosage Forms:

  • Pysllium(metamucil)
  • Bran
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37
Q

Prokinectics or stimulates

A

enhance motility of parts GIT to enhance movement

Dosage Forms:

  • metaclopramine (Reglan)
  • Cisapride
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38
Q

Enzyme Supplements

A

USE: PEI ( pancreatic exocrine insufficiency) disease where pancreas does not produce enzymes

Dosage Form:
-Pancrelipase (Viokase-V powder, Pancrezyme)

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39
Q

Antifoaming Agents

A

Dosage Form:
-Bloat Guard; Therabloat

USES: in ruminants for frothy bloat

Administered by stomach tube

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40
Q

Appetite Stimulants

A

USES: primarily in cats to prevent fatty liver syndrome

Dosage Forms:

  • diazepam
  • cyproheptadine
  • Mirtazapine
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41
Q

Probiotics/prebiotics

A

Dosage Form: FortiFlora

USES: diarrhea, IBD, food allergy, long term antibiotic administration

Disruption of normal intestinal flora

-beneficial bacteria

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42
Q

Preload:

A

amount of blood that fills the ventricle during diastole

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43
Q

Afterload:

A

arterial resistance that ventricle must pump against

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44
Q

Chronotropic:

A

affecting heart rate

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45
Q

Inotropic:

A

affecting the force of contraction

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46
Q

Why are Cephalosporins safe?

A

They have a high therapeutic index

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47
Q

What is use to treat lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline

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48
Q

What does Ivermectin kill?

A

It kills heartworm, not fleas

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49
Q

What can too much estrogen cause?

A

urinary incontinence

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50
Q

Dermatophytosis is caused by what?

A

microsporum canis

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51
Q

What drug can be absorbed through the skin

A

DMSO

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52
Q

Can you use Tiioptic-S in dogs with corneal ulcers?

A

no

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53
Q

What miotic drug do you use with glaucoma and intraocular pressue?

A

Pilocarpine

54
Q

Appetite stimulant in cats:

A

benzodiazepan

55
Q

What drug treats tapeworms?

A

praziquantal

56
Q

Positive introtropes?

A

increases the force of myocardial contractions

57
Q

What class of antiarrythmia drug blocks the flow of sodium?

A

Class 1B (example: lidocaine)

58
Q

What do venodilators do?

A

they reduce preload

59
Q

What is a side effect of vasodilators?

A

hypotension

60
Q

What drug is used to treat nausea from chemotherapy?

A

Reglan (procainamide derivative)

61
Q

What animal can use a fleet enema?

A

Safe for dogs

Toxic for cats

62
Q

What is the drug of choice to induce emesis in cats?

A

Xylazine

63
Q

Intermediate acting Insulin:

A

Humulin N

64
Q

Long acting insulin

A

glorgine

65
Q

What drug produces uterine contractions

A

oxytocin

66
Q

What drug do you use for hypothyroidism?

A

Levothyroxine

67
Q

What drug do you use for hyperadrenocorticim (Cushings)

A

vetoryl

68
Q

What types of drugs can be ototoxic and nephrotoxic?

A

aminoglycosides

69
Q

What drug has the side effect of pyometra and bone marrow suppression?

A

DES

70
Q

Beta blocker drug=

A

propranolol

71
Q

What causes lysis of the corpus lutem?

A

Prostaglandin F2 Alpha

72
Q

Can you use hydrogen peroxide in cats?

A

NO

73
Q

what NK-1 antagonist can be used as an anti-emetic SQ injection?

A

cerenia

74
Q

can you give cats pepto bismol?

A

no–toxic

75
Q

List the calcium channel blockers:

A

Amlodipine, diltiazem, verapamil

76
Q

what does an ACE inhibitor do

A

reduces preload and afterload

77
Q

examples of an ACE inhibitor

A

Enalapril

78
Q

Antibiotic group that causes cartilage defects:

A

fluoroquinolones (floxane drugs)

79
Q

what drug stains teeth in young animals?

A

tetracylines (antibiotic group)

80
Q

emetic of choice for dogs

A

apomorphine

81
Q

occult

A

no microfilaria

82
Q

The term for drug that affects the heart rate

A

chronotropic drug

83
Q

Name of beta blocker drugs

A

Atenolol, propranolol, Timolol

84
Q

Name a local anesthetic that also can be used for arrythmias

A

Lidocaine

85
Q

List the ACE inhibitors

A

Enalapril, Benazepril, Captopril

86
Q

emetic of choice in cats:

A

xylazine

87
Q

emetics of choice in dogs:

A

apomorphine

88
Q

an NK-1 receptor used an an anti-emetic

A

cerenia (Maropitant)

89
Q

a drug that binds to an ulcer and protects the area. It acts as a bandaid in the stomach, Its main side effect is constipation

A

Sucralfate (Carafate)

90
Q

Name the H2 receptor antagonists that we discussed in lecture

A

Cimetidine (tagamet)
Ranitidine (zantac)
Famotidine (pepcid)

