H 2018 Flashcards

(170 cards)

1
Q

V. (1) A county planner (FAICP) pleads nolo contendere to a charge of perjury with the
judge then withholding adjudication, resulting in:
I. Revocation of their membership
II. No ethics issue, as a plea of nolo contendere is not addressed by the code and
adjudication was withheld by the judge in the case
III. A duty to immediately notify the Ethics Officer by both receipted Certified and Regular
First Class Mail of being convicted of a “serious crime”
IV. No issue, as the Ethics code applies only to AICP planners
(A) II
(B) IV
(C) I, III
(D) III

A

The correct answer is “C”
A FAICP member is a Fellow of the American Institute of Certified Planners and subject to the
Code of Ethics. Rule of Conduct #26 requires that “We shall not fail to immediately notify the
Ethics Officer by both receipted Certified and Regular First Class Mail if we are convicted of a
“serious crime” as defined in Section E of the Code; nor immediately following such conviction
shall we represent ourselves as Certified Planners or Members of AICP until our membership is
reinstated by the AICP Ethics Committee pursuant to the procedures in Section E of the Code.”
Part E.3. of the Ethics Code directs that perjury (i.e. false swearing under oath) is considered to
be a serious crime and that “The membership of a Certified Planner shall be revoked if the
Planner has been convicted of a “serious crime”. Membership shall be revoked whether the
conviction resulted from a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, from a verdict after trial, or
otherwise. Membership shall be revoked even if the Planner is appealing a conviction, but it will
be reinstated if the conviction is overturned upon appeal.” It doesn’t matter that adjudication was
withheld by the judge; the planner still entered a plea of nolo contendere covered by the code.
https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
https://www.planning.org/ethics/report/

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2
Q

I. (2) Place the following generations in order from youngest to oldest:
I. Generation X
II. Millennials
III. Baby Boomers
IV. Silent Generation
(A) I, IV, II, III
(B) IV, III, I, II
(C) II, III, I, IV
(D) II, I, III, IV

A

The correct answer is “D”
Millennials, also known as the Millennial Generation, Echo/Shadow Boomers (i.e.
because they are the children of Baby Boomers), or Generation Y, is the demographic cohort
following Generation X. Commentators use birth dates ranging from the early 1980s to the early
2000s.
Generation X, commonly abbreviated to Gen X, is the generation born after the Western
Post–World War II baby boom. Demographers, historians and commentators use birth dates
ranging from the early 1960s to the early 1980s.
The Baby Boomers are the generation that was born following World War II, generally
from 1946 up to 1964, a time that was marked by an increase in birth rates. In the 1960s, as the
relatively large numbers of young people became teenagers and young adults, they, and those
around them, created a very specific rhetoric around their cohort, and the change they were
bringing about.
The Silent Generation, also known as the Lucky Few, were born from approximately
1925 until 1942. It includes some who fought in World War II, most of those who fought the
Korean War and many during the Vietnam War.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generation#Western_world

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3
Q

III. (3) Zombie subdivisions:
I. Pose threats to safety and health
II. Commit communities to significant, long-term service costs
III. Were predominately developed illegally
IV. Are prime targets for new development planning
(A) I, III
(B) I, II, IV
(C) II, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

A

The correct answer is “B”
Zombie subdivisions are unfinished housing developments with at least some infrastructure in
place that were left unfinished after the housing bubble burst. Some are empty, but others are
partially inhabited, requiring the delivery of public services to remote neighborhoods that
generate very little tax revenue. Such lots can also pose health and safety issues from wildfires,
flooding, erosion, water contamination, and poor emergency access. They are prime candidates
for additional planning efforts for communities seeking to regulate unfinished subdivisions; take
advantage of the already built, under-utilized, infrastructure; or to support rezoning lands to limit
the number of potential residential development entitlements.
Zoning Practice (May 2014), Zombie Slaying

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4
Q

I. (4) Digital billboards have become all the rage in your municipality. As Planning
Director you ask your senior staff to revise your existing sign ordinances to address:
I. Message control
II. Amortization
III. Illumination
IV. No net increase policies
(A) I, II
(B) III, IV
(C) II, III, IV
(D) I, II, III, IV

A

The correct answer is (B)
Ordinances addressing message control will likely run into significant first amendment
challenges, and the billboard industry has been highly successful at restricting the use of
amortization through both state and federal legislation (e.g. the federal Highway Beautification
Act, which was modified many years ago under industry pressure to prohibit amortization and
requires cash compensation for billboard removal).
SOURCES: APA’s Smart Sign Codes; “Zoning Practice” (April 2008); and APA’s PAS
QuickNotes #18: Regulating On-Premise Signage (2009)
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/billboards.htm

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5
Q

III. (5) Riparian rights:
I. Right of access for swimming, boating and fishing
II. Principal western water right law
III. Right to make reasonable use of water as it flows through or over one’s property
IV. First in time, first in right
(A) I, III
(B) II, III
(C) I, II, IV
(D) I, II, III

A

The correct answer is “A”
RIPARIAN water rights (or simply riparian rights) is a system for allocating water among those
who possess land along its path. Under the riparian principle, all landowners whose properties
adjoin a body of water have the right to make reasonable use of it as it flows through, under, or
over their properties. These rights cannot be sold or transferred other than with the adjoining
land and only in reasonable quantities associated with that land. Riparian rights include such
things as the right to access for swimming, boating and fishing; the right to wharf out to a point
of navigability; the right to erect structures such as docks, piers, and boat lifts; the right to use
the water for domestic purposes; the right to accretions caused by water level fluctuations; the
right to exclusive use if the waterbody is non-navigable. Riparian rights also depend upon
“reasonable use” as it relates to other riparian owners to ensure that the rights of one riparian
owner are weighed fairly and equitably with the rights of adjacent riparian owners.
PRIOR APPROPRIATION water rights is the legal doctrine that the first person to take a
quantity of water from a water source for “beneficial use”—agricultural, industrial or household
—has the right to continue to use that quantity of water for that purpose (i.e. “First in time, First
in Right”). Subsequent users can take the remaining water for their own beneficial use provided
that they do not impinge on the rights of previous users. This doctrine developed in the western
states of the United States. These water rights are different from riparian water rights, which are
applied in the rest of the United States.
ZONING PRACTICE (August 2009); Water Rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riparian_water_rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prior-appropriation_water_rights

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6
Q

I. (6) Real property includes:
I. Mineral Rights
II. Light fixtures
III. Easement
IV. Vegetation
(A) II
(B) I, II
(C) I, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

A

Real property consists of all land, structures, firmly attached and integrated equipment (such as
light fixtures or a well pump), anything growing on the land, and all “interests” in the property
which may be the right to future ownership (remainder), right to occupy for a period of time
(tenancy or life estate) the right to drill for oil, the right to get the property back (a reversion) if it
is no longer used for its current purpose (such as use for a hospital, school or city hall), use of
airspace (condominium) or an easement across another’s property. Real property should be
thought of as a group of rights like a bundle of sticks which can be divided. It is distinguished
from the other type of property, “personal property”, which is made up of movable items.
http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/real+property
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_property#USA
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personal_property

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7
Q

I. (7) The dissimilarity index:
(A) Measures the genetic diversity between two species used to determine whether two
species constitute one or two discrete species.
(B) Is a census-related term that measures the relative separation or integration of groups
across all neighborhoods of a city or metropolitan area
(C) Is a statistical term that measures the degree of separation between two data sets
(D) Is the inverse of the correlation coefficient

A

The correct answer is “B”
The index of dissimilarity is a demographic measure of the evenness with which two groups are
distributed across component geographic areas that make up a larger area. The index score
can also be interpreted as the percentage of one of the two groups included in the calculation
that would have to move to different geographic areas in order to produce a distribution that
matches that of the larger area.
For example, the dissimilarity index measures the relative separation or integration of groups
across the census tracts of all neighborhoods of a city or metropolitan area. A high value
indicates that the two groups tend to live in different tracts. D ranges from 0 to 100. A value of
60 (or above) is considered very high. It means that 60% (or more) of the members of one
group would need to move to a different tract in order for the two groups to be equally
distributed. Values of 40 or 50 are usually considered a moderate level of segregation, and
values of 30 or below are considered to be fairly low.
http://www.censusscope.org/us/s40/p75000/chart_dissimilarity.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Index_of_dissimilarity
http://www.s4.brown.edu/us2010/segregation2010/Default.aspx

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8
Q

II. (8) This type of survey is inexpensive, but does not work well with the disabled or the
poorly educated:
(A) Telephone survey
(B) Charrette
(C) Mailed-in survey
(D) In-person survey

A

The correct answer is “C”
The costs for mail surveys tend to be lower than those for telephone surveys, and mail surveys
are a good strategy for obtaining feedback from people who are dissatisfied with a service or
have strong concerns. However, return rate are low and mail surveys face the possibility of bias
due to these low response rates, especially for some of the following groups:
1. Very young children
2. People with illnesses or disabilities that preclude reading or responding in writing
3. People who do not speak or understand the language(s) in which the questions are
written, who cannot write in that language, or who are marginally literate or illiterate
4. Homeless adolescents and adult
5. People in institutional settings, such as hospitals or jails
http://marketstreetresearch.com/research-methods/mail-surveys/

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9
Q

I. (9) A 5th amendment taking may occur when:
I. Government seizes private property for a new highway
II. Private development seizes private property for a private purpose
III. When a regulation goes so far as to deny all economic use of a property
IV. The taking is permanent, but not temporary
(A) I, II, IV
(B) I, III
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

A

The correct answer is “B”
The Fifth Amendment provides that private property shall not be taken without just
compensation. While the Fifth Amendment by itself only applies to actions by the federal
government, the Fourteenth Amendment extends the Takings Clause to actions by state and
local government as well. When the government wishes to acquire property, for example, to
build a new courthouse, it first attempts to buy the property on the open market. However, if the
owner refuses to sell, the government can go to court and exercise the power of eminent
domain, by having the court condemn the property in favor of the government. The Takings
Clause imposes two requirements on government in order to exercise this power. First, the
property to be acquired must be “for public use,” and second, the government must pay “just
compensation” to the owner of the property that is taken, even in some cases where the taking
may be temporary in duration.
The difficult cases are generally those where government regulations, enacted to secure some
sort of public benefit, fall disproportionately on some property owners and cause significant
dimunition of property value. The Court has had a difficult time articulating a test to determine
when a regulation becomes a taking. It has said there is “no set formula” and that courts “must
look to the particular circumstances of the case.” The Court has identified some relevant factors
to consider: the economic impact of the regulation, the degree to which the regulation interferes
with investor-backed expectations, and the character of the government action. Until 1922, the
Supreme Court did not consider such diminution of the value of a particular person’s property
incidental to a general regulation as raising an issue under the Takings Clause. In that year,
however, in a celebrated opinion by Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes, the Court held that if a
regulation went “too far,” it could constitute a taking that would require just compensation by the
government. Since that time the question has remained, how far is too far.
http://law2.umkc.edu/faculty/projects/ftrials/conlaw/takings.htm
http://www.progressivereform.org/persptakings.cfm

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10
Q

II. (10) The Mayor directs you, the Planning Director, to undertake a community visioning
exercise. To ensure this effort is successful, you focus on the following important
aspects, except:
(A) Ensuring that key community institutions and opinion leaders are involved with the
process.
(B) Engaging elected officials and city managers to gain their support of the effort
(C) Empowering the community to design and manage the visioning effort without
assistance.
(D) Planning to follow-through and implement the resulting vision and action plan

A

The correct answer is “C”
One of the key reasons community visioning may fail is that the process may be poorly
designed or managed or inadequately resourced. Planning staff or outside expert assistance is
typically required to assist in ensuring the effort is successful. Other typical reasons why
community visioning may be un-successful include:
* The community is too polarized to engage in a civilized dialogue
* Key community institutions or opinion leaders are not involved in the process
* Elected officials or city managers are unsupportive of the process
* There is no follow-through in implementing the vision and action plan
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Community Visioning” pp. 55

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11
Q

I. (11) A landlocked property owner can obtain an easement in which of the following
ways?
(A) Expressed grant.
(B) Necessity.
(C) Prescription.
(D) Inverse condemnation

A

The correct answer is B)
The common law doctrine of easement by necessity has long been used to allow a landlocked
landowner to access a public highway over another’s private land when no other relief is
available.

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12
Q

II. (12) Impact fees
I. Are usually collected when building permits are issued
II. Are subject to the dual rational nexus standard
III. Cover all infrastructure and service costs
IV. Funds can be used anywhere within the city
(A) II, IV
(B) II
(C) I, II
(D) I, III, IV

A

The correct answer is “C”
An impact fee is a fee that is imposed by a local government on a new or proposed
development project to pay for all or, more typically, a portion of the costs of providing specific
public services to the new development. Most often covered are impacts to roads, sewer, and
public water utilities; sometimes impacts on schools, libraries, parks and fire protection are also
covered. Impacts fees should not be used to address existing deficiencies. Impact fees are
either authorized by state enabling acts or by local government home rule. The courts have
derived two major tests for impact fees—the “rational nexus” test (i.e. impact connected to the
new development) and the “rough proportionality” test (i.e. cost roughly equal to impact caused),
more commonly known together as the Dual Rational Nexus test or standard.
APA Quick Notes #35 – Development impact Fees
https://www.planning.org/media/document/9007632/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Impact_fee

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13
Q

II. (13) The Visioning process allows for: early citizen involvement, impartial leadership,
all inclusive citizen participation, and:
I. Heavy media involvement
II. A long-range planning mentality
III. The saving of time and money
IV Ideal communities
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) III and IV

A

The correct answer is C)
Visioning is “planning at its boldest”, a participatory, collaborative, and consensus-driven
planning process that seeks to describe an agreed-upon long-range desired future for a
community on the issues that matter most to the community. Therefore, the most successful
visioning efforts involve all segments of the community. This often involves the use of major
multi-media strategies to both encourage public participation from all interest groups, and to
periodically publicize the success of ongoing efforts and maintain forward momentum and retain
continued interest and involvement in the process.
SOURCES: Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices; pp. 216-217; APA’s PAS
QuickNotes #15: Capital Improvements Programming (2008)

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14
Q

III. (14) Key issues of concern in waterfront planning include:
I. Gentrification
II. Industrial development
III. Sprawl
IV. Heavy metals
A) I, II, IV
B) I, III
C) II, IV
D) I, II, III, IV

A

The correct answer is A)
The loss of working waterfronts due to residential gentrification (and the continued retention of
major industrial areas that need to be on the water, such as boat repair facilities) is a significant
planning issue for many coastal areas, as is sediment contamination by heavy metals from such
industrial and marine activities.
See: http://www.wateraccessus.com/toolkit.html
http://www.washington-apa.org/assets/docs/new_efforts_with_working_waterfronts_and_public_access.pdf

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15
Q

III. (15) A Neighborhood plan:
I. Often propose a program of implementation shorter in duration than is proposed in the
general plan
II. Is intended to provide a more general inclusion of goals, policies and guidelines than in
the general plan
III. Focuses on a specific geographic area of a local jurisdiction that typically includes
substantial residential development, associated commercial uses, and institutional
services such as recreation and education
IV. The sole sponsors of neighborhood plans are government and the citizens of the
neighborhoods affected.
(A) I, III
(B) II, IV
(C) II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV

A

The correct answer is “A”
The neighborhood plan is intended to provide more detailed goals, policies, and guidelines than
those in the general plan. The sponsors of neighborhood plans include cities, community
development organizations, foundations and private developers.
SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Neighborhood Plans” pp. 16-
17; 12.

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16
Q

I. (16) The American Greenbelt towns were built in the 1930s by:
A) the City Housing Corporation
B) the Resettlement Administration of the US Department of Agriculture
C) the US Department of Housing and Urban Development
D) the PWA Housing Division

A

The correct answer is B)
Greenbelt, which provided affordable housing for federal government workers, was one of three
“green” towns planned in 1935 by Rexford Guy Tugwell, head of the United States Resettlement
Administration, under authority of the Emergency Relief Appropriation Act. Greendale,
Wisconsin (near Milwaukee) and Greenhills, Ohio (near Cincinnati) are the other two
“Greenbelt” towns.

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17
Q

III. (17) Which of the following is out of order according to the Standard State Zoning
Enabling Act’s basic rezoning process?
I) Plan Commission recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
II) Notice is given of the governing body public hearing
III) The governing body hearing occurs
IV) The governing body takes action
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) They’re all in order

A

The correct answer is “D”
The Standard State Zoning Enabling Act states the following as the basic rezoning process:
1. Submittal of the zoning application
2. Application review by staff
3. Notice is given of the planning commission public hearing
4. The staff report is created
5. The planning commission hearing
6. The planning commission recommendation
7. The recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
8. Notice given of the governing body public hearing
9. The governing body hearing occurs
10. The governing body decision
Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the
American Institute of Certified Planners”, “Development Regulations” by Teresa Wilkinson,
AICP, pages 135-136.

