HIV 2 Flashcards

(31 cards)

1
Q

major determinant of HIV pathogenesis

A

-virus tropism for CD4 expressing T cells and macrophage lineage cells which are multipotent stem and progenitor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how does one get HIV induced immunosuppression (AIDS)

A

reduction in number of CD4 T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what happens immediately after infection with HIV

A

long period of silent but dynamic virus replication and diversification with high host cell turnover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does the HIV virus kill or decimate

A

helper and delayed type hypersensitivity functions of the immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how does HIV enter the body

A

in infected macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

type of infection one has if the virus is in macs vs. T cells

A

in macs - persistent infection

T cell - lytic and latent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what occurs if HIV is present in the macrophages

A
  • mac is a reservoir for the virus
  • dysfunction
  • virus release
  • cytokine release and dysregulation of immune function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is one susceptible to once HIV proceeds to AIDS

A
  • severe systemic opportunistic infections
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • lymphoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HIV virus enters the body in infected macrophages. How then do the T cells become infected?

A
  • dendritic cells accumulate the virus on their surface without internalizing them
  • they then carry the virus to lymph nodes for effective infection of the T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

mechanism of immune evasion of HIV

A
  • antigenic variation
  • carb masking of target epitopes
  • conformational changes by viral envelopes to mask neutralization targets
  • downregulation of HLA
  • viral latency in resting T cells and antigen presenting cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the cytopathic effects of HIV

A

syncytial formation due to the fusion of infected microglia and macrophages in the brain –> HIV encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what cannot be detected in the window of acute infection (first year after infection)

A

antibody of HIV – hence have to use another means of testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the best test to use to detect HIV – detecting the virus as soon as 10 days post infection? why is it so effective?

A

RNA test

tests for the virus directly (viral load)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

type of test is used to detect HIV as soon as 3 weeks post infection? type of sample needed?

A

antibody and antigen (part of virus itself)

blood sample only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what STD can be detected with NAAT

A

c. trichomatis and n. gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the goal of HIV treatment?

A

to get HIV RNA levels below assay detection limitis

17
Q

it is important to monitor therapy. what happens if one is taken off antiretroviral therapy (ART) after many years of treatment?

A

viral replication starts back up again

18
Q

what does the HIV viral load tell you

A

how rapidly the progression of the disease is occurring

19
Q

how do you monitor people on antiretroviral therapy (ART)

A

viral load monitoring

20
Q

what occurs in the window period (first year)

A
  • negative HIV test
  • viral load high
  • high risk of transmission
21
Q

what is the goal in opportunistic infection

A

to prevent them because they lead to higher chance of death

22
Q

when do you know that HIV has proceeded to AIDS

A
  • very low T cell count
  • presence of one or more specific infections
  • presence of certain cancer
23
Q

what are the bacterial infection associated with AIDS

A

salmonellosis, tuberculosis, bacterial pneumonia, bartonella henselae, mycobacteria avium complex (MAC)

ST BBM

24
Q

common cause of pneumonia in AIDS patients

A

strep pneumonia

25
other causes of pneumonia in AIDS patients
h. influenza, staph aureus, pseudomonas
26
virulence factors of strep pneumonia
- colonize oropharynx (surface protein adhesions) - spread into normally sterile tissues (pneumolysin and IgA protease) - stimulate local inflammatory response - evade phagocytic killing (polysaccharide capsule)
27
when does an AIDs patient get mycobacterium avium complex
in advanced HIV infection and CD4 count is less than 50
28
body's response to mycobacterium avium complex (mycobacterium avium and mycobacterium intracellulare)
- immunocompetent - asymptomatic, solitary nodules, chronic pulmonary localized disease - immunocompromised like AIDS patient - disseminated
29
symptom of mycobacterium avium complex (mycobacterium avium and mycobacterium intracellulare)
night sweats, weight loss, abdominal pain, fatigue, diarrhea, anemia
30
what is the leading cause of death in people with AIDS
tuberculosis (1/3 of people with HIV have tuberculosis as well)
31
million of people infected with both HIV and TB -- this is referred to as?
twin epidemics