91
Q

a narcotic analgesic that is not controlled that is a treatment for diarrhea

A

Loperamide (imodium)

92
Q

an absorbent that should never be given to cats because it is converted to salicylate in the liver

A

Bismuth subsalicylate (pepto bismol)

93
Q

a prokinetic that has been withdrawn from the human market that can be compounded to treat constipation in animals

A

Cisapride

94
Q

appetite stimulant in cats

A

Diazepam(C-IV)
Cyproheptadine
Mirtazapine

95
Q

Two proton pump inhibitors

A

Omeprazole (prilosec)

Lansoprazole (prevacid)

96
Q

treatment of choice for hypothyroidism

A

levothyroxine (soloxine)

97
Q

treatment of choice for hyperthyroidism

A

Methimazole (tapazole)

98
Q

treatment of choice for cushings disease and the diseases medical name

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

Vetoryl (Trilostane) or Lysodren(Mitotane)

99
Q

treatment of choice for addisons disease and the diseases medical name

A

Hypoadrenocorticism

Percorten V (DOCP)
Florinef
100
Q

give an example of a short acting insulin, intermediate acting, and long acting insuln

A

short- regular
intermediate- NPH, Humulin-N
long- Lente, Ultralente, Glargine (Cats)

101
Q

name a mydriatic and what this drug class does to the pupil

A

atropine – it dilates the pupil

102
Q

local anesthetic used during procedures of examinations of the eye

A

proparacaine hydrochloride (Ophthaine)

103
Q

once a month topical that you use to treat ear mites

A

Selamectin (revolution)

Advantage multi (Imidacloprid and Moxidectin)

104
Q

the type of drug that you do not want to use with a corneal ulcer

A

steroid

105
Q

name the ointment that is the treatment of choice for KCS

A

cyclosporine (optimmune)

106
Q

the term for a drug that affects the force of contraction

A

inotrope

107
Q

the arterial resistance the ventricle must pump against

A

afterload

108
Q

an example of a cardiac glycoside (derived from a plant)

A

Digitalis (Digoxin)

109
Q

name of a venodilator that decreases preload and you need to wear gloves to apply if in ointment form

A

Nitroglycerine

110
Q

name of an arteriole dilator that reduces afterload

A

hydralazine

111
Q

the degree of susceptibility of an organism to a specific concentration of a particular drug

A

MIC -minimum inhibitory concentration

112
Q

an agent that kills bacteria is called ____

A

bactericidal

113
Q

group of antibiotics that are ototoxic and nephrotoxic

A

aminoglycosides

114
Q

group of antibiotics that cause staining of the teeth in young animals and are the drug of choice for lyme disease

A

tetracyclines

115
Q

group of antibiotics that may interfere with cartilage growth in young animals and cause arthropathy

A

fluoroquinolones

116
Q

heartworm adulticide treatment

A

melarsomine dihydrochloride (IMMITCIDE)

117
Q

treatment for demodicosis causes by Demodex canis

A

Amitraz (Mitabam, Preventic)

118
Q

side effects of organiphosphates

A

SLUDGE

119
Q

two drugs that can be used to treat giardia

A

Fenbendazole(Panacur)

Metronidazole (flagyl)

120
Q

examples of avermectins that treat heartworm disease

A
  • ivermectin(hearguard plus, iverheart plus, ivomec)
  • Moxidectin(Proheart, advantage multi)
  • Selamectin (revolution)
121
Q

hormone that can be used to treat urinary incontinence in females and its major side effect

A

Diethylsibesterol (DES) tablets

SE: pyometra, bone marrow suppression

122
Q

drug that stimulate lysis of the corpus luteum

A

Prostaglandin F2 alpha (lutalyse)

123
Q

drug that stimulates uterine contractions

A

oxytocin

124
Q

list common facts about insulin

A
  • given SQ if disease is uncomplicated
  • u-100 insulin must use u-100 syringe
  • roll the vial (not shake)
  • always refrigerate but fine at room temp
  • do not freeze or expose to high temps
125
Q

antifungals that can treat Dermatophytosis (ringworm)

A

ketoconazole
miconazole
Griseofulvin
Itraconazole

126
Q

term for an animal which harbors a parasite but has no clinical signs

A

parasitiasis

127
Q

the medical term for a tapeworm and what drugs will treat them

A

-cestodes

  • Praziquantel (droncit)
  • cestex
128
Q

types of parasites that are considered helminths

A
  • nematodes(roundworms, hookworms, microfilaria)
  • trematodes
  • cestodesw
129
Q

list some common ant-nematodal drugs

A
  • ivermectin, moxidectin, selamectin, Milbemycin
  • Piperazine(OTC)
  • Pyrantel(Nemex, Strongid-T)
  • Albendazole(Valbazen)
  • Fendbendazole(Panacur)
130
Q

Patency infections

A

when a parasite produces offspring

131
Q

occult infections

A

infection involving only adults

Pharmacology (16 decks)

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