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18
Q

I. (18) “We conclude therefore that under Belle Terre and Los Altos Hills the concept of the
public welfare is sufficiently broad to uphold . . .’s desire to preserve its small town character, its
open spaces and low density of population, and to grow at an orderly and deliberate pace” is a
finding from which famous law case”:
(A) Golden v. Town of Ramapo
(B) Associated Homes v. Livermore
(C) Southern Burlington NAACP v. Town of Mt. Laurel
(D) Construction Industry Association of Sonoma County v. the City of Petaluma

A

The correct answer is “D“
Alarmed by the accelerated rate of growth in 1970 and 1971, the demand for even more
housing, and the sprawl of the City eastward, the City of adopted a temporary freeze on
development in early 1971. To correct the imbalance between single-family and multi-family
dwellings, curb the sprawl of the City on the east, and retard the accelerating growth of the City,
the Council in 1972 adopted several resolutions, which collectively are called the “Petaluma
Plan” (the Plan). The Plan, on its face limited to a five-year period (1972-1977), fixes a housing
development growth rate not to exceed 500 dwelling units per year. The controversial 500-unit
limitation on residential development-units was adopted by the City in order to protect its small
town character and surrounding open space. The Construction Industry Association of Sonoma
County filed suit in federal district court, challenging the Plan as: (1) arbitrary; (2) in violation of
the right to travel; and (3) an unreasonable burden on interstate commerce. The final verdict
came from the U.S. District Court of Appeals which determined that the plan did not
unconstitutionally restrict the right to travel and found that:
1. the concept of the public welfare is sufficiently broad to uphold Petaluma’s desire to
preserve its small town character, its open spaces and low density of population, and to
grow at an orderly and deliberate pace
2. the local regulation here is rationally related to the social and environmental welfare of
the community and does not discriminate against interstate commerce or operate to
disrupt its required uniformity, appellees’ claim that the Plan unreasonably burdens
commerce must fail
https://law.justia.com/cases/federal/appellate-courts/F2/522/897/184274/

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19
Q

II. (19) Stratified sampling:
(A) Divides a given population into mutually exclusive sub-groups
(B) Divides a given population into strata that are then selected from by the tester
(C) Selects every nth person from a list
(D) None of the above

A

The correct answer is “A”
Stratification is the process of dividing members of the population into homogeneous subgroups before sampling.
The sub-populations (or strata) should be mutually exclusive: every element in the population must be assigned to
only one sub-population. The sub-population should also be collectively exhaustive: no population element can be
excluded. Then simple random sampling or systematic sampling is applied within each sub-population.
(B) = non-probabilistic quota sampling
(C) = probabilistic systematic sampling
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stratified_sampling
https://baselinesupport.campuslabs.com/hc/en-us/articles/204305705-Sampling-Methods

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20
Q

III. (20) An Arterial street is best described as a:
A) Highway for through traffic with full or partial control of access and generally with grade
separations at intersections.
B) Street that provides through traffic movement on a continuous route joining major traffic
generators, where access to abutting properties may be controlled.
C) Major roadway with no access to adjacent properties.
D) Roadway that experiences up to 30% of all VMT in urban areas, and up to 20% of all
VMT in rural areas.

A

The correct answer is B)
Principal arterials serve longer trips, carry the highest traffic volumes, and carry a large
percentage of the VMT (vehicle miles traveled; 30%-55% of all roadway mileage) on minimum
roadway mileage (4%-12% of all roads) and provide minimal land access. Minor Arterials
interconnect the principal arterials, provide less mobility and slightly more land access, and
distribute travel to smaller geographic areas than principal arterials. Urban Collectors provide
both land access and traffic circulation with residential, commercial, and industrial areas by
collecting and distributing traffic to these areas. Local Streets provide direct access to adjacent
land and access to the higher classified streets (5-20% of all VMT; 65% - 75% of all roadway
mileage). Source: “2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP
Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners”, page 149.

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21
Q

I. (21) Which of the following happened in 1909?
A) The San Francisco Plan is completed by Burnham
B) Yellowstone Park was designated
C) The first National Conference on City Planning
D) All of the above

A

The correct answer is “C”
APA traces its roots back to 1909 and the First National Conference on City Planning that was
held in Washington, D.C., organized by Benjamin Marsh and attended by professionals such as
Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr., John Nolan, Lawrence Veiller, and Jane Addams,

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22
Q

I. (22) Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co., 272 U.S. 365 (1926) dealt with which of the
following issues?
A) Adult Uses
B) Exactions
C) With the claim of a perceived taking
D) Sign Ordinance

A

The correct answer is C)
Ambler Realty sued the village, arguing that the zoning ordinance had substantially reduced the
value of the land by limiting its use, amounting to a deprivation of Ambler’s liberty and property
without due process (i.e., an unconstitutional “taking”).

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23
Q

III. (23) According to Richard Florida, the types of urban areas that attract the “Creative
Class” possess:
I. Low taxes
II. Highly talented/educated/skilled population
III. A diverse community
IV. Technological infrastructure necessary to fuel an entrepreneurial culture
A) II, IV
B) I, III, IV
C) II, III, IV
D) I, II, III, IV

A

The correct answer is C)
In Cities and the Creative Class (2004), Richard Florida devotes several chapters to discussion
of the three main prerequisites of creative cities (though there are many additional qualities
which distinguish creative magnets). For a city to attract the Creative Class, he argues, it must
possess “the three ‘T’s”: Talent (a highly talented/educated/skilled population), Tolerance (a
diverse community, which has a ‘live and let live’ ethos), and Technology (the technological
infrastructure necessary to fuel an entrepreneurial culture). In Rise of the Creative Class, Florida
argues that members of the Creative Class value meritocracy, diversity and individuality, and
look for these characteristics when they relocate (2002).

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24
Q

I. (24) Which of the following planning movements was characterized by local
management and self-government without a need for intervention from the central state,
and a philosophy that planning should be designed for socioeconomic stratums just
above the poor?
A) Sanitary Movement
B) City Beautiful Movement
C) Garden City Movement
D) Housing Reform

A

The correct answer is C).
The garden city movement is an approach to urban planning that was founded in 1898 by Sir
Ebenezer Howard in the United Kingdom in his book, To-morrow: A Peaceful Path to Real
Reform, which offered a vision of towns free of slums and enjoying the benefits of both town
(such as opportunity, amusement and high wages) and country (such as beauty, fresh air and
low rents). Garden cities were to be planned, self-contained communities surrounded by
greenbelts, and containing carefully balanced areas of residences, industry, and agriculture
which avoided the downfalls of industrial cities of the time such as urban poverty, overcrowding,
low wages, dirty alleys with no drainage, poorly ventilated houses, toxic substances, dust,
carbon gases, infectious disease and lack of interaction with nature.
See the following links for more information:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ebenezer_Howard
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Garden_city_movement

