GI 1 Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

what happens as you move lower and lower down the gastrointestinal tract

A

you get less and less oxygen hence you have anaerobes in the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

at what age does the GI of an infant resemble that of an adults

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when do you see microbes in the stomach

A

when person has gastritis/duodenal ulcers because they take antacids which neutralizes the acid in the stomach –> colonization of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

with growth of teeth, what microbes do you start to see

A

s. sanguis and s. mutans (seen on dental plaques)

s. salivarius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

where do you see the largest amount of bacteria

A

large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

some anaerobes you will find in the large intestine

A

Bacteroides, Bifidobacterium, Eubacterium, Peptostreptococcus & Clostridium Plus Enterobacteriacea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what organisms are involved in dental caries

A

lactobacillus spp and strep spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how does lactobacillus work

A

lactobacillus in plaque metabolizes sugars to form lactic acid which destroys the enamel of teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

organisms involved in periodontal disease

A

anaerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how do people tend to get esophagitis

A

usually the non infectious route due to gastroesophageal reflux disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

though infectious route of getting esophagitis is uncommon, what types of people get it this route

A

chemo, transplant, HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the etiological agents in infectious esophagitis

A
  • Candida albicans, CMV, HSV
  • Rare: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium avium complex, Cryptococcus neoformans, Histoplasma capsulatum, Actinomyces, Cryptosporidium, Pneumocystis jirovecii, VZV, EBV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

for esophagitis, how do you differentiate between

A

candida: predominant pathogen
CMV - “shallow” ulcers
HSV - volcano ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do you diagnose esophagitis

A

endoscopy

brushing and biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the upper GI infections

A

oral disease (dental caries and periodontal disease) and esophagitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

at risk population for lower GI infections

A

children under 5 years old
elderly
immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is FDA ranking of food hazards

A
  1. Microbial contamination
  2. Naturally occurring toxicants
  3. Environmental contaminants (e.g., metals)
  4. Nutritional problems (i.e., malnutrition, undernutrition)
  5. Pesticide residues
  6. Food additives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

biggest cause of gastroenteritis

A

norwalk virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

these 3 microbes are also major causes of gastroenteritis and are routinely checked for in stool

A

campylobacter
salmonella
shigella

20
Q

also a major cause of gastroenteritis, this microbe is checked for if bloody stool

21
Q

two big known causes of food borne illness outbreaks in US from 2006-2010

A

norovirus

bacteria

22
Q

characteristic of foods that most likely cause food poisoning

A

highly nutritious and are neutral in pH

23
Q

food borne diseases that have extremely long incubation period

A

hep A and listeria monocytogenes (both over 2 weeks)

24
Q

food borne diseases that have short incubation period

A

staph aureus, vibrio parahaemolyticus, clostridium perfringens (all within a day)

25
how do you differentiate between food borne and food poisoning
the incubation period with food poisoning taking shorter before onset of symptoms
26
microbes involved in food poisoning
toxins from c. botulinum, s. aureus, b, cereus | fungal and marine toxins
27
difference between food borne and food poisoning
in food borne, you eat the food containing the organism that will lead to the symptoms while in food poisoning you actually ingest the toxin
28
difference between colitis and enterocolitis
colitis is inflammation of LI | enterocolitis is inflammation of SI and LI
29
define dysentery
inflammation of GI tract with blood and pus in feces
30
difference between enteritis and gastroenteritis
enteritis is inflammation of the intestinal mucosa | gastroenteritis is inflammation of stomach and intestinal linings
31
differentiate between the three types of diarrhea
acute is less than 2 weeks persistent is between 2-4 weeks chronic is greater than 4 weeks
32
if one has gastroenteritis with vomiting as the first symptoms, what are the most likely causative agents in infants and older children.adults
infants - rotavirus older children/adults - norwalk like virus food poisoning due to performed toxins
33
bacterial, fungal, marine/algae involved in food poisoning
bacteria - b cereus, c botulinum, s. aureus fungi - wild mushrooms (amanita, clitocybe, and psilocybes) and aflatoxin (aspergillus) marine/algae - ciguatera, scombroid, shellfish
34
symptom of food poisoning
-usually rapid | vomiting, diarrhea, no fever, no fecal leukocytes
35
what is the exception to rapid onset of food poisoning
c. botulinum which can take anywhere from 6hrs - 8 days
36
which food poisoning toxin affects just the CNS
C. botulinum
37
which food poisoning toxin affects CNS and intestine
s. aureus, b. cereus, mushroom and marine
38
describe the bacteria that is both coagulase and catalase positive
staph aureus is a gram positive bacteria that is arranged in singles, pairs, and clusters
39
type of toxin does staph aureus release
ST (heat stable) enterotoxin/exotoxin
40
enterotoxin and infective does of staph aureus
A, B, C1, C2, C3, D, E, H | 10^5-10^8
41
what is the mode of action for staph aureus
act on gut receptors stimulate vomiting (vagus and sympathetic nerves) no adenylate cyclase
42
symptoms of staph aureus food poisoning
watery diarrhea, headaches, muscular cramping/prostration, nausea, abdominal cramp
43
most common solution for staph aureus
self limiting so will resolve completely in 24-48hrs
44
incriminated foods in staph aureus
cooked meat (fish, poultry), bakery foods (cream-filled), dairy produce, fruit, vegetables & salads
45
when is staph aureus food poisoning commonly seen
in summer | then in nov/dec -- holiday period
46
what is used for diagnosis of staph aureus
baird parker and coagulase test
47
habitat for staph aureus
human and animal pathogens so on skin