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IV. (25) The three C’s of a good staff report are: (A) Consistency, Compatibility, Comprehensive (B) Compliance, Consistency, Compatibility (C) Compliance, Consistency, Comprehensive (D) Comprehensive, Consistency, Compatibility
The correct answer is (B) Staff Report findings are typically related to the concepts of compliance, consistency, and compatibility, which are often the factors considered should the case be litigated: * Compliance. The report should identify which codes the application is subject to and, generally, how it complies. It should specify sections of the code with which the project does not comply and note whether there are any waivers, alternatives, or conditions to be considered. The report should relay how the application complies with environmental, utility, traffic, and other regulations in addition to zoning. * Consistency. The staff report should describe not only the land-use map classification but whether the proposed project is consistent with the goals and policies of the adopted plan. Consistency in applying codes is also important to assure equal protection. The report should identify prior decisions, if any, and indicate why this recommendation is similar (or why it is not). * Compatibility. This is probably the most subjective and debated of the parameters. The staff report should evaluate the project’s compatibility with adjacent properties. Is the use compatible with those around it? Is the height and scale of the building compatible with those adjacent? Are the site improvements (e.g., parking) and operational features (e.g., hours of operation) in character with the surrounding uses? SOURCE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #30: Getting the Most out of Staff Reports (2011)
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II. (26) Which of the following is an Objective: (A) Train the Chapter’s planners to pass the AICP Exam (B) Develop a comprehensive Florida Chapter AICP Exam Prep training manual (C) Increase the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate above the national average by 2015. (D) Annually monitor the Chapter’s AICP Exam passage rate by Section.
The correct answer is “C” Goals provide a long term result, or the long-term end toward which programs or activities are ultimately directed. Objectives are more specific, measurable statements of desired or intermediate ends that are achievable and mark progress toward a goal. Policies are courses of action that indicate how the goals and objectives of a plan should be realized. Measures are metrics used to assess progress toward meeting an objective, which can consist of an output or an outcome. Above, “A” is a goal. “B” is a policy, “C” is an Objective, and “D” is a measure.
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III. (27) The County Administrator tells you, the Planning Director, that he is concerned about the potential environmental justice issues associated with the new proposed landfill site in a residential area. Among the planning issues you direct your staff to investigate are: I. Whether Hispanics will experience a disproportionate environmental impact II. Public participation III. Housing gentrification IV. Health risk assessment (A) I, II (B) I, II, IV (C) I only (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B“ EPA defines environmental justice (EJ) as the fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all people regardless of race, color, national origin, or income with respect to the development, implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies. Other definitions include equitable distribution of environmental risks and benefits; fair and meaningful participation in environmental decision-making; recognition of community ways of life, local knowledge, and cultural difference; and the capability of communities and individuals to function and flourish in society. Although its origins go back much earlier, in 1994, President Clinton issued Executive Order 12898, "Federal Actions to Address Environmental Justice in Minority Populations and Low-Income Populations." Executive Order 12898 requires that achieving EJ must be part of each federal agency's mission and to identify and address the disproportionately high and adverse human health or environmental effects of their actions on minority and lowincome populations. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Environmental_justice https://www.epa.gov/laws-regulations/summary-executive-order-12898-federal-actions-address-environmental-justice
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II. (28) Who among the following would encourage neighbors concerned about a proposal resulting in the potential destruction of their neighborhood to oppose the proposal, to organize, and to use their collective power to disrupt a public hearing: I. Jane Jacobs II. Saul Alinsky III. Norm Krumholtz IV. Paul Davidoff (A) II (B) I, II (C) III (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B” If you had to choose only one name, the best fit would be Saul Alinsky, who is best known as the founder of modern community organizing and his book “Rules for Radicals” indicated that “The job of the organizer is to maneuver and bait the establishment so that it will publicly attack him as a 'dangerous enemy.' [According to Alinsky], the hysterical instant reaction of the establishment [will] not only validate [the organizer's] credentials of competency but also ensure automatic popular invitation.” Alinsky encouraged over-the-top public demonstrations throughout Rules for Radicals that could not be ignored, and these tactics enabled his organization to progress their goals faster than through normal bureaucratic processes. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Saul_Alinsky#Community_organizing_and_politics https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rules_for_Radicals However, Jane Jacobs also utilized such tactics. The Federal Housing Act of 1949 approved federal funds to cities for the demolition or rehabilitation of blighted areas, and throughout the 1950’s, Robert Moses utilized these funds to demolish entire New York neighborhoods in the name of urban renewal. Jane Jacobs opposed Moses and believed that such urban planners were destroying America's cities. She blamed the influence of the Swiss architect Le Corbusier, and his vision of an automobile oriented Radiant City, with skyscrapers surrounded by parkland on superblocks. In early 1961, Mayor Robert Wagner announced the latest New York City neighborhood to be designated as blighted: the 14 blocks bounded by 11th, Hudson, Christopher, Washington, Morton and West Streets (Greenwich Village) where Jane Jacobs lived. Shorty thereafter, she and other protesters were removed from a City Planning Commission hearing after they left their seats and marched on the podium. After she was removed from the city council hearing, her own words underlined her position: "We had been ladies and gentlemen and only got pushed around." Subsequently in 1968, she was arrested on charges of second-degree riot and criminal mischief in disrupting a public meeting on the proposed construction of Robert Moses’ Lower Manhattan Expressway (LOMEX), which would have sliced across Lower Manhattan and displaced hundreds of families and businesses. Her best known book, "The Death and Life of Great American Cities" began by stating “This book is an attack on current city planning and rebuilding”, highlighted the damage that freeways and housing projects did to the urban environment and made four recommendations for creating municipal diversity: 1. A street or district must serve several primary functions. 2. Blocks must be short. 3. Buildings must vary in age, condition, use and rentals. 4. Population must be dense. The book attack the works of Sir Patrick Geddes and Ebenezer Howard, as well as the modern city, Radiant City proposals of Le Corbusier, who championed the ideal of graceful urban towers rising over exquisite open spaces on superblocks. In later years, with her promotion of sidewalk walkability, mixed-use diverse neighborhoods and short blocks, she became an inspiration to architects and planners who espoused "New Urbanism. http://www.nydailynews.com/new-york/jane-jacobs-fought-urban-renewal-west-village-article1.2962679 https://www.vanityfair.com/culture/2017/04/jane-jacobs-citizen-jane-documentary https://www.theguardian.com/cities/2016/may/04/jane-jacobs-100th-birthday-saskia-sassen http://www.nytimes.com/2006/04/25/books/jane-jacobs-urban-activist-is-dead-at-89.html https://www.cnu.org/publicsquare/progressive-roots-new-urbanism https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Death_and_Life_of_Great_American_Cities
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III. (29) The ability to prepare and plan for, absorb, recover from, and more successfully adapt to adverse events is known as: (A) Hurricane preparedness (B) Post-disaster planning (C) Risk Assessment (D) Resilience
The correct answer is “D” The National Academy of Sciences defines resilience to be — "the ability to prepare and plan for, absorb, recover from, and more successfully adapt to adverse events". The risk assessment process provides a factual basis for the activities proposed in the mitigation strategy, based on community historical experience, estimating the potential frequency and magnitude of disasters, and assessing the potential losses to life and property. https://www.planning.org/planning/2015/aug/nextbigone.htm
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III. (30) What type of regulation includes impact fees, growth management controls, and land recordation? A) Subdivision Regulation B) Zoning C) Land Use D) Comprehensive Planning
The correct answer is “A” Subdivision regulations control and record the process of subdividing land. A result of subdivision regulations is the preservation of land records by platting and mapping. Another result is that developers design and construct developments properly. They include: 1) land recordation, 2) local design and construction standards for improvements and lots, 3) dedication requirements in the form of land or cash-in-lieu, 4) use of developer's impact fees, 5) the institution of growth management controls. Source: "2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners", "Development Regulations" by Teresa Wilkinson, AICP, Gretna, LA, page 137.
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II. (31) Your small town needs to undertake an extensive citizen involvement process to help develop a vision for the community and lacks the needed in-house expertise to know how to effectively accomplish this. In your role as the Planning Director, you determine that the best option available is: (A) Define required services and carry out a two-step RFQ-RFP process (B) Seek advice from the regional planning council (C) Assign your best senior planner to educate himself in citizen involvement techniques (D) Ask your local citizen groups for advise
The best answer is (A) Although the regional planning council may be able to provide “advice” on how to effectively accomplish a visioning process, it is often best to augment staff expertise through the hiring of expert consultants where detailed technical or subject matter knowledge on a specific planning process is required. Consultants are typically skilled at facilitating the extensive public outreach and involvement required in major planning projects. Outside experts can also bring credibility and a sense of objectivity to planning processes. SEE: APA’s PAS QuickNotes #37: Hiring a Consultant: RFQs and RFPs (2012)
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II. (32) The Department of Community Affairs is asked by the Lt. Governor to assist the state’s three water management districts, DEP, DACS and the five counties involved to help resolve the emerging water wars of central Florida through collaborative rationality planning. Collaborative rationality involves: I. Authentic dialogue II. Diversity of interests III. Independent learning IV. Interdependence of interests A) I, II, IV B) II, III C) I, III D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “A” Collaborative rationality is a stool that rests on three legs — diversity, interdependence, and authentic dialogue (DIAD). Collaboratively rational processes are about engaging with other members of a community to jointly learn and work out how to get better together in the face of conflict, complex changing conditions and multiple conflicting sources of information. DIVERSITY: The inclusion of all agents (i.e. full participation of all relevant stakeholders) is required for coherent and novel patterns of action to emerge. INTERDEPENDENCE: The condition of interdependence holds that agents must depend to a significant degree on other agents. That is, as is true in all successful negotiations, each agent (or stakeholder) has something that the others want. AUTHENIC DIALOGUE: Deliberations must be characterized by direct engagement so that the parties can test to be sure that claims are accurate, comprehensible, and sincere, and everyone involved must have equal access to all the relevant information and an equal ability to speak and be listened to. http://www.planning.org/planning/2011/feb/research.htm http://theconsensusbuildingapproach.blogspot.com/2010/02/collaborative-rationality.html
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I. (33) Clarence Stein is best known for his work on which topic? A) The New York State thruway B) The Catskill preserve C) The Greenbelt Towns D) The Rural Electrification Administration
The correct answer is “C” Stein was a major proponent of the Garden City movement in the United States, and involved in the 1930’s development of the “Greenbelt towns” under the rural Resettlement Administration, including Greenbelt, Maryland, Greendale, Wisconsin and Greenhills, Ohio. Earlier in 1923, Stein and Henry Wright collaborated on the plan for Sunnyside Gardens, a neighborhood of the New York City borough of Queens that took the garden city ideas of Sir Ebenezer Howard as a model. Also, in 1929, Stein and Wright collaborated with Kenneth Weinberger on the plan for the Radburn community in Fair Lawn, New Jersey, roughly double the area of Sunnyside. The vision for Radburn was of an integrated self-sustaining community, surrounded by greenbelts, specialized automotive thoroughfares (main linking roads, serviced lanes for direct access to buildings, and express highways), and a complete separation of auto and pedestrian traffic. These thoroughfares were called “superblocks”. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clarence_Stein
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III. (34) The Planning Director of your large, metropolitan city desires to establish some regulations to address the burgeoning public street markets and vendors that are increasingly appearing on vacant spaces throughout the city. The Planning Director wants to ensure that the new regulations improve community image, protect shops and restaurants, avoid sidewalk congestion, and reduce the liability of adjacent businesses. Among the many relevant issues the senior planner in charge of drafting the regulations may decide to address is/are: I. Restrictions on vending and market locations II. Capping the total city number of allowed vendors III. Restrictions/prohibitions on certain foods for sale IV. Fees and Taxes (A) I (B) I, IV (C) I, II, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D) Communities regulate markets and street merchants through zoning and business licensing or through standards of behavior on public property in eight key areas: 1. Vending locations – e.g. sidewalk vending or street markets 2. Exemptions – e.g. obtaining waivers from neighboring businesses 3. Permit caps – e.g. vending permit caps 4. Vending area – e.g. brightline versus flexible locational standards 5. Space allocation – e.g. space allocation by governmental vs. designated authority 6. Restrictions on certain goods – e.g. food type restrictions (fruit/vegetable only) 7. Cart or display design – e.g. cart size, less often, cart appearance 8. Fees and taxes – e.g. license, permit costs (per sq. foot vs. flat fee) SOURCE: APA’s Public Markets; “Zoning Practice” (February 2009)
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II. (35) This question focuses on techniques to address articulated goals and policies of a suburban town of 35,000 inhabitants. Which program is likely to be used to address the goal of increasing affordable housing? A) capital improvement program B) inclusionary housing program C) impact fee program D) growth phasing program
The correct answer is B) An inclusionary housing program will likely address the community's affordable housing needs.
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V. (36) You are a Planner for Wainfleet, New York, and you are attending the Mayor's Annual Luncheon on the State of the City and you bump into a private developer that you went to college with. She tells you about an exciting retail development and movie theater complex that she wants to build in Wainfleet. She offers you the opportunity to invest in the development. Which is the best option below for you to follow knowing that the development will come before your department for review? A) You should put the investment in your husband’s name and invest in the development. B) You should disclose your investment with your boss, the director, and once they give their approval you should invest. C) Invest in the development and when it comes before your department for review, exclude yourself from dealing with the project and have your staff make the recommendations for or against the development. D) Although it seems like an exciting opportunity you should decline the opportunity.
The correct answer is “D” According to the APA Code of Ethics the best thing to do in this situation is to decline the opportunity and say “no” to investing in this development. One of the main thoughts that the APA is trying to make very clear to planners is to stay out of potentially unfavorable situations that could be construed as being unethical. In answer A, you should remember that, as in this example, your husband’s financial interests are also your own. In answer B, your Director or boss should not give you permission to invest in this development. In answer C, your staff may recommend the development or show some sort of favoritism because they know that you are involved in its success or failure. Answer D, is the best on the four possible actions.
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IV. (37) It was determined that all work activities of the departments would be examined from the perspective of the client to determine if current procedures may be intimidating, confrontational or otherwise impose unnecessary constraints on the customer. From this research it became clear that a number of current practices and procedures could generate a negative response from customers. Which of the following might create a negative response from customers? I. Prompt return of telephone calls. II. Offering a Development Review Committee process. III. Conducting personal business at the public counter. IV. Asking customers to wait up to five minutes for service. A) I and II B) II and III C) III and IV D) III only
The correct answer is “D”. A five minute wait for governmental service is not considered an unreasonable wait; conducting personal business while serving at the public counter is inappropriate behavior by a governmental employee.
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II. (38) This budget model involves starting from "scratch" every year and approval of decision packages: (A) The Dayton System (B) Zero-based budgeting (C) Planning and Programming Budgeting System (D) Cost-Benefit Analysis
The correct answer is “B” Zero Base Budgeting starts from "scratch" every year. All programs have to justify their existence through analyses called decision packages. Since zero-based budgeting items require a new approval for budgeting, this means that budgets are started from a zero-base, with a fresh justification and decision on everything being made every year, regardless of whether the resulting budget item is funded at a higher or lower amount than in the previous year’s budget. 2014-2015 Chapter President’s Council (CPC) AICP Exam Prep Guide, p. 160 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zero-based_budgeting
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III. (39) Which U.S. housing act or legislation has been most successful at encouraging home ownership? (A) Hope VI (B) HOME (C) Mortgage interest tax deduction (D) LIHTC
The correct answer is “C“ The home mortgage interest deduction allows taxpayers who own their homes to reduce their taxable income by the amount of interest paid on the loan which is secured by their principal residence. Approximately half of all homeowners (~ 75 million) use this deduction, and the standard justification for the deduction is that it gives an incentive for home ownership. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Home_mortgage_interest_deduction http://www.investopedia.com/articles/pf/06/mortinttaxdeduct.asp http://www.deseretnews.com/article/700200108/Eliminating-the-mother-of-all-tax-deductions.html?pg=all
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II. (40) The original Oregon Model is framed by the following four questions of the steps to undertake in the Visioning process, in the following order (from first to last): I. Where Do We Want to Be? II. Where Are We Going? III. How Do We Get There? IV. Where Are We Now? (A) IV, II, III, I (B) I, III, IV, II (C) IV, II, I, III (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (C) Oregon was one of the first places in the U.S. to undergo a proliferation of community-based visioning, and the Oregon Model represents a comprehensive approach to visioning that has since gained widespread acceptance around the country. The model is framed by four simple questions: 1. Where are we now? 2. Where are we going? 3. Where do we want to be? 4. How do we get there? Some communities add a fifth step promoting action plan implementation (called the “New” Oregon Model): 5. Are we getting there? SOURCE: APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); p. 55
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I. (41) In 1915, Patrick Geddes wrote which of the following books that created the foundation for regional planning theory in America? (A) The Culture of Cities (B) Cities in Evolution (C) Regional Survey of New York and Its Environs (D) Tomorrow: A Peaceful Path to Real Reform
The correct answer is “B” In his 1915 book, Cities in Evolution: An introduction to Town Planning Movement and the Study of Civics, Patrick Geddes set out his idea of the city as an instrument of evolution, and began to formulate his broader philosophy of regional planning. He proposed that the development of the city was just one part of a wider network and that city planning therefore was not just the relationship between streets and public spaces, but also the city and the surrounding countryside, the drama of human history being as important as geography. Urban planning therefore needed to take the past and geography in context. He was the first to develop the concept of ‘conurbations’, ever-expanding urban communities, estimating that the east coast of America could turn into one vast city stretching for 500 miles. Geddes himself was a poor communicator of his own ideas and he found the perfect disciple in Lewis Mumford, an American writer who would later become the most influential architecture critics of his generation. As a leading member of the Regional Planning Association of America, Mumford transformed and popularized Geddes’s theories, that allowing cities to grow unchecked was intolerable, promoting the idea that people, industry and land were an integrated network that needed to be planned. https://citiesaregoodforyou.com/2011/09/27/evolution-and-planning-why-has-everyone-forgotten-geddes/
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II. (42) An image is not aligning properly with your other data themes or layers. This is most likely due to: A) the image file is not compatible with your data files B) your GIS software does not support that image file type C) the image file has not been registered correctly or is not registered D) vector data cannot be displayed with raster or image data
The correct answer is C) There is a very good possibility that the image file has not been registered in the same projection and/or coordinate system as your other data files. GIS places data layers where they belong on the earth's surface. In this manner, data that belongs in Wisconsin appears in Wisconsin and data that belongs in Massachusetts appears in Massachusetts. If an image has not been registered correctly or is in a different coordinate system, it will not appear with the rest of your data. Instead, it will be positioned on a different part of the globe.
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III. (43) The Johnson Air Force base in Levy County is being increasingly impacted by new surrounding development that is quickly conflicting with the military base’s primary training mission, and creating potential safety issues. The County, in conjunction with the Air Force Base Commander, decides to immediately begin planning to address base compatibility issues, and undertakes those efforts by utilizing the following tools in the following order (from first to last): I. AICUZ/JLUS II. Amortization III. Moratorium IV. Military Overlay adoption (A) I, IV, III, II (B) I, III, IV, II (C) III, I, IV, II (D) III, II, I, IV
The correct answer is (C) This is a question about immediateness of action and order of action. In the military land-use compatibility context, a moratorium might likely be used to serve a valid public purpose (i.e. planning in progress) because it restricts development while local government prepares a permanent plan to address public safety and military readiness—both vital public interests. The planning could happen through either the airfield oriented Air Installation Compatible Use Zone (AICUZ) process, or a Joint Land Use Study (JLUS) involving the military base, local government, and the public. For example, a comprehensive plan’s land-use element might address the issue of compatible use by calling for implementation of the AICUZ study or JLUS, which might be codified through the adoption of a Military overlay addressing the height, noise, and accident potential zones contained in the base’s AICUZ study, and imposing specific landuse regulations in addition to a property’s underlying zoning designation. Finally, a local government might use amortization to provide a non-conforming use property owner a reasonable time to phase out nonconforming uses and structures that interfere with military operations, but once that time has expired, the nonconformity would have to be terminated. SOURCE: APA’s Compatibility: Land-Use Compatibility Near Military Bases: A Planner’s Perspective; “Zoning Practice” (May 2011)
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V. (44) The principal of a one-man consulting firm has been asked to submit a proposal to assist the development service staff of a rural city with the preparation of a new Community Plan. The planning consultant is currently overbooked with projects and does not know how he will handle the additional work if he is selected. He is concerned that he may be unable to carry out his responsibilities on time and worries about the quality of work he would produce in-between other contractual obligations. The contract is eventually awarded to his firm. Which of the following is the best course of action for the consultant? A) Agree to execute the work assuming that his schedule will look better next month when several projects are scheduled to be completed. B) Hire a temporary assistant to work on existing projects to free up time to take on the new assignment. C) Determine that he cannot provide diligent service to any of his clients if he assumes more work and respectfully refuse the offer. D) Ask the planning director if the project can wait until he has time to work on it.
The correct answer is C). Although the consultant may be able to temporarily employ an assistant to help out, typically, clients feel they have hired the consultant's expertise (not the firm's). It is not reasonable to expect a client to accept the late entry of a new person. Likewise, the consultant should not expect a project to be delayed while he/she finishes other projects. If the consultant can not perform the work the contract must be turned down.
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II. (45) The department heads jointly organized and executed a citizen's survey to solicit input about customer satisfaction at city hall. To reach the maximum number of citizens a one page survey was included in the water bills of several thousand homeowners residing in the city. Over 1000 response cards were returned. Which of the following improvements to customer service did the majority of these everyday citizens select? I. A faster processing time for entitlements. II. Setting up a public information desk. III. Establishment of a central permitting system. IV. Development of informational flyers about city hall, the function of various departments, and a layperson's guide to public meetings. A) I and III B) II and IV C) I and IV D) III and IV
The correct answer is “B”. General citizen customer satisfaction is more likely tied to citizen-oriented actions such as improving general access to information (e.g. public information desk and a layman’s guide), rather than actions focusing on development interest related actions such as faster entitlements or internal staff oriented actions such as the establishment of a centralized permitting system.
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I. (46) According to Aristotle, the proper design of Greek cities should: A) Emphasize aesthetics, to promote beauty B) Be functionally situated to shade from summer heat and provide access to winter sun C) Preserve the haphazard arrangement of earlier times to make it more difficult for invaders to fight their way in D) Incorporate a grid pattern to encourage commerce and ease of movement
The correct answer is C) Aristotle was a critic of Hippodamus’ idea of straight streets and a gridded layout. He argued that, while a town planned in a grid is certainly more visually appealing than a haphazardly planned urban area, the latter is better for deterring invaders. If a city is infiltrated, the trespassers would easily be able to navigate through the streets if they are planned out in an orderly way. However, poorly planned streets are much easier to get lost in, and intruders not familiar with the city would be at a loss in such a place. Basically, orderly planning is good for beauty, haphazard planning (or lack thereof) is better for security. See: http://www.mlahanas.de/Greeks/CityPlan.htm http://www.academia.edu/4378826/Centenary_Paper_Plan_and_constitution_Aristotle_s _Hippodamus_towards_an_ostensive_definition_of_spatial_planning_2009 From: https://desktopexplorer.wordpress.com/tag/hippodamus-of-miletus/
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IV. (47) A planning director appointed by a mayor (as opposed to one hired by a City Manager): I. The planner appointed by the mayor will be the best planner available II. The planner appointed by the mayor serves at the pleasure of the mayor III. The planner appointed by the mayor will be someone who supported the mayor politically IV. The planner appointed by the mayor may be fired by the City Manager (A) I, II, IV (B) II (C) I, IV (D) II, III
The best answer is “B” Planning Directors hired by a Council, Commission or Mayor typically report directly to the Council, Commission or Mayor hiring them, and serve “at will”.
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V. (48) You are a newly hired planner involved in the process of preparing a new recreation plan for your community. Your supervisor, an AICP planner, learns that the City Council is anxious to take action on a recreation plan, and therefore, you are instructed to prepare the plan without scheduling any time for public participation or public comment. Suppose you learn that there is a regulation in place and that this is clearly a violation of the regulation. What might you do next? A) Discuss the situation with your Supervisor. B) Schedule a public workshop to discuss the recreation plan. C) Report the situation to the Planning Director. D) File a charge of misconduct with AICP.
The correct answer is A) When you learn that a violation has occurred, bring it to the attention of your director or supervisor. If you learn that the violation has occurred unintentionally, suggest remedies, such as delaying action on the plan until there is adequate time for a participatory process, scheduling a number of participatory events quickly, publicizing the events well, and revising the plan accordingly. It might be a good idea to discuss the situation with a more experienced planner. If the violation has occurred and you discover that the violation has occurred intentionally, this is a very serious situation because as planners we shall not accept an assignment from an employer when the service to be performed involves conduct that we know to be illegal (Rules of Conduct #2).
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III. (49) A new wave of criminal activity is sweeping the community and costing the taxpayers millions in police services, court fees, and long term housing of criminals in jails. The Board of Supervisors has decided to spend money on public education programs to educate the citizenry in crime prevention, the evils of drug and alcohol abuse, and the advantages of living clean. In addition, the Board has allocated a large portion of the budget for drug addict and alcoholic rehabilitation. Weighting all things, the Board is gambling that over time, the great expenditure of monies to prevent crime will not only improve the quality of life in the community, but will also save the taxpayers millions in the long run since less crimes will take place and fewer persons will be warehoused in prisons. Which cost analysis technique did the Board utilize in making this decision? A) Cost-effectiveness Analysis B) Cost-benefit Analysis C) Cost-revenue Analysis D) Fiscal Impact Analysis
The correct answer is B) Cost benefit analysis compares both the tangible and intangible (externalities) costs and revenues of a particular project or program compares what a community gains from the project benefits to what the community must forego in order to achieve it. Any project with a ratio higher than one provides more benefits than it costs. 2014-2015 Chapter President’s Council AICP Exam Prep Guide, p. 161
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II. (50) The greatest number of building floors result from the implementation of which Floor Area Ratio (FAR): (A) FAR of 6 covering an entire lot (B) FAR of 5 built on 1/3 of a lot (C) FAR of 6 built on half of a lot (D) FAR of 5 built on 1/4 of a lot
The correct answer is “D” FAR = floor area ratio = building area / lot area. A two story building built over an entire lot has a FAR of 2; if that Floor Area Ratio of 2 were to be totally built on only ½ of the site, it would still contain the same square footage, but now be 4 stories high. For the examples given: (A) = 6 story building; (B) = 15 story building; (C) = 12 story building; (D) = 20 story building.
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III. (51) A Complete Street is best described as: A) A street that promotes New Urbanism principles and has on-street parking B) A street that incorporates green infrastructure, TOD and walkability C) A street that ensures safe, healthy, convenient and comfortable travel and access for all users D) A street that uses green infrastructure, TOD, walkability, Woonerfs and Wayfinding.
The correct answer is “C” Complete Streets is a transportation policy and design approach that requires streets to be planned, designed, operated, and maintained to enable safe, convenient and comfortable travel and access for users of all ages and abilities regardless of their mode of transportation. APA Planning Advisory Service (PAS) Report 559: Complete Streets: Best Policy and Implementation Practices (March 2010). http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Complete_streets http://www.planning.org/pas/quicknotes/pdf/QN5.pdf http://www.planning.org/planning/2005/may/completestreets.htm
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III. (52) Economic base analysis evaluates local government development conditions to determine future development options. Which of the following elements are included? I. An assessment of local economic growth potential in relation to evolving regional, national, and international economic and demo-graphic trends. II. An inventory of existing real estate market conditions. III. A projection of future trends in job growth, personal income, and other relevant economic variable. IV. A study of unemployment and ethnicity. (A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I, II, and III (D) I, III and IV
The correct answer is “C” Economic base analysis is the study of cities and regions which focuses on basic service (export) ratios, the ratio of employment in basic activities to employment in non-basic activities which utilizes economic multipliers. Basic industries are defined as local or regional industries with an industry employment / total employment ratio higher than the national ratio for the industry (note: this can include industries such as “Finance, insurance, and real estate”). Non basic industries have a lower industry employment total employment ratio than the nation. Varies with the size of community: the larger the community, the larger the multiplier (more places to spend money). Service economies can export knowledge/service. Once basic employment is identified, the outlook for future basic employment is investigated sector by sector and future projections are made sector by sector. In turn, this permits the projection of future total employment in the region. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Economic_base_analysis 2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Guide, Quantitative Methods, p. 161. APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); pp. 507-508.
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I. (53) What is the smallest census geographic unit with 100% tabulation of data? (A) Consolidated MSA (B) Census Tract (C) Census Block (D) Place
The correct answer is “C” A census block is the smallest geographic unit used by the United States Census Bureau for tabulation of 100-percent data (data collected from all houses, rather than a sample of houses). Census blocks are grouped into block groups, which are grouped into census tracts. There are on average about 39 blocks per block group. Blocks are typically bounded by streets, roads or creeks. In cities, a census block may correspond to a city block, but in rural areas where there are fewer roads, blocks may be limited by other features. The population of a census block varies greatly from zero to hundreds, but has an average size of about 100 people. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Census_block
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II. (54) The T6 Transect Zone represents the: (A) Natural Zone (B) Special District (C) Central Business District (D) Urban Core Zone
The correct answer is “D” Standards were written for the first transect-based zoning codes, eventually to become the SmartCode (released in 2003 by Duany Plater-Zyberk & Company). The six Transect Zones provide the basis for real neighborhood structure, which requires walkable streets, mixed use, transportation options, and housing diversity. The T-zones vary by the ratio and level of intensity of their natural, built, and social components. To systemize the analysis and coding of traditional patterns, a prototypical American rural-to-urban SmartCode transect has been divided into six Transect Zones, or T-zones (below), for application on zoning maps. SEE: http://www.transect.org/transect.html & http://www.miami21.org/TheTransect.asp
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II. (55) A process where citizens address themselves to proposals through workshop formats that involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a conversation in full view of a larger group of listeners? (A) Fishbowl (B) Drop in Centers (C) Design in (D) Delphi Technique
The correct answer is “A“ Fishbowls involve a small group of people (usually 5-8) seated in circle, having a conversation in full view of a larger group of listeners. Fishbowl processes provide a creative way to include the “public” in a small group discussion. They can be used in a wide variety of settings, including workshops, conferences, organizational meetings and public assemblies. Fishbowls are useful for ventilating “hot topics” or sharing ideas or information from a variety of perspectives. When the people in the middle are public officials or other decision-makers, this technique can help bring transparency to the decision-making process and increase trust and understanding about complex issues. In an open fishbowl, any member of the audience can, at any time, occupy the empty chair and join the fishbowl. When this happens, an existing member of the fishbowl must voluntarily leave the fishbowl and free a chair. The discussion continues with participants frequently entering and leaving the fishbowl. http://www.kstoolkit.org/Fish+Bowl https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fishbowl_(conversation) 2014-2015 Chapter President’s Council AICP Exam Prep Guide, p. 122
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I. (56) The 1880’s saw the beginning of the cotton textile factories of the north move south, a trend that continued into the 1950’s, primarily due to: I. New Technology II. Black Labor III. Cheap Power IV. Child Labor (A) I, II (B) II, III (C) I, II, III (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “D” After 1880, cotton production in the South began to grow and mills were opened in the South, some as branches of Northern operations. African-Americans, many of whom were familiar with technology unlike the Northern immigrants, staffed the cotton mills with cheap labor. The South's mill owners not only benefited from cheap labor, they also entered the textile industry at a time of unprecedented technological advancement. The mill owners incorporated the most modern machines into their factories which allowed them to increase production and cut labor costs. At the end of the nineteenth century, however, railroads helped open up the nearby coalfields in West Virginia, Virginia, Kentucky, Alabama, and Tennessee. As mining companies grew, they produced coal that allowed textile mill owners to use steam engines. This increased the size of the mills and their level of production. The Southern textile industry relied in large part on the labor of children. Between 1880 and 1910, roughly a quarter of all textile workers were under the age of 16. Reformers eventually began to chip away at the use of child labor. But early efforts to curb the practice failed. Children did not disappear from the mills in the South until economic conditions and technological advancements made their labor more expensive than that of adults. African-Americans, many of whom were familiar with technology unlike the Northern immigrants, staffed the cotton mills with cheap labor. http://research.library.gsu.edu/c.php?g=115684&p=751981 https://historyengine.richmond.edu/episodes/view/246
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III. (57) Metropolitan Planning Organizations (MPO), are typically responsible for which of the following? I. Coordinating regional transportation planning II. Certifying that a project to be federally funded will be consistent with regional plans or regional development goals. III. Regulating land use and the construction of freeways. IV Planning for air quality A) I, II B) II, III C) I, II, III D) I, II, IV
The correct answer is “D”. Federal legislation passed in the early 1970s required the formation of a Metropolitan Planning Organization (MPO) for any urbanized area (UA) with a population greater than 50,000. MPOs were created in order to ensure that existing and future expenditures for transportation projects and programs were based on a continuing, cooperative and comprehensive (3-C) planning process. Federal funding for transportation projects and programs is channeled through the MPO. MPOs in air quality nonattainment and maintenance areas are required to ensure that emissions from transportation investments will not cause new violations or affect an area's schedule to attain the air quality standards. The Clean Air Act (CAA) of 1990 identifies the actions states and MPOs must take to reduce emissions from on-road mobile sources in nonattainment and maintenance areas. http://www.planning.dot.gov/documents/briefingbook/bbook.htm#4BB http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metropolitan_planning_organization http://www.h-gac.com/taq/airquality/faq/
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II. (58) The model for zoning to be undertaken “in accordance with a comprehensive plan” has its national origins in: (A) A Standard City Planning Enabling Act (B) Model Land Development Code (C) A Standard State Zoning Enabling Act (D) New York City’s first comprehensive plan
The correct answer is “C“ The basic foundation for planning and zoning in the U.S. was laid by two standard state enabling acts published by the U.S. Department of Commerce in the 1920s. The first of these, the Standard State Zone Enabling Act, was developed by an advisory committee on zoning appointed by Secretary of Commerce (and later President) Herbert Hoover, with the first printed edition in May 1924, and a revised edition in 1926. The SSZEA had nine sections, including a statement that zoning regulations must be “in conformance with a comprehensive plan” but did not define the term. PAS Quick Note 52: Local Comprehensive Plan https://www.planning.org/media/document/9007647/ https://www.planning.org/growingsmart/enablingacts.htm
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III. (59) Universal Design involves: I. The design of the built environment and products usable by all persons II. Without the need for specialized adaptations or design III. Striving to make the design of places and products equally appealing to all IV. The creation of products only to be used by the disabled. A) I, IV B) I, II, III, IV C) II, III, IV D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “D”. Universal design refers to broad-spectrum ideas meant to produce buildings, products and environments that are inherently accessible to both people without disabilities and people with disabilities. The term "Universal design" was coined by the architect Ronald L. Mace to describe the concept of designing all products and the built environment to be aesthetic and usable to the greatest extent possible by everyone, regardless of their age, ability, or status in life. Universal Design involves making our homes and cities accessible to all people. Source: APA Planning Magazine April 2002, "What Difference has the ADA Made?" by Terry S. Szold, page 12.
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II. (60) A properly selected statistical sample of a large population will always? A) Reduce the amount of effort required to ascertain characteristics of the population. B) Provide a mathematical estimate of the accuracy of the calculated population characteristics. C) Be the unbiased sample of the entire population. D) Be of adequate size to satisfy confidence criteria if a pre-sample was used to determine the required sample size.
The correct answer is “B”.
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II. (61) Jordantown desires to prepare a comprehensive plan in a Dillon’s Rule state that has state statutes on zoning, but not comprehensive plans: (A) The Town will need to seek approval of the plan from the Governor (B) The Town can develop and approve the plan as they see fit (so long as they obey the state and federal constitutions) (C) The Town will need to seek explicit statutory authority from the state legislature in order to be able to develop the plan (D) The Town can develop and approve the plan as it’s simply the extension of zoning (i.e. a plan that zoning must be consistent with)
The correct answer is “C “ The theory of state preeminence over local governments was expressed as Dillon's Rule in an 1868 case: "Municipal corporations owe their origin to, and derive their powers and rights wholly from, the legislature. It breathes into them the breath of life, without which they cannot exist. As it creates, so may it destroy. If it may destroy, it may abridge and control.” In other words, in a Dillon Rule state, local governments are devoid of authority absent an explicit delegation of power from the state. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_Forrest_Dillon
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I. (62) The Mugler v Kansas Supreme Court case: A) Upheld the state’s use of “police power” B) Was the first case to find a “taking” C) Upheld the constitutionality of the Morrill Act D) Found an unconstitutional restriction on first amendment speech.
The correct answer is “A” The Mugler v. Kansas (1887) Supreme Court decision held that a state’s legislation prohibiting the manufacture of intoxicating liquor within its jurisdiction does not infringe on any right or privilege secured by the Constitution of the United States, including the 14th amendment, was not a taking, and found that the authority for the statute strictly relied upon Kansas's police power. See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mugler_v._Kansas http://www.oyez.org/cases/1851-1900/1887/1887_0
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III. (63) In many ways, ____________looks a great deal like orthodox planning. Its goals include environmental protection, economic vitality, social equity, and a high quality of life including pedestrian- and transit-oriented development, controls on sprawl, diverse housing choices, a compact mix of uses, protection of agricultural and environmental resources, high-quality public services, and adequate infrastructure. A) Rational Planning B) Brownfield Planning C) New Urbanism D) Smart Growth Planning
The correct answer is “D” By the mid 1990's, there was concern about growth management, and a national movement sometimes called "smart growth" has grown. This growth management effort raised questions of regional planning, since because there was an absence of regional coordination, initiatives by local jurisdictions could be undercut by neighboring communities. Source, JAPA, Summer 2002, "The New Regionalism" by Stephen Wheeler, page 269.
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III. (64) Superblock is a concept most often associated with: I. Le Corbusier’s Radiant City II. Clarence Perry’s “Neighborhood Unit” III. Radburn, New Jersey IV. Urban renewal public housing projects (A) I, IV (B) I, III, IV (C) II, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D) In 1929, Clarence Perry developed the neighborhood unit plan in response to the advent of the automobile and was also an attempt to identify the local community as a separate entity with its own qualities and needs. The neighborhood unit was to be distinct enclave, separate from the rest of the city. Perry's idea was to create homogeneous "superblocks" separating vehicular and pedestrian traffic; providing ample open space; and developing community life around the neighborhood school. Perry's concept was the basis for the development of the widely acclaimed plan for Radburn, New Jersey, which incorporated Perry's concepts - the superblock, interior park, higher density clustering near the parkland, and hierarchial traffic separation. Le Corbusier's "The Radiant City" (1935) envisioned a city laid out in a near perfect grid of superblocks, which became the basis for much of the public housing projects later built in the United States.
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III. (65) Right-to-farm laws are typically about: (A) Governmental takings (B) Coming to the nuisance (C) Combating urban sprawl (D) Agricultural inverse condemnation
The correct answer is (B) Right-to-farm laws are designed to accomplish one or both of the following objectives: (1) to strengthen the legal position of farmers when neighbors sue them for private nuisance; and (2) to protect farmers from anti-nuisance ordinances and unreasonable controls on farming operations. In most states, “coming to the nuisance” does not necessarily prevent farm neighbors from winning in court, but a farmer usually has a stronger legal case if his or her operation was there before the plaintiff moved to the area. Right-to-farm laws give farmers a legal defense against nuisance suits; the strength of that defense depends on the provisions of the law and the circumstances of the case. http://www.farmland.org/programs/states/wa/documents/APPENDIXI-Righttofarmlaws.pdf
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II. (66) Which of the following is an alternative to optimization for cases where there are multiple and competing objectives in which one gives up the idea of obtaining a "best" solution? A) Satisficing B) Correlation C) LOS D) Brainstorming
The correct answer is “A” Satisficing is a method for making a choice from a set of alternatives encountered sequentially when one does not know much about the possibilities ahead of time. In such instances, there may be no optimal solution for when to stop searching for further alternatives. Satisficing takes the shortcut of setting an adjustable aspiration level and ending the search for alternatives as soon as one is encountered that exceeds the aspiration level. Source: www.argospress.com
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V. (67) A Certified Planner could lose their AICP for: I. Not paying special attention to the interrelatedness of decisions. II. Not giving people the opportunity to have a meaningful impact on the development of plans and programs that may affect them III. Not dealing fairly with all participants in the planning process IV. Not correctly stating your education, experience, or training (A) IV (B) I, III (C) III, IV (D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “A” Rule of Conduct #12: We shall not misstate our education, experience, training, or any other facts which are relevant to our professional qualifications. The other options are all Aspirational Principles.
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II. (68) The Mayor asks the Planning Department to hold public workshops with the goal of improving the look of the central business district. As planning director, the tool(s) you’d likely use? I. Policy Delphi II. Task Force III. Charrette IV. Visual Preference Survey (A) III (B) I, II (C) III, IV (D) I, III, IV
The correct answer is “C” A Charrette is an intensive, interactive problem solving process with meetings convened around the development of specific plans, also sometimes called a “Design In”. Within a specified time limit, participants work together intensely to reach a resolution. The sponsoring agency usually sets the goals and time limit and announces them ahead of time. A leader’s responsibility is to bring out all points of view from concerned local residents as well as agency representatives and experts. A visual preference survey is a technique that assists the community in determining which components of a plan or project environment contributes positively to a community's overall image or features. As the name implies, the technique is based on the development of one or more visual concepts of a proposed plan or project. Once the visual concepts are developed, they are used in a public forum or other specialized public gathering to provide the public with an opportunity to review, study, and comment on their preferences for the features depicted by the visual representations. Typical uses of visual preference surveys include helping the community define the preferences for architectural style, signs, building setbacks, landscaping, parking areas, size/scope of transportation facilities, surfaces finishes, and other design elements. Visual preference surveys can complement other survey techniques. It can also be used as part of a wider set of techniques to help educate the public about key features of a project or plan and to assist in the development of ideas or concepts. Consequently, visual preference surveys can be used in conjunction with public meetings or hearings, activities involving vision development, design charrettes, and focus group discussions or small group meetings. The use of the Delphi technique and Task Force meetings are typically not held as public workshops. https://www.planning.dot.gov/publicinvolvement/pi_documents/2b-b.asp#toc2b-b https://www.planning.dot.gov/publicinvolvement/pi_documents/4c-g.asp 2014-2015 Chapter Presidents Council AICP Exam Prep guide; pp. 121-126
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II. (69) Fixed Cost: (A) Insurance, annual salaries. (B) Material costs for production (C) Rent, depreciation, taxes (D) (A) & (C)
The correct answer is “D” In economics, fixed costs, indirect costs or overheads are business expenses that are not dependent on the level of goods or services produced by the business. They tend to be timerelated, such as salaries, insurance, taxes or rents being paid per month, and are often referred to as overhead costs. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fixed_cost http://www.teachmefinance.com/Financial_Terms/fixed_costs.html https://www.investopedia.com/terms/f/fixedcost.asp
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III. (70) According to the Highway Capacity Manual (1994), if a roadway has a "E" service level, which of the following would best describe it? A) stable flow, moderate delays, and the speed is determined by traffic B) unstable flow, near capacity, limited speed, and very long delays C) free flow, high operating speed with no delays D) very low speeds, frequent stoppages, volume is greater than capacity
The correct answer is B) FROM: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Level_of_service Level-of-Service E describes operations at capacity. Flow becomes irregular and speed varies rapidly because there are virtually no usable gaps to maneuver in the traffic stream and speeds rarely reach the posted limit. Vehicle spacing is about 6 car lengths, however speeds are still at or above 50 mi/h(80 km/h). Any disruption to traffic flow, such as merging ramp traffic or lane changes, will create a shock wave affecting traffic upstream. Any incident will create serious delays. Driver's level of comfort become poor. LOS E is a common standard in larger urban areas, where some roadway congestion is inevitable. The Highway Capacity Manual and AASHTO Geometric Design of Highways and Streets ("Green Book") list the following levels of service: A= Free flow B=Reasonably free flow C=Stable flow D=Approaching unstable flow E=Unstable flow F=Forced or breakdown flow
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III. (71) Which of the following is the most appropriate way to regulate the development of a new landfill? A) variance B) special permit C) cluster zoning D) rezoning
The correct answer is B) Special permits are appropriate instruments for siting uses a community considers essential, but may require special attention due to environmental threats.
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III. (72) The mayor asks you, the Planning Director, to provide an analysis of local economic development conditions to determine future development options? The tool you’d use would be? (A) Cost-benefit analysis. (B) Critical path method. (C) Management by objectives. (D) Economic Base analysis.
The correct answer is “D” Economic base analysis is the study of cities and regions which focuses on basic service (export) ratios, the ratio of employment in basic activities to employment in non-basic activities which utilizes economic multipliers. Basic industries are defined as local or regional industries with an industry employment / total employment ratio higher than the national ratio for the industry (note: this can include industries such as “Finance, insurance, and real estate”). Non basic industries have a lower industry employment total employment ratio than the nation. Varies with the size of community: the larger the community, the larger the multiplier (more places to spend money). Service economies can export knowledge/service. Once basic employment is identified, the outlook for future basic employment is investigated sector by sector and future projections are made sector by sector. In turn, this permits the projection of future total employment in the region. This, in turn, allows for the political determination of future development options (e.g. increased incentives for equestrian industries in your jurisdiction which is projected to be your basic industry). https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Economic_base_analysis 2014-2015 CPC AICP Exam Study Guide, Quantitative Methods, p. 161. APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); pp. 507-508.
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III. (73) Charging users of roads with higher fees during high peak usage is best described as: A) Sustainability fees B) Tolls C) Congestion pricing D) Congestion transaction fee
The correct answer is “C” Congestion pricing is the practice of charging motorists more to use a roadway, bridge or tunnel during periods of the heaviest use. Its purpose is to reduce automobile use during periods of peak congestion, thereby easing traffic and encouraging commuters to walk, bike or take mass transit as an alternative. http://www.planning.org/planning/2008/may/congestion.htm http://transalt.org/issues/congestion
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IV. (74) You are a planner for the City of Aurora, Illinois. The Planning Department has worked closely with the School District in completing a projection of school aged children until the year 2020 based upon current zoning. You were on the team, and in fact, you did a lot of the input for the cohort survival method technique. On Friday, a local developer submits a plan for constructing a large development on 20 acres of currently vacant land in an undeveloped and un-annexed area of the City. The land is currently zoned R-1. The developer’s proposal is for multi-family (R-4) housing and he is anxious to move through the process to begin construction. In fact, the real estate purchase offer the developer has on the land with the farmer is contingent upon receiving approval from your department and of course City Council. The School District will also have a say in this development and the Council is known to look to both your department and the School District for your advice and recommendations particularly when it involves large real estate developments that may have a dramatic effect on School District populations. From the data given, which of the following represents the BEST summary of your report to the City Council. A) You should recommend to the Council that this development be approved based upon the probability of less school-aged children with this type of development. B) You should recommend denial of the proposal based upon its projected negative effect on the number of school aged children. C) You should recommend denial of the proposal based upon the proposal is a different zoning. D) You should recommend to the Council that the proposal be denied based upon the report co-authored by your Department and the School District that shows this development would justify the need for a new school to be constructed, thus resulting in higher taxes.
The correct answer is “A” From the information provided, the fears of the School District for an increase in school aged children may not be as negatively affected by this proposed development. In fact, one could argue that the development would actually be a benefit to the School District. The reason being that historically across the nation, the number of school aged children created as a result of new multi-family residential developments is less than the number created by single family homes. Based upon the information we know, the number of school aged children would be expected to be less. The planner should continue to explore the density being proposed to make sure that there would actually be more children at the end of the day. The carrying capacity of the existing school facilities would be expected to remain the same if not better according to projections. Therefore, based upon the facts given this development should be recommended for approval.
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I. (75) What is the central underpinning of Ian McHarg's seminal book entitled "Design With Nature"? A) All city and regional planning projects should include some form of vegetation B) Interior plantscaping can be utilized to soften large development projects C) Landscape design and planning should reflect, respect, and harmonize with the land's natural forms and processes D) Only natural materials should be used in architecture
The correct answer is C) Ian McHarg set the standard for modern landscape architecture and planning with a design approach that made natural forms and processes paramount in the design process. Formerly, much landscape design and planning had occurred without regard to nature's inherent wisdom, instead introducing foreign manmade forms on the land without regard to natural context. Mr. McHarg employed a thorough inventory of existing conditions and program elements and a layering system which facilitated easier analysis and manipulation of these various layers of information. The design goal was intended to be holistic and in harmony with the land's natural forms and processes.
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II. (76) Scenario Planning: I. Can be used to model hazards II. Typically takes inputs such as density, mixed-use development, and transportation nodes, together with population estimates, to show different outcomes III. Can assess community resilience IV. Can utilize the charrette process (A) II (B) IV (C) II, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “D“ Scenario planning tools use the best in available technology (e.g. GIS, charrettes) to help citizens visualize different futures for their cities and regions, typically by taking inputs such as density, mixed-use development, and transportation nodes, together with population estimates, to show different outcomes, assess resilience or model hazard effects. https://planning-org-uploaded-media.s3.amazonaws.com/document/Scenario-PlanningReport.pdf https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scenario_planning https://www.lincolninst.edu/es/news/lincoln-house-blog/scenario-planning-tools-bloom
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II. (77) A 1.4 acre parcel has been developed with a three story office building, a parking area and a storm water retention area. Assuming each floor of the office building is 10,000 gsf, the parking area contains 480 spaces and the retention area is capable of handling a 25-year storm, the FAR is approximately equal to which of the following? A) 0.5 B) 2.0 C) 0.4 D) 1.0
The correct answer is A) FAR (floor area ratio) = building floor area sf / parcel sf. The 3-story building has a total of 30,000 square feet. The overall 1.4 acre site contains 60,984 square feet (1.4 acres x 43,560 sf/acre = 60,984 sf). For this site, the FAR is equivalent to 30,000 sf / 60,984 sf = 0.492 or approximately 0.5.
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IV. (78) Big data affords planners the opportunity to: I. Analyze long-term data directly on super computers II. To gather data by volunteers using cell phone apps to identify blight III. To better plan, manage, and improve cities IV. To utilize real-time data and analysis to see what's happening in cities (A) I (B) II, IV (C) I, III (D) II, III, IV
The correct answer is “D“ Big data is defined as a collection of data that is too large and complex to be stored, transferred, shared, curated, and analyzed by traditional processing methods. Massive amounts of data are being generated by sensors, cell phones, tablets, GPS devices, retail rewards cards, and credit cards — as well as digital interactions like swiping a public transit card, texting, emailing, watching and posting online videos, shopping online, and using Facebook, Twitter, and YouTube. As a tool, big data offers significant benefits for planners and others in the business of planning, managing, and improving cities: * More detailed data for enhanced, data-driven decisions. * A more efficient way to manage resources and evaluate existing programs and policies. * Near- or real-time analysis that allows users to see what's happening in cities (e.g., transportation) second by second. * Quantitative support in the form of statistics, models, maps, and simulations that planners can show city officials, developers, and others to demonstrate how and why they came to certain decisions. * New ways to cross-analyze and visualize datasets to gain new insights and identify new relationships. * Enhanced public-private partnerships to obtain, aggregate, analyze, and apply data to cities in ways that benefit all parties involved and ultimately improve the quality of urban life. Detroit in December 2013 and January 2014 actually utilized a smartphone app to enable 150 volunteers to survey Detroit's 375,000 land parcels for blight/vacancy over the course of about 30 working days by driving around, photographing properties, and texting photos and descriptions to a database in a process called "blexting" (blight + texting). Any Detroit resident can download the Blexting app and take an active role in surveying neighborhoods for vacant buildings and help keep the dataset up to date. https://www.planning.org/planning/2015/apr/datadriven.htm https://www.planning.org/blog/blogpost/9122182/
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II. (79) Of the following growth management techniques which would likely be used to protect water supplies while land within watershed is being acquired for watershed protection? (A) Building permit caps. (B) Subdivision phasing. (C) Large lot zoning. (D) Building permit moratorium.
The correct answer is “D” A building moratorium is appropriate to temporarily stop construction within a watershed while government is acquiring land, as long as it’s for a reasonable timeframe (e.g. less than 32 months). https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tahoe-Sierra_Preservation_Council,_Inc._v._Tahoe_Regional_Planning_Agency
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I. (80) Some planners theorize the shape of the city is determined mostly by: I. Retail development II. Highway strip development III. Master planned developments IV. City Grids (A) I, III (B) II, IV (C) II, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (C) When planners look at the way cities are created and how they change over time, three different forms emerge: (1) the grid; (2) the strip, and (3) the master planned community. They tell a lot about how cities and towns change and what they will look like in the future. http://www.planning.org/planning/2007/jul/shapeofthecity.htm
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III. (81) What is a result of large lot subdivision: (A) Sprawl decreases (B) Property values decrease (C) Median age of first time homeowners increases (D) Jobs/Housing Ratio increases
The correct answer is “C” Large lot subdivisions tend to be in rural areas, with lots often 5 acres or larger in size; tend to be expensive (so that first time buyers tend to be older); are typically exclusively residential (i.e. few jobs); and increase property values of the rural lands.
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II. (82) A Program Budget System: (A) Includes the identification of decision units, the development of different decision packages for each of these units, and the ranking of the alternative packages (B) Defines the budget by what will be bought during the fiscal year (C) Is tied to the five-year Capital Improvements Plan (D) Arranges governmental operations into program components, identifies the total cost of each municipal service and sets spending levels and priorities accordingly.
The answer is “D” Unlike line-item budgets (Option B), which lists total departmental appropriations by items for which the city will spend funds, a program budget displays a series of “mini-budgets,” which show the cost of each of the activities that city departments perform. Program budgeting enables the city council and administrator to identify the total cost of each municipal service and set spending levels and priorities accordingly by program. (Option A) depicts Zero-Based budgeting. A five year capital improvements plan (Option C) can be used in all three budget types. The Practice of Local Government Planning, Third Edition, p. 417 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zero-based_budgeting http://global.oup.com/us/companion.websites/fdscontent/uscompanion/us/static/companion.web sites/9780195387452/Budget%20Formats%204-10.pdf
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II. (83) Determining whether a particular project or scale of development within a community will generate sufficient revenues to defray the necessary public service cost is a: (A) Fiscal Impact Analysis (B) Input-Output Analysis (C) Capital Improvements Plan (D) Cost-effectiveness Analysis
The correct answer is “A” Fiscal impact analysis is one of many tools that can be used by planners to make informed decisions about changes to land-use regulations or proposed development projects. Fiscal impact analysis is best used to determine whether a particular project or scale of development within a community will generate sufficient revenues to defray the necessary public service costs. It is typically used to evaluate overall financial implications to local governments of alternative patterns and densities of land development. 2014-2015 Chapter President’s Council (CPC) AICP Exam Prep Guide, p. 161 https://www.planning.org/publications/report/9026994/
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III. (84) The mayor asks you, the Planning Director, to permit accessory uses. Accessory uses can be described as: A) Permitted only if they are incidental to the principle use B) Allowed by right C) Allowed only by a special review D) Legally established under the zoning regulations that were in effect at the time of their development
The correct answer is “A” There are generally three types of categories allowed in permitted land uses: 1) Principle uses, these are uses that are allowed by right; 2) Accessory uses, these are land uses that are permitted only if they are incidental to the principle use; 3) Special uses, these are land uses allowed only by a special review. Source: "2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners", page 131.
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I. (85) Jean Gottmann used what term to describe the extended urban region that contained several metro areas that appeared to form a single agglomeration? A) Larger Metropolitan Area B) Megatropolis C) Metropolis D) Megalopolis
The correct answer is “D” Jean Gottmann coined the expression, Megalopolis, when referring to the extended urban region that contained several metro areas which appear to form a single agglomeration. Source: "Study Guide Comprehensive Planning Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents Council American Planning Association, "Planning History Summary" by John M. Janson, AICP, PDO, Utah Chapter, APA, West Valley City, UT., 2002, page 75.
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II. (86) The City Council agreed with the director's recommendation to organize a Citizen's Steering Committee to assist with the revitalization of the downtown. The director has her secretary create a mailing list of private citizens, businesses, and organizations and sends a letter to the people on this list announcing that the city is accepting applications for appointment to an advisory committee. Representatives from which of the following groups were considered for inclusion on this committee? I. Downtown merchants and property owners. II. Architects and graphic designers. III. Members of the Chamber of Commerce. IV. Historians and preservationists. A) I and IV B) II and III C) I, II and III D) I, II, III and IV
The correct answer is D) Representatives from all interest groups is best.
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III. (87) Of the following techniques for preserving agricultural land, which would be the MOST effective? (A) Transfer of Development Rights. (B) Purchase of Development Rights. (C) Building permit moratorium. (D) Right to farm ordinance.
The correct is “B” Once development rights have been purchased, the land is likely to stay in agricultural use indefinitely.
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IV. (88) Detailed information about a community’s debt would be vital for carrying out which of the following tasks? A) Establishing assessed values for property in the coming year B) Applying to HUD for Section 8 funds C) Presenting a venture-capital fund to area financial institutions D) Requesting a change in bond rating
The correct answer is “D”
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III. (89) The planning director asks you to lead a neighborhood plan for Old Town, one of the poorest areas of your municipality. Among the issues you’d likely need to address in your planning are: I. Combating Sprawl II. Attracting the Creative Class III. The provision of Skinny Streets IV. Resolving food deserts A) I, II, III B) I, II, III, IV C) II D) IV
The correct answer is “D” A food desert is a geographic area where affordable & healthy food is difficult to obtain, particularly for those without access to an automobile. Food deserts often exist in rural areas and low-income, poor neighborhoods populated by ethnic or racial minorities that lack convenient access to affordable, healthful food. http://www.planning.org/planning/2009/aug/whenaccess.htm http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Food_desert
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I. (90) The Utopianism theory of planning is often linked to works by: I. Le Corbusier II. Daniel Burnham III. Frank Lloyd Wright IV. Charles Lindbloom (A) I, II (B) I, II, III (C) II, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (B) Utopianism believes that planning is most effective when it proposes sweeping changes that capture the public imagination. Some examples include Le Corbusier's “Contemporary City”; Ebenezer Howard's “Garden City”; Daniel Burnham's “White City”; and Frank Lloyd Wright's “Broadacre City”. Each of these "visionary" plans has as its underlying purpose the improvement of mankind's urban experience through extensive changes in conventional methods.
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V. (91) You are responsible for recommending contracts to the city council. Your immediate supervisor has asked you to prepare a recommendation for a large contract for an individual you know is a good friend of your supervisor. After reviewing the contract, you conclude that the contract amount is not commensurate with the scope of work provided. You believe the contract is a waste of taxpayer dollars if it were to be granted. What might you do first? A) Discuss the assignment with the City Administrator B) Ask to be reassigned to another project C) Verify the data and analysis and submit your report for approval by the Supervisor D) Recommend approval of the contract
The correct answer is C) The first thing to do might be to carefully review the data and procedures used in the analysis for accuracy and completeness (Ethical Principle 1). You should document everything during this entire process such as the date and nature of your supervisor’s request and the sources of data used to draw the conclusion that the consultant’s price is too high. Then write your report and submit it to your supervisor.
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I. (92) What happened in the early 20th century to bring about the City Humane Movement? A) Jacob Riis’s publication of How the Other Half Lives B) The great depression C) The beginning of advocacy planning D) Jane Addams’ opening of Hull House
The correct answer is B) The City Humane Movement developed as a result of the Depression of the 1930s. It concentrated on social and economic issues and ways of alleviating the problems of unemployment, poverty, and urban plight. From: http://www.cityofbenson.com/vertical/sites/%7BF59197D1-30ED-49AE-8751- 2EBA89C105BA%7D/uploads/pzhandbook_email.pdf http://www.csun.edu/~schoi/urbs310_planninghistory_wk6.pdf
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I. (93) In Earnest Burgess' Concentric Zone Theory (1923) everything starts from the center and grows out from there in the form of broad belts or zones. Which of the following is NOT true about these zones? (A) The first zone is the downtown center in which is focused the economic, political, and cultural life of the city. (B) The second zone is known as the "zone of transition", which is both area-wise and population-wise an area of limbo. (C) The third zone is where the parks and open space are located. (D) Immediately adjacent to the central business district is an area slated for expansion if business is good.
The correct answer is “C” <> The concentric zone model, also known as the Burgess model is one of the earliest theoretical models to explain urban social structures. Based on human ecology theory done by Burgess and applied on Chicago, it was the first to give the explanation of distribution of social groups within urban areas. This concentric ring model depicts urban land usage in concentric rings: the Central Business District (or CBD) was in the middle of the model, and the city expanded in rings with different land uses. The zones identified are: 1. The center was the central business district, 2. The first ring (zone) outside the CBD was the factory zone 3. The transition zone of mixed residential and commercial uses or the zone of transition 4. Working class residential homes 5. Better quality middle-class homes (Outer Suburbs) or zone of better housing 6. Commuters zone https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Concentric_zone_model
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IV. (94) After the City Council appointed the 12 member Citizens Steering Committee it is the director's job to represent the city as the sole staff person on the committee. To help facilitate the committee meeting she decides to? I. Assume the role of committee chairperson. II. Advise the committee to select a chairperson from their own ranks. III. Make a list of discussion topics and tell the group what they should talk about. IV. Come to the initial meeting and then just drop by every-once-in-a-while on meeting dates to make sure things are running okay. A) I only B) II only C) II and III D) II, III and IV
The correct answer is “B” This is a “Citizens” Steering Committee, with the Director appointed to represent the City as its “sole staff person on the committee”. The Director should not take over its leadership, direct its discussion topics, nor fail to staff the committee.
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V. (95) You are working as a certified planner for a water management district, and you decide you’d like to teach a free AICP Study Group on weekends to assist planners prepare for the AICP exam: I. You need to make full written disclosure to the water management district II. There is no conflict of interest issue as the study group is unrelated to your work, is pro bono and occurs only on the weekends with no work travel conflicts III. You have a duty to contribute time and resources to the professional development of students, interns, beginning professionals, and other colleagues IV. You need to receive written permission to teach the study group, unless the water management district has a written policy that allows such teaching without approval (A) I (B) I, IV (C) II, III (D) II
The correct answer is “B“ Rule of Conduct 4 states that “We shall not, as salaried employees, undertake other employment in planning or a related profession, whether or not for pay, without having made full written disclosure to the employer who furnishes our salary and having received subsequent written permission to undertake additional employment, unless our employer has a written policy which expressly dispenses with a need to obtain such consent.” Option III is an Aspirational Principle, but is coupled with an incorrect option. https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
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III. (96) The downtown merchants have approached the director for assistance. What actions could she take to help them in their initial efforts to revitalize the downtown area? I. After meeting with the group, she prepared a report to the Council recommending that a Citizen's Steering Committee be created to help organize redevelopment efforts. II. She gathered information about employing an advertising company that would be able to evaluate the downtown and recommended a promotional strategy for revitalizing the area. III. The director informed the merchants that an economic "natural-selection" process is occurring and that the vitality of the CBD is simply going to fade away. IV. The director suggested the organization of an annual antiques festival in the downtown and a storefront improvement program for the downtown business owners. A) I and II B) II and III C) II, III, and IV D) I, II, and IV
The correct answer is “D”. Option III is non-responsive to the request for assistance in downtown economic development revitialization.
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I. (97) According to Harvey Molotch, likely the most important factor affecting the shape of the city is: (A) Public planning (B) Real estate interests (C) Transportation improvements (D) Local banking interests
The answer is (B) Harvey Molotch's 1976 classic paper "The City as a Growth Machine" took the dominant convention of studying urban land use and turned it on its head. Molotch’s great insight was to understand that land parcels are not empty fields awaiting human action, but are associated with specific interests: commercial, sentimental, and psychological; and that especially important in the shaping of cities were the real estate interests of those whose properties gain value when growth takes place. These actors make up what Molotch termed "the local growth machine" -- a term now standard in the urban studies lexicon. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Harvey_Molotch#The_City_as_a_Growth_Machine
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II. (98) The need for subdivision ordinances stems from which of the following? I. The desire to avoid the division of land into parcels which cannot be developed. II. A more efficient method of property transfers. III. Protection against street layout which does not conform to that in the Master Plan. IV. To ensure the provision of adequate public services. A) II and IV B) I, II and III C) III and IV D) I, III, and IV
The correct answer is “A“ <>
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III. (99) The street segment shown below is best described as: [New Planner — Winter 2012] A) An Arterial B) A Parklet C) A Chicane D) A Pocket Park
The correct answer is “B” Parklets are miniature parks, effectively sited on underused public pavement such as parking spaces and serving as an extension of the sidewalk to provide amenities and green space for people using the street. The basic parklet is a platform with benches, chairs, and planters. A pocket park is a small park accessible to the general public, often created on a single vacant building lot or on small, irregular pieces of land. http://www.planning.org/thenewplanner/2012/win/parklets.htm http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parklet http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pocket_park
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I. (100) What type of organizational approach has the planner serving a specific client of group and doing so openly? A) Fishbowl Planning B) Alinsky Organization C) Advocacy Planning D) Ladder of Citizen Participation
The correct answer is “C” Advocacy Planning has an assumption that there is no common, overall, or identified public interest to be served. But instead the planner serves a variety of groups with often diverse and opposing interests and goals. A planner should serve a given group (client) and do so openly. “Fishbowl Planning” is a type of public participation technique that allows citizens to address themselves to proposals through workshop formats; an “Alinsky Organization” typically has a paid organizer, but not necessarily a planner, involved in citizen organizing with a basic philosophy that power is the basis for successfully negotiating for economic and political gains; the “Ladder of Citizen Participation”, developed by Sherry Arnstein, defines citizen participation in terms of the amount of control citizens have over policy decisions. Source: "2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, "Citizen Participation in Planning" by Terry Langlois, AICP, Memphis TN, page 124. Fishbowl planning - http://www.dse.vic.gov.au/effective-engagement/toolkit/tool-fishbowl Alinsky Organization - http://www.uic.edu/depts/lib/findingaids/MSIAF_71
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II. (101) You are the planner for Newton City who is responsible for converting the city’s current zoning code into a form-based code. Components of the code you are developing contain standards addressing: I. Building configuration and features II. Building type and frontage III. Public spaces IV. Land use (A) I (B) II (C) I, II (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (D) The typical components of a form-based code include: 1. Building Form Standards: Building form standards are form-based zone standards that replace the existing zone standards. They are the core component of an FBC and typically regulate the configuration, features, and functions (uses) for buildings that define and shape the public realm. To be the most effective, their content should be generated primarily by community character documentation as opposed to the preexisting zone standards for each area. 2. Regulating Plan: A regulating plan is the map assigning the code’s various standards to physical locations, including the form-based zone standards. It replaces the zoning map in a form-based code. In a citywide form-based code it is the same as the zoning map and will have form-based and non-form-based zones on it. It is usually applied in a more fine-grained manner than a zoning map, taking existing and intended form into account. 3. Frontage Type Standards: Frontage type standards regulate the appropriate transition from the private realm to the public realm. The ultimate intent of frontage standards is to ensure, after a building is located correctly, that its interface with the public realm and the transition between the two are detailed appropriately. 4. Public Space Standards: Public space standards are specifications for the elements within the public realm, including thoroughfares and civic spaces. Thoroughfare standards incorporate detailed requirements for sidewalk, parking lane, and travel lane widths and street tree locations. Civic space standards regulate parameters, such as maximum and minimum size, and introduce a range of nonsuburban civic space types into a city or town. 5. Building Type Standards: Many FBCs include building type standards that are supplemental to the building form standards. They introduce an appropriate range of building types that are allowed within each form-based zone and regulate form characteristics specific to each type. To be effectively regulated, especially when applied at a larger scale, building type standards should be tied back directly to zone standards. A common misconception is that form-based codes do not regulate land use. While form-based coding uses form rather than use for its framework or organizing principle, form-based codes are not silent on use and do include use tables. The use regulations simply become tertiary to the form standards instead of being the primary regulation, and they are simplified and vetted by the code writer so as not to compromise the intent of the form-based code. FROM: APA’s Form-Based Zoning; “Zoning Practice” 2013(5); pp. 3-4
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I. (102) The City of Provost is experiencing unusually rapid subdivision of its remaining coastal properties. The City Council has requested that the Planning Director prepare a memorandum outlining whatever options the Town has to ensure that public access to the coast is retained, even after the remaining parcels are subdivided and built upon. The Director's memorandum is likely to include a discussion regarding which "test"? A) Affordable housing test B) Essential nexus test C) Taking without compensation test D) Fair share test
The correct answer is “B“ This situation would most likely include a discussion of the similar Supreme Court case that established the “essential nexus” test - Nollan v. California Coastal Commission, 483 U.S. 825 (1987), in which the court determined that there must be a connection (i.e. an “essential nexus”) between a permit exaction and the purpose of the development requirement (or developmental impact). http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nollan_v._California_Coastal_Commission
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II. (103) Bias in statistics: (A) Can be due to choosing random data for statistical analysis (B) Can be minimized by increasing the size of the sample (C) Can be caused by faulty design or deficient execution of the sampling process (D) Is a consequence of the fact that sample size is much less when compared to the population size
The correct answer is “C” Bias is the systematic error resulting in deviation in estimates of population parameters caused by faulty design and/or deficient execution of sampling process. The bias is not a result of sample size and hence increasing the sample size will not reduce bias in estimates. The two broad types of bias include Measurement Bias (i.e. errors occurring during real time sampling) and Non-representative sampling Bias (often intentional, “selection bias” = due to not implementing random methods during the selection process, which results in either inadequate or excess representation of some elements in the population, sometimes encouraged by survey sponsors to project their interest in the sample inference). http://math.tutorvista.com/statistics/bias.html http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bias_(statistics)
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I. (104) Climate change: I. Has no linkage with red tides which are caused by too much nutrients II. In the past decade, U.S. had twice as many record lows as record highs III. Can disproportionately impact low-income neighborhoods as they are often located in areas that have greater exposure to hazards such as flooding or extreme heat IV. Has provided more moisture for massive snowstorms in places like the northeast (A) I, III (B) III, IV (C) II, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “B“ Scientists easily linked some Lake Erie red tide blooms to runoff of phosphorous-rich fertilizer spread on Ohio farms to maximize crop production, but there's also a connection to rising global temperatures. Lake Erie is shallow and warms easily, favoring algae growth. But there's another, less obvious link to global warming: more intense rainstorms that sweep the phosphorous into rivers flowing into Lake Erie. In the past decade, U.S. had twice as many record highs as record lows. https://www.planning.org/planning/2015/oct/unwelcomestranger.htm
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III. (105) The Section 8 Housing Program was established in 1974 with the approval by Congress of the: A) Community Development Block Grant program. B) Federal Housing Authority. C) Urban Renewal Administration. D) Public Housing Administration.
The correct answer is “A”. The Housing and Community Development Act of 1974amended the Housing Act of 1937 to create the Section 8 housing program. Section 8 of the Housing Act authorizes the payment of rental housing assistance to private landlords on behalf of approximately 3.1 million low-income households in the United States. The largest part of the section is the Housing Choice Voucher program which pays a large portion of the rents and utilities of about 2.1 million households. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Housing_and_Community_Development_Act_of_1974 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Section_8_(housing)
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IV. (106) Which of the following would be considered staff positions in a government agency? I. Assistant and associate planners. II. Police officer and fireman. III. Personnel assistant, accountant. IV. Garbage collector and street sweeper. (A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III (D) II and IV
The correct answer is C) Options II and IV are considered to be “Line Employees”, rather than Staff. Staff workers derive influence from expert authority or "authority of knowledge," from their control of information which may be vital to line managers, and from their closer access to upper management (e.g. planners, accountants). Line employees directly advance an organization in its core work, such as police and fire protection, or garbage removal in governmental agencies. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Staff_and_line
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II. (107) Which of the following is true about neighborhood groups? I. Officially recognizing neighborhood groups can be an excellent way to achieve citizen involvement in the planning process. II. Neighborhood groups are typically made up of NIMBYs who advocate "no-growth" policies in their community. III. Neighborhood groups and associations are usually voluntary organizations that bring neighbors together through their own initiative to address issues of concern like development, crime, and safety. IV. When a neighborhood group is well organized, representative of its entire population, and adequately managed, cities are more likely to recognize and work with them. A) I and II B) II and III C) I, III, and IV D) III and IV
The correct answer is C) It would be poor judgment and unethical to limit or exclude neighborhood groups from community planning activities. Ideally, a community should enjoy the benefits of collaboration between organized groups and the planning staff.
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II. (108) The planning philosophy that “requires that government institutions give priority attention to the goal of promoting a wider range of choices for those Cleveland residents who have few, if any, choices” is associated with: (A) Paul Davidoff (B) Saul Alinsky (C) Norman Krumholz (D) Paul Farmer
The correct answer is “C” From 1969 to 1979, Cleveland’s city planning staff under Norman Krumholz’s leadership conducted a unique experiment in equity oriented planning. Fighting to defend the public welfare while also assisting the city’s poorest citizens, these planners combined professional competence and political judgment to bring pressing urban issues to the public’s attention. Paul Davidoff — who coined the term "advocacy planning" — instructed that "Planning action cannot be prescribed from a position of value neutrality." Cleveland planning director Norman Krumholtz illustrated this concept (and created the concept of equity planning) in 1975 when he set the department's overriding goal as "providing a wide range of choices for those Cleveland residents who have few, if any, choices." https://www.planning.org/planning/2015/dec/viewpoint.htm http://teachingcleveland.org/wp-content/uploads/2015/03/NormKrumholz_and_Equity_Planning_in_Cleveland-final.pdf http://www.temple.edu/tempress/titles/694_reg.html
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V. (109) You work as a planner as a private consulting firm, and approve several subconsultant agreements with a company owned by a relative: I. You need to make full written disclosure to your consulting firm II. This is a clear conflict involving financial gain by your relative III. There is no conflict of interest issue as you do not benefit from the agreement IV. You need to receive written consent from your consulting firm or recuse yourself (A) I (B) III (C) I, II (D) I, II, IV
The correct answer is “D“ Rule of Conduct #6 states: “We shall not perform work on a project for a client or employer if, in addition to the agreed upon compensation from our client or employer, there is a possibility for direct personal or financial gain to us, our family members, or persons living in our household, unless our client or employer, after full written disclosure from us, consents in writing to the arrangement.” https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
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I. (110) Orange County is quickly losing its prime agricultural lands to new suburban development. Among the planning tools your Planning Director wishes to utilize to help protect agricultural lands is a TDR program. The potential use of this tool for agricultural protection will likely involve you in a discussion of the legal principles established in: I. Penn Central Transportation Co. v. The City of New York (1978) II. Spur Industries v. Del Webb Development Co. (1972) III. Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty (1926) IV. Fred F. French Investing Co. v. City of New York (1976) (A) I (B) II (C) II, III (D) I, IV
The correct answer is (D) The Fred F. French Investing Co. v. City of New York (1976), involved a rezoning of land to public park use, which was accompanied by a grant to its owners of transferable development rights which could be used anywhere within a designated "receiving zone." The Court of Appeals reaffirmed the general rule that an owner may not, under the guise of zoning, be deprived of all but a "bare residue" of the economic value of his property. The Court went on to say that, in this case, severance of the development rights did not adequately preserve an economic return for the owner since the market for them was too uncertain and their transfer was mandatory. In Penn Central Transportation Company v. City of New York (1978), the designation of Grand Central Terminal as a protected landmark was at issue. The specific issue affecting TDR concerned a provision of the city Historic Preservation regulation which granted to the owner of the landmark the right to transfer the development rights above the terminal (i.e. “air rights”) to other parcels of land in the vicinity. The Court noted that In the Penn Central case (as opposed to Fred French Investing), the regulations permitted continued productive use of the property as a railroad terminal and permitted use of the development rights in a less contingent fashion: "These substitute rights are valuable, and provide significant, perhaps 'fair,' compensation for the loss of rights above the Terminal itself." The Penn Central case is significant for its recognition of the concept of transferable development rights, for its utilization of their value in determining whether land use restrictions are valid, and for its upholding of New York City’s Landmark historic preservation law. http://www.dos.ny.gov/lg/publications/Transfer_of_Development_Rights.pdf http://www.planning.org/divisions/planningandlaw/propertytopics.htm#Transfer
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II. (111) Who is involved with an organizational approach that involves organizations that are created when an invitation is sent out by the neighborhood or organization and a paid organizer is then sent to the neighborhood? A) Paul Davidoff B) Saul Alinsky C) Sherry R. Arnstein D) T.J. Kent
The correct answer is “B” Alinsky's organizations are created when an invitation is sent out by the neighborhood or organization and a paid organizer is then sent to the neighborhood. They identify issues, generate action, recruit and involve local leaders, and sets up a local organization if one does not exist. Source: "2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, "Citizen Participation in Planning" by Terry Langlois, AICP, Memphis TN, pages 123-124.
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III. (112) The mayor is asking you, the Planning Director, to development a new program addressing the growth of megachurchs in the community. Your recommendations would likely include a discussion of the following issues: I. Parking and traffic considerations II. Building codes III. Whether regulations create a substantial burden IV. Whether regulations are the most restrictive means A) I, IV B) I, II, III, IV C) II, IV D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “D” The federal Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act (RLUIPA) prohibits the imposition of certain burdens on churches and other religious institutions as a way to avoid burdensome zoning law restrictions on their property use: “No government shall impose or implement a land use regulation in a manner that imposes a substantial burden on the religious exercise of a person, including a religious assembly or institution, unless the government demonstrates that [the land use regulation is] in furtherance of a compelling governmental interest [and] is the least restrictive means of furthering that compelling governmental interest.” Addressing RLUIPA restrictions, courts have generally upheld that general zoning and land-use restrictions apply to everyone (e.g. parking & traffic impacts); that churches may be excluded from some districts (and need to comply with associated building codes); and that general review processes apply to everyone. APA Zoning Practice #10 (October 2010) Religious Institutions http://www.planning.org/planning/2012/nov/changingchurch.htm http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Religious_Land_Use_and_Institutionalized_Persons_Act
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II. (113) Degree levels on Arnstein’s Ladder are: I. Citizen Power II. Tokenism III. Non-participation IV. Community Involvement (A) II, III (B) I, II, IV (C) III, IV (D) I, II, III
The correct answer is “D” http://pages.uoregon.edu/rgp/PPPM613/class10theory.htm
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I. (114) When a bill is first introduced in a state legislature, it: (A) Is sent to both houses (B) Undergoes its initial vote (C) Is referred to committee (D) Is routed to the Legislative Budget Office
The correct answer is “C” Upon reading the introduced bill, if no objection heard, the bill is then referred to the appropriate committee. Bills may be referred to more than one committee and it may be split so that parts are sent to different committees. Once passed in one house of the Legislature, the bill is sent to the other house for consideration. If the other house passes a different version of the bill, the bill may be subject to a conference committee to develop a compromise before going back to both houses for a vote. Most states follow a similar procedure. https://www.flsenate.gov/About/HowAnIdeaBecomesALaw https://www.flsenate.gov/PublishedContent/ADMINISTRATIVEPUBLICATIONS/idea-to-law.pdf https://votesmart.org/education/how-a-bill-becomes-law#.WdL-hjCQzIU (Federal) https://www.senate.gov/reference/resources/pdf/legprocessflowchart.pdf (Federal)
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III. (115) The Mayor asks you, the Planning Director, to develop new regulations to protect the Arcade historical district in your town. Your new regulations would likely include considerations of these standards: I. New additions and adjacent or related new construction shall be undertaken in such a manner that if removed in the future, the essential form and integrity of the historic property and its environment would be unimpaired. II. All archeological resources affected by a project shall be protected, preserved and remain undisturbed. III. Most properties change over time; those changes that have acquired historic significance in their own right shall be retained and preserved. IV. New Additions, exterior alterations, or related new construction shall not destroy historic materials that characterize the property. The new work shall be differentiated from the old and shall be compatible with the massing, size, scale, and architectural features to protect the historic integrity of the property and its environment. (A) II, IV (B) I, II, III (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C” The three correct standards are all from THE SECRETARY OF THE INTERIOR’S STANDARDS FOR REHABILITATION. Option II. is incorrect as (1) Not all archaeological resources must be protected – only ones deemed to have significant archaeological value; and (2) both protection in place AND proper archaeological excavation are typically viable options for the protection of significant archaeological resources. The actual standard reads “Significant archeological resources affected by a project shall be protected and preserved. If such resources must be disturbed, mitigation measures shall be undertaken”. https://www.nps.gov/tps/standards/rehabilitation/rehab/stand.htm
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V. (116) A city neighborhood certified planner assigned to assist a low-income neighborhood provides information to the head of the local neighborhood on a study being prepared by the county’s community development department which recommends substantial redevelopment land clearance in the neighborhood. Is this ethical? (A) No, it violates not engaging in private communications with planning process participants if the discussions relate to a matter over which we have authority to make a binding, final determination (B) No, it violates not engaging in in private discussions with decision makers in the planning process in any manner prohibited by agency rules, procedures, or custom (C) Yes, we have a responsibility to not deliberately or with reckless indifference fail to provide adequate, timely, clear and accurate information on planning issues, and our primary obligation is to serve the public interest (D) No, it violates the responsibility to hold inviolate information that we should recognize as confidential because its disclosure could result in embarrassment or other detriment
The correct answer is “C” Absent a clear rule of conduct to the contrary, the planner’s action in this scenario is plausibly justifiable. The planner did not engage in discussions with planning participants on matters on which they had decision making authority over, so Rule of Conduct 8 (A) doesn’t apply. Likewise, the planner didn’t undertake discussions with decision makers, so Rule of Conduct 9 (B) doesn’t apply. It’s unclear, but unlikely, that a public development project would be requested to be held inviolate and confidential so Rule of Conduct 7 (D) also is unlikely to apply. Rule of Conduct 1 (C, first part) would see to require that the information be provided as it involves a planning issue and consistent with a planner’s primary obligation to serve the public interest (C, second part). Jerry Weitz, The Ethical Planning Practitioner, Scenario #37, p. 59
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III. (117) The Mayor established a citizen’s advisory group to provide recommendations to the Town Council on the siting of new religious institutions within the rural community that includes an agricultural reserve area. The planning staff has been asked to help support the advisory group on the requirements and restrictions allowed under the federal Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act (RLUIPA). Which of the following draft recommendations would you identify to discuss with the citizen’s advisory group as potentially being problematic under RLUIPA: I. Exclude all religious institutions from the central business district II. Establish a minimum 1,000-foot buffer requirement between nonagricultural, nonresidential uses in an agricultural district “to protect, preserve, and enhance the rural character and lifestyle of existing low-density areas and agricultural use” III. Establish a conditional use approval process for certain religious institutions IV. Require religious homeless shelters to comply with the town’s building code (A) I (B) III (C) I, III (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (B) RLUIPA cautions local governments not to “substantially burden” a religious land-use applicant’s right to free exercise. To date, the courts have generally found that the government did not substantially burden the religious land-use applicant in three broad categories where: 1. General zoning and land-use restrictions apply to everyone. EXAMPLE: Establishing a minimum 1,000-foot buffer requirement between nonagricultural, nonresidential uses in an agricultural district “to protect, preserve, and enhance the rural character and lifestyle of existing low-density areas and agricultural use” 2. Churches are excluded from some districts. EXAMPLE: Excluding all religious institutions from the central business district 3. General review processes apply to everyone. EXAMPLE: Requiring religious homeless shelters to comply with the town’s building code (like everyone else) PROBLEMATIC: Establishing a conditional use approval process for certain religious institutions (e.g. Moslem; thereby treating them differently) SOURCE: APA’s Religious Institutions; “Zoning Practice” (October 2010); APA’s Religious Institutions; “Zoning Practice” (September 2008); APA’s Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); p. 586
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II. (118) All of the following are negative costs sometimes associated with citizen participation except which one of these? A) The inefficiency created in government because of the longer time to make a decision when involving the public. B) The fear of parochialism. C) There could be increased cohesion of the community. D) The representative form of government may be weakened.
The correct answer is “C” There are some problems and benefits associated with citizen participation. Some costs may be that due to a lengthened process, there may indeed some economic wastes. Another possible cost may be that there is an inefficiency in government created because of the added groups. There is also the thought that it may weaken the representative form of government. Source: "2011-2012 Chapter Presidents Council Study Manual for the AICP Examination of the American Institute of Certified Planners" Published by Chapter Presidents’ Council American Planning Association, "Citizen Participation in Planning" by Terry Langlois, AICP, Memphis TN, pages 125-126.
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II. (119) As APA Chapter President, you decide to survey your state’s APA planners on the top ten policies that are being used at the local level to address climate change adaptation issues throughout the state. The public participation technique you’d likely use would be: (A) Delphi technique (B) Fishbowl planning (C) Consensus Blogging (D) Crowdsourcing
The correct answer is (A) The Delphi technique is a structured public participation method, originally developed as a systematic, interactive forecasting method which relies on a panel of experts. The experts answer questionnaires in two or more rounds. After each round, a facilitator provides an anonymous summary of the experts’ forecasts from the previous round as well as the reasons they provided for their judgments. Thus, experts are encouraged to revise their earlier answers in light of the replies of other members of their panel. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delphi_method
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V. (120) You work for a local government planning department as a staff planner, and decide to work at a local art gallery on weekends: I. You need to make full written disclosure to the planning department II. There is no conflict of interest issue as the art gallery is unrelated to your work III. You need to avoid a conflict of interest or even the appearance of a conflict of interest in accepting assignments from clients or employers. IV. You need to receive written permission to work at the gallery, unless the planning department has a written policy that allows such work without approval (A) I (B) II (C) I, IV (D) I, III, IV
The correct answer is “B“ The art gallery work is not “employment in planning or a related profession.” Rule of Conduct 4 states that “We shall not, as salaried employees, undertake other employment in planning or a related profession, whether or not for pay, without having made full written disclosure to the employer who furnishes our salary and having received subsequent written permission to undertake additional employment, unless our employer has a written policy which expressly dispenses with a need to obtain such consent.” Option III is an unrelated Aspirational Principle, and is coupled with incorrect options. https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
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I. (121) Lewis Mumford: I. Together with Clarence Stein and Henry Wright, was the backbone of the Regional Planning Association of America II. Was the author of The Culture of Cities and The City in History III. Named his son Geddes Mumford after the inspiration of his work, Patrick Geddes IV. Was an American historian, sociologist and literary critic (A) I, II (B) II, IV (C) II, III (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “D” Lewis Mumford, was an American historian, sociologist, philosopher of technology, and literary critic. Particularly noted for his study of cities and urban architecture, he had a broad career as a writer, and was heavily influenced by the work of Scottish theorist Sir Patrick Geddes, after whom he named his son “Geddes”. The Regional Planning Association of America (RPAA) was formed by Clarence Stein as an urban reform association in 1923. Stein, Benton MacKaye, Lewis Mumford, Alexander Bing, and Henry Wright were the essential backbone of the RPAA. Mumford contributed to the group by sharing his interest of Patrick Geddes’ ideas on regional development and planning, and contributed his concepts of “a dispersed yet concentrated urban culture integrated with nature” which were integrated along with MacKaye’s concepts into the RPAA’s later projects. He wrote both The Culture of Cities and The City in History, which won the 1962 U.S. National Book Award for Nonfiction. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lewis_Mumford http://www.academia.edu/1161406/From_Patrick_Geddes_to_Lewis_Mumford_and_Beyond https://ww2.odu.edu/ao/instadv/quest/CityAsCommunity.html https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regional_Planning_Association_of_America
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I. (122) The U.S. is experiencing a national trend of people moving back to urban areas. Which of the following is an important reason behind this trend? A) Housing is less expensive in urban areas. B) There is more cultural diversity in urban areas. C) Urban areas have less violent crime. D) People want to use mass transit.
The correct answer is “B”.
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V. (123) Concerning "honesty" in the use of information, which of the following is true? A) In some situations, planners must not provide full information. B) It is part of professional conduct to communicate ethical standards to clients, employers, and the public. C) In reporting the results of studies, planners must follow the scholar's rule. D) All of the above.
The correct answer is “D”. The scholar’s rule for planners is that they must make it possible for others to follow in their footsteps and check out their work; they must honestly report on their studies. Under certain circumstances, planners do not divulge legally confidential information. See – Community Planning: An Introduction to the Comprehensive Plan by Eric D. Kelly and Barbara Becker; page 431 re the Scholar’s Rule and planners Also - http://ethics.iit.edu/ecodes/node/4507
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III. (124) The term used to describe temporary urban infill projects is known as: I. Radical urbanism II. Pop-Up urbanism III. Temporary urbanism IV. Brownfield A) III B) I, II, III C) II, III D) IV
The correct answer is “C” Pop-Up Urbanism and Temporary Urbanism refer to the use of temporary urban infill projects. The idea has its roots in urban tactics from the World's Fairs of yesteryear to Christo's public art installations to of-the-moment interventions such as yarn bombing, guerilla gardening, and turning abandoned pay phones into mini-libraries. http://www.planning.org/planning/2011/apr/60urbanisms.htm http://www.planning.org/planning/2012/nov/frompopup.htm http://www.theatlanticcities.com/design/2012/05/rise-temporary-city/1865/
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I. (125) The Village of Mariemont was designed by John Nolen, funded by Mary Emery, and designated as a National Historic Landmark due to its classic town square, mix of housing and placement of shops, schools, parks and entertainment venues. The design of Mariemont: I. Incorporated “White City” concepts II. Was based on the English Garden City III. Originated many of today’s "new urbanism" concepts IV. Utilized design features from Frank Lloyd Wright’s “Broadacre City” A) I, II B) II, III C) III, IV D) II
The correct answer is “B” John Nolen’s design of the Village of Mariemont in Cincinnati drew its inspiration from the English Garden City and originated many of the "new urbanism" concepts being replicated by communities throughout the nation today, as did other subsequent developments by John Nolen in Florida. https://www.planning.org/greatplaces/neighborhoods/2008/mariemont.htm http://www.mariemontlifestyle.com/mary-emery-vision/ http://www.cnuflorida.org/nu_florida/roots.htm
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II. (126) The term “Fast Tracking” can be described as which of the following? A) Deciding as a group what tasks to cut to get a project completed on time B) Skipping over tasks on a planning project C) What occurs when time needs to be made up on a planning project D) All of the above
The correct answer is “C” In Terry Clark’s book entitled, “Project Management for Planners: A Practical Guide”, he discusses Fast Tracking. This occurs when time is needed to be made up on a planning project. This could be accomplished by running more than one task at the same time to speed up the schedule. Before implementing this technique, especially on larger projects, one should ask the following questions: a) what tasks can run at the same time? b) Is there enough staff? c) Are there any impacts to the other tasks? Source: “Project Management for Planners: A Practical Guide”, by Terry A. Clark, AICP, PMP, APA Planners Press, Chicago, IL, 2002, pages 90-91.
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III. (127) Which of the following has the largest FAR? (A) One acre 20-story building on a 4-acre lot (B) A 4-story building entirely covering a ¼ acre lot (C) One acre 12-story building on a 3-acre lot (D) A 2-story building entirely covering ½ acre lot
The correct answer is (A) FAR = floor area ratio = building area / lot area. The FARs for (A) = 5 [20 acres of building/4 acre lot]; (B) = 4 [4 story bldg. on ¼ acre/ ¼ acre]; (C) = 4 [12 acres of building/3 acre lot]; (D) = 2 [2 story bldg. on ½ acre / ½ acre].
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II. (128) Which of the following best describes a Datum? (A) The memory of a computer (B) The signature date on a deed (C) A line, point, or surface from which elevations are measured or indicated (D) The decision of a court for the plaintiff
The correct answer is “C” A Geodetic datum or geodetic system is a coordinate system, and a set of reference points, used to locate places on the Earth, often used in GIS systems, such as North American Datum of 1927 (NAD27). https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geodetic_datum http://support.esri.com/en/knowledgebase/GISDictionary/term/datum
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II. (129) The model for subdivision regulations governing the subdivision of land within a jurisdiction to provide for the proper arrangement of streets in relation to other existing or planned streets and the master plan, to provide for adequate and convenient open spaces for traffic, utilities, access of fire-fighting apparatus, recreation, light and air, and for the avoidance of congestion of population, has its national origins in: (A) A Standard City Planning Enabling Act (B) The Model Land Development Code (C) A Standard State Zoning Enabling Act (D) The Public Land Survey System
The correct answer is “A“ The basic foundation for planning and zoning in the U.S. was laid by two standard state enabling acts published by the U.S. Department of Commerce in the 1920s. The second of these, the Standard City Planning Enabling Act, was developed by an advisory committee appointed by Secretary of Commerce (and later President) Herbert Hoover, with the first printed edition in March 1927, and a final edition published in 1928. The SCPEA covered six topics including the control of private subdivision of land (i.e. subdivision regulations). https://www.planning.org/growingsmart/enablingacts.htm https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subdivision_(land)#History
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II. (130) A contour line represents the tracing of one constant elevation above or below a certain datum. Every point on any one contour line is at the same elevation throughout the contour line. Which of the following is NOT true about contour lines? (A) Contours are shown on a map at equally spaced vertical (not slope) measurements and the vertical distance between them is known as a contour interval. (B) A steep slope is represented by closely spaced contours, a gentle slope by comparatively widely spaced contours and a uniform slope is recognized by equally spaced contours. (C) Numbers representing elevations appear on the lines in set intervals (e.g., every ten feet). (D) Contour lines are used exclusively on base maps.
The correct answer is “D” Contour lines are used on a wide variety of maps. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contour_line#Elevation_and_depth
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II. (131) Which of the following planning processes and programs would a community undertake first to promote “Sustainability"? A) Developing a future-oriented community vision through advance planning that looks beyond current needs and recognizes environmental limits to human development. B) Making planning decisions in a holistic and fully informed manner that involves all segments of the community and the public and private sectors. C) Fostering projects/activities that promote economic development by efficiently and equitably distributing resources and goods; minimizing, reusing and recycling waste; and protecting natural ecosystems. D) Educating all age groups to raise public understanding of, and regard for, the future consequences of current planning decisions and ultimately changing human behavior.
The correct answer is A) Development of a future-oriented community vision through advance planning would provide the foundation for the programs and activities described in the other answers.
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II. (132) The planning director of a small city wants to get as much public input as possible on a city-wide study. Which of the following methods would be the least effective method of stimulating citizen participation? A) Contacting neighborhood leaders, advising them of the study, and asking them to report neighborhood reaction B) Completing the study, printing the final report, and asking for citizen comments on it C) Preparing press releases that give the general scope of the study and asking for comments from the general public D) Offering to address interested neighborhood or other civic groups on the subject of the study
The correct answer is “B”. Asking citizens to comment on a report that has been finalized and printed provides no real opportunity for meaningful public input on the development of the study.
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III. (133) Many communities recognize the value of historic resources as major contributions to the quality of life and to cultural vitality, and as resources that stimulate economic vitality and the potential for tourism. All of the following would be considered essential components in a local government historic preservation program except? I. Financial incentives to encourage rehabilitation and restoration. II. Cooperative educational efforts with the private sector and citizen groups. III. Adaptive reuse policies supported by tax or other incentives. IV. Adopting a uniform design scheme (i.e. turn-of-the-century) for reconstruction of building facades on historic structures. A) I and II B) II and III C) I and III D) IV only
The correct answer is D) The answer was derived from a familiarity with APA's Policy Guides. Answers I, II and III from the first tier could all be essential components in a local government historic preservation program. Answer IV is incorrect. Remodeling the front of historic structures with a set motif would likely ruin the historic value of the structures.
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III. (134) The County Administrator calls you, the Planning Director, to his office to discuss the use of federal funds available from MAP-21 legislation. Among the potential projects you discuss, include: I. Community-led planning for neighborhood revitalization around transit lines II. Prohibiting digital billboards along major roads in the community III. Using TIFIA loans for transportation infrastructure projects IV. Construction of local ferry boat facilities A) I, III B) I, II C) I, III, IV D) I
The correct answer is “C” Moving Ahead for Progress in the 21st Century Act (MAP-21) funds surface transportation programs at over $105 billion for fiscal years FY 2013 and 2014. A new grant program will fund community-led planning for neighborhood revitalization around transit lines, A major increase in federally backed loans, known as TIFIA, could help regions that raise their own transportation funds and stretch those dollars farther, and a new passenger ferry facilities funding program. http://t4america.org/wp-content/uploads/2012/11/MAP-21-Handbook-Web.pdf http://www.fhwa.dot.gov/map21/summaryinfo.cfm
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II. (135) Which of the following boards is most likely to conduct a site plan review of an industrial park development? A) Planning Commission B) Zoning Board of Appeals C) Economic Development Board D) Code Enforcement Office
The correct answer is A) The site plan review process varies from community to community, but of the boards noted above, the Planning Commission is the most likely board to conduct or, at least, coordinate the industrial park's site plan review. It is possible, however, that all of the agencies noted above are involved, to some degree, in the site plan review.
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I. (136) What was the result of the Kelo supreme court decision: I. The court later reversed its original decision II. Upheld the use of eminent domain for the first time III. States restricted the use of eminent domain for redevelopment IV. Upheld the governmental use of eminent domain to transfer of land from one private owner to another private owner to further economic development (A) II (B) III, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) II, III
The correct answer is “B” In a 5-4 opinion delivered by Justice John Paul Stevens, the majority held that the city's taking of private property to sell for private development qualified as a "public use" within the meaning of the takings clause. Kelo v. City of New London did not establish entirely new law concerning eminent domain. Although the decision was controversial, it was not the first time “public use” had been interpreted by the Supreme Court as “public purpose”. In the majority opinion, Justice Stevens wrote the "Court long ago rejected any literal requirement that condemned property be put into use for the general public" [i.e. Berman v. Parker (1954)]. However, public reaction to the decision was highly unfavorable. As a result, many states changed their eminent domain laws. Prior to the Kelo decision, only eight states specifically prohibited the use of eminent domain for economic development except to eliminate blight. Since the decision, forty-four states have amended their eminent domain laws. Of those states, 22 enacted laws that severely inhibited the takings allowed by the Kelo decision, while the rest enacted laws that place some limits on the power of municipalities to invoke eminent domain for economic development. The remaining eight states have not passed laws to limit the power of eminent domain for economic development. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kelo_v._City_of_New_London https://www.oyez.org/cases/2004/04-108
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I. (137) In the 2010 Census, the fastest growing state over the previous decade was: A) Arizona B) Nevada C) Texas D) New Mexico
The correct answer is “B” Nevada was the fastest-growing state between 2000 and 2010, growing by 35.1 percent (see Table 1 in link below). It was followed by Arizona (24.6 percent), Utah (23.8 percent), Idaho (21.1 percent), and Texas (20.6 percent). http://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/briefs/c2010br-01.pdf
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II. (138) Net Land Area is described as... A) the entire site B) the land below the ground level C) the entire site minus the undevelopable land D) None of the above
The correct answer is “C” Net land area for the purpose of computing density/intensity is typically that total land area within the property boundaries of a subject parcel, exclusive of any undevelopable lands (e.g. submerged land or public road right-of-way). http://www.co.pinellas.fl.us/ppc/maps/newcwp/60dayappxb.pdf
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I. (139) According to the 2010 census, the fastest growing metropolitan statistical area in the U.S. was: (A) Palm Coast, Florida (B) The Villages, Florida (C) Houston, Texas (D) Los Vegas, Nevada
The correct answer is “A” Among all 366 metro areas, Palm Coast, FL, was the fastest-growing between 2000 and 2010 (up 92.0 percent); Las Vegas grew by 41.8% and Houston by 26.1%. The Villages, located to the west of the Orlando metro area, grew by 5.4 percent between July 1, 2013, and July 1, 2014, to reach a population of about 114,000, and was the nation's fastest growing metro area from 2013 to 2014, according to U.S. Census Bureau metropolitan statistical area, micropolitan statistical area and county population estimates released in 2015. https://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/briefs/c2010br-01.pdf http://www.census.gov/newsroom/press-releases/2015/cb15-56.html
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III. (140) To obtain the highest score in a Walkscore, an amenity must be within approximately: A) 1/10 mile B) 1/5 mile C) 1/4 mile D) 1/2 mile
The correct answer is “C” The Walk Score algorithm awards points based on the distance to the closest amenity in each category. If the closest amenity in a category is within ¼ mile, the maximum number of points is awarded. The number of points declines as the distance approaches 1 mile — no points are awarded for amenities further than 1 mile away. Relevant amenities include businesses, parks, theaters, schools and other common destinations. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Walk_Score
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V. (141) As the newly appointed planning director in the small town of Sugar Grove. Your wife is also the new owner of a gardening store that is applying for the construction of a large green house to be built adjacent to the store. This will need to be reviewed by the planning commission for approval. In this example, you should do which of the following: A) You should craft an extensive staff report about the benefits of the greenhouse for the community, referencing the potential classes that could be taught there. B) Invite the planning commission to try and grow flowers and plants outdoors in the winter months. C) Ask your wife to offer complimentary "flowers for a year" to all Planning Commissioners. D) Inform the Commission about your connection to the case and remove yourself from the review process.
The correct answer is “D” As the Planning Director, you should inform the Planning Commission about your connection to the petitioner as well as the case, and remove yourself from the planning review process. There could be a perceived conflict of interest if you were a deciding factor in the review and approval of the project.
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I. (142) The doctrine of inverse condemnation is predicated on which of the following propositions? A) a taking can occur without a formal eminent domain proceeding B) use of private land by the public for 30 years or more results in public ownership C) local government has no authority to condemn private property D) only the state can exercise eminent domain powers
The correct answer is A) Inverse condemnation refers to the process of so regulating private property that in fact, a taking of property rights occurs without fair compensation.
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III. (143) Your coastal county has suddenly been experiencing explosive growth, coupled with the current inability of your local government to fund needed infrastructure to support that new growth. However, because of the ongoing gentrification and rising house prices, your community has also been experiencing significant difficulties with the availability of housing for senior citizens, students, and unmarried public workers (i.e. teachers, fire fighters, police, etc.). The Planning Director has been directed to find a solution to these issues, and she assigns you to bring her back recommendations on how to resolve these issues within the next two weeks. Among your recommendations would be analyses of the following tools: I. Requiring new development to be totally responsible for all needed infrastructure II. Allowing accessory housing III. Constructing exclusionary public housing IV. Passing new development impact and linkage fees (A) I, IV (B) II, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is (B) Option “I” may violate the dual nexus tests of Nollan and Dolan by requiring new development to be TOTALLY responsible for ALL needed infrastructure, which may exceed the “rough proportionality” of their impacts (e.g. a project may be projected to only impact 5% of the roadway capacity of a new roadway improvement). Option “III” may be illegal. FOR MORE INFORMATION - see: APA’s Accessory Housing: “Zoning Practice” (July 2012); APA’S PAS Report 561: Fiscal Impact Analysis: Methodologies for Planners (2010); p. 5; Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practice (2009); p. 380
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II. (144) The first city comprehensive plan is associated with: I. Chicago II. Daniel Burnham III. Cincinnati IV. Alfred Bettman (A) I, II (B) III, IV (C) I, IV (D) II, IV
The correct answer is “B“ Cincinnati was the first city in the United States to have a comprehensive plan approved by a City Council. Sponsored by the United City Planning Committee and paid for by donations, the plan was started in 1922 and finished in 1925. It was led by Alfred Bettman, a Cincinnati lawyer; Ladislas Segoe, an immigrant planner from Hungary; and George B. Ford and Ernest P. Goodrich, of New York, the owners of the first American planning consulting firm. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/City_Plan_for_Cincinnati#1925:_Official_Plan_of_the_City_of_Cincinnati
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II. (145) What is the term for the statutory requirement that "No county shall incur any indebtedness...exceeding in any year the income and revenue provided for such year"? A) long term debt B) short term debt C) balanced budget requirement D) all of the above
The correct answer is C) The above requirement is a debt limitation law, requiring that the county not incur indebtedness in any year that exceeds its income and revenue for that year.
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I. (146) As a partner in a new consulting firm, you have been charged with determining the type of corporation your firm will elect. You are leaning toward the election of an "S" corporation. What is one of the distinguishing facets of an "S" corporation? A) it is tax-exempt B) it is limited to corporations of 25 or fewer full-time employees C) the corporations profits are "passed through" to the shareholders D) all of the above
The correct answer is C) An "S" corporation does not usually pay tax on any of its income, but rather passes through profits (and losses) to its stockholders in proportion to their stock holdings in the corporation
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I. (147) An easement that affects property abutting the holder of an easement is referred to as what? A) appurtenant easement B) restricted easement C) easement in gross D) positive easement
The correct answer is A) As an example, an appurtenant easement can be used by a landowner to prevent his abutter from blocking a scenic view or direct sunlight for solar heating.
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III. (148) The Low Income Housing Tax Credit: I. Is implemented by state agencies and the IRS II. Caused an increase in the rise of home ownership III. Provides inexpensive public housing, but does not accept vouchers IV. Is used by developers in attracting equity capital (A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, IV (C) II, III (D) I, II
The correct answer is “B” The Low Income Housing Tax Credit (LIHTC) program, the nation's largest affordable housing subsidy program, is not administered by HUD, and was passed as part of the Tax Reform Act of 1986 to encourage equity capital investment in multifamily housing for those in need of rent restricted affordable housing. LIHTC owners may not refuse to rent to Rental Voucher holders, and because tax credits are competitively allocated, states may impose more restrictive requirements than the federal program minimums. The LIHTC provides funding for the development costs of low-income housing by allowing an investor (usually the partners of a partnership that owns the housing) to take an IRS federal tax credit equal to a percentage (up to 70 percent or 30 percent of PV depending on the credit type) of the cost incurred for development of the low-income units in a rental housing project. To take advantage of the LIHTC, a developer will typically propose a project to a state agency, seek and win a competitive allocation of tax credits, complete the project, certify its cost, and rent the project to low income tenants. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Low-Income_Housing_Tax_Credit http://nnedv.org/downloads/Thousing/NHLP_LIHousingTaxCredit_Nov2012.pdf
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V. (149) Which of the following aspirational principles of the Code would benefit from the use of social media? I. Increase public understanding of planning activities. II. Give people the opportunity to have meaningful impact on development. III. Ensure that there is training for citizens on planning matters. IV. Provide timely, adequate, clear and accurate information on planning issues. A) I, II, IV B) I, III C) II, III, IV D) II, IV
The correct answer is “A” III is not an aspirational principle in the code. All of the others are in the code and would clearly benefit from social media efforts by planners.
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I. (150) In the 2010 Census, the state with the largest numeric population increase over the previous decade was: A) Nevada B) Florida C) Texas D) California
The correct answer is “C” Texas experienced the largest population increase between 2000 and 2010, growing by over four million in population (see Table 1 in link below). It was followed by California (over 3 million), Florida (over 2 million), Georgia (over 1.5 million), and North Carolina (just under 1.5 million). Michigan was the only state to lose population. http://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/briefs/c2010br-01.pdf
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II. (151) What planning process: 1) focuses on selected issues, 2) considers resource availability, 3) considers major events and changes occurring outside of the organization, 4) assesses strengths and weaknesses, 5) is action oriented with emphasis on practical results, and 6) is strongly participatory using a consensus of the best minds for decision making? (A) Comprehensive planning. (B) Advocacy planning. (C) Strategic Planning. (D) Implementation planning.
The correct answer is “C” Strategic planning is an organization's process of defining its strategy, or direction, and making decisions on allocating its resources to pursue this strategy. SWOT Analysis (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities,Threats) is central to strategic planning. This strategic analysis is the key stage for flushing out the major strategic issues to be addressed in the strategic plan. These strategic issues are few in number, and huge in the importance to the performance of the organization. With these elephant like issues clearly identified from the SWOT, a planning team can devise strategies to achieve the organization's overall purpose, within a specific bracket of targets. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strategic_planning http://www.simply-strategic-planning.com/swot-analysis.html
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III. (152) Which is the BEST definition of Transect Planning? A) Transect Planning involves zoning for mixed use within walking distance of transportation nodes. B) Transect Planning places the highest densities in the town center and less and less density towards the edge. C) Transect Planning creates buffers or boundaries between built environments, often based on environmental features. D) Transect Planning is based upon centering high density areas near transportation nodes.
The correct answer is “B” Transect Planning is a term, created through the New Urbanism movement that deals with the following elements: 1) The highest density is in the town center, and as you move outwards towards the edges there is less density; 2) It is an analytical system that creates a series of specific natural habitats or urban lifestyle settings; 3) The resulting urban to rural transect hierarchy has appropriate building and street types for each area. Source: www.newurbanism.com
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V. (153) You are a planner for a city planning department and you have an old friend who runs a planning consulting firm in the same city. Your friend submits a competitive proposal to work as a consultant for your department to you on Friday and while in your office, asks you to be her guest for dinner at a very fancy restaurant on Saturday evening. What should you do if you actually have no influence about awarding the contract? A) Go to dinner, as there is no conflict of interest B) Go to dinner, but pay for your own dinner C) Go to dinner, but make sure not to discuss the proposal D) Decline going to dinner
The correct answer is D) You should worry about the appearance of a conflict of interest, even if the invitation for dinner is not intended to enhance your friend’s chances of being awarded the contract (Rules of Conduct 5, 8, 19). Because you have no influence about the decision to award the contract, which would include having no professional contact with the decision-makers, you might have dinner with your friend, but it might be safer to postpone the dinner until after the contract has been awarded.
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III. (154) What is the definition of "the surface and subsurface area surrounding a water well or wellfield, supplying a public water system through which contaminants are reasonably likely to move"? A) wellhead protection area B) watershed C) an aquifer D) The Safe Drinking Water Act
The correct answer is A) The extent of the wellhead protection area was left up to individual state and local governments by the 1986 Amendments to the Safe Drinking Water Act.
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I. (155) According to the 2010 Census, the region which grew fastest was the: (A) West (B) Northeast (C) South (D) Midwest
The correct answer is “C” According to the 2010 Census, regional growth was much faster for the South and West (14.3 and 13.8 percent, respectively) than for the Midwest (3.9 percent) and Northeast (3.2 percent). http://www.census.gov/prod/cen2010/briefs/c2010br-01.pdf
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III. (156) Urban design techniques to calm traffic include: I. Deflecting (introducing curvature to) the vehicle path II. Revising the posted speed downward III. Narrowing the real or apparent width of the street IV. Altering the vertical profile of the vehicle path (A) I, II (B) III, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C“ The question asks for design techniques – lowering the speed limit is not a design technique. http://www.massdot.state.ma.us/portals/8/docs/designguide/ch_16.pdf
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I. (157) The development of edge cities are influenced by which of the following factors? I. Freeways. II. Less expensive land. III. Urban renewal programs. IV. Economic development programs. A) I and III B) II and III C) I and II D) III and IV
The correct answer is “C”. An Edge City is a term for a concentration of business, shopping, and entertainment outside a traditional downtown (or central business district) in what had previously been a residential or rural area. The term was popularized in the 1991 book Edge City: Life on the New Frontier by Joel Garreau. Most edge cities develop at or near existing or planned freeway intersections, and their development would have been fundamentally impossible without the automobile. It was not until automobile ownership surged in the 1950s, after four decades of fast steady growth, that the edge city became truly possible, in order to have ready access to development developing in cheaper, rural or suburban areas. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Edge_city
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IV. (158) Which of the following are true about the planning process in most jurisdictions? I. The planning office and staff make recommendations to the governing body II. The planning office and staff have final authority on planning decisions III. Planners establish policies first and then determine goals and objectives IV. A body of appointed citizens, such as a planning commission, oversees comprehensive plans (A) I & IV (B) I, II (C) I, II, & III (D) II, IV
The correct answer is “A” Planning staff make recommendations but the governing body has final authority. Planners establish goals and objectives before determining policies. Planning staff generally report to an appointed body that acts as a balance to short term elected officials.
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III. (159) The Federal Telecommunications Act of 1996 limits the authority of local governments to apply zoning regulations to proposed wireless communications facilities. Which of the statements below is not a requirement of the Telecommunications Act? A) the municipality may not regulate the height of proposed wireless communications facilities B) the municipality may not prohibit proposed wireless services facilities C) the municipality may not discriminate between providers of wireless services D) the municipality may not regulate proposed wireless communications facilities regarding the potential health effects of radio-frequency emissions
The correct answer is A) Section 332(C)(7)(B) of the Federal Telecommunications Act of 1996 prohibits municipalities from: 1) prohibiting wireless services, 2) discriminating among providers of wireless services, and 3) regulating based upon potential health effects of wireless facilities.
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V. (160) An oil company is interested in building a refinery on several thousand acres of waterfront property that the company owns. The general plan classifies this area as recreational and residential. The oil company files a re-zoning application to change this area to a heavy industrial classification. The planning director opposes the rezoning amendment stating that the scenic area is a valuable natural resource. Assume that the planning agency acted legally in all respects (proper notice, etc.). However, the county commissioners approve the amendment. A group of residents who live near the proposed refinery site take the case to court and subpoena the planning director to testify. The planning director provides some information to the citizens' group as they prepare their case and also testifies truthfully in court about the value of the property to the community. Under the AICP Code of Ethics, all the following are true about the behavior of the planning director except: A) The director was acting in an ethically responsible manner in trying to protect the integrity of the natural environment. B) The director should not have testified in court. The Code of Ethics requires planners to accept the decisions of their employers. C) The director served the public interest by providing information to citizens preparing their case. D) The director exhibited a concern for the long-range consequences of the proposed land use changes.
The correct answer is B) See Ethical Principle 1, Rules of Conduct 1 and 25. Members of AICP must comply with the law, including complying with a subpoena.
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III. (161) Places in the U.S. that have multi-state regional planning entities: I. Texas, Oklahoma, New Mexico, Arizona II. New Jersey & New York III. Nevada & California IV. New York, West Virginia, Maryland, Washington D.C., Delaware, Virginia, Pennsylvania (A) II (B) I, III (C) II, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “C” The Port Authority of New York & New Jersey; the Tahoe Regional Planning Agency; and the Chesapeake Bay Commission are all examples of multi-state jurisdictional planning entities that currently exist. Other examples include the Conference of Great Lakes and St. Lawrence Governors and Premiers; the Appalachian Regional Commission; and the Delta Regional Authority. http://www.panynj.gov/ http://www.trpa.org/ http://www.chesbay.us/
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II. (162) The owner of the local NHL hockey team, the Sudbury Wolves, tells the mayor through the press that he will relocate his team unless the city builds him a new hockey rink that is separate from the current shared facility with the NBA team, the Sudbury Skyhooks. The mayor wants the team to stay for her political ambitions and she asks the planning director to evaluate the cost-benefit aspects of constructing a new ice rink. The planning staff does the analysis and concludes that a large public investment such as this new ice arena is not worthwhile for the community as a whole. As the Planning Director, which of the following is the BEST course of action when going back to both the mayor and the press? A) You should resign B) You could provide the mayor with a draft report C) You should go directly to the press, by passing the mayor because you know her stance on the issue D) You should tell your staff to change the outcome of the report to support the development of the rink
The correct answer is “B” The Staff report should use a cost vs. benefits analysis and show whether or not there are or is evidence for economic development. Section A of the Code of Ethics: The Planner's Responsibility to the Public, Section A: A planner's primary obligation is to serve the public interest. While the definition of the public interest is formulated through continuous debate, a planner owes allegiance to a conscientiously attained concept of the public interest, which requires these special obligations: 1) A planner must have special concern for the long range consequences of present actions; 2) A planner must pay special attention to the interrelatedness of decisions; 3) A planner must strive to provide full, clear and accurate information on planning issues to citizens and governmental decision-makers. So now that we see from the above that the planner must look at the facts to see what is truly best for the public as a whole. There are further ways of looking at this because of the politics involved in this situation, you and your staff could provide the mayor with a draft report and let the mayor review the analysis with you. This way it is a draft and if she wants to let the analysis out to the press she may feel more comfortable knowing that there is room for analysis. Another option would be to refer the analysis of building an ice rink or not to a private consultant. This way if the report is not in favor of the stadium the mayor can ask for a new report to be done or you can work towards other solutions to the issue and/or problem. If all else fails you could even sit down with the Mayor to try and come up with a strategy to the issue.
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I. (163) The long form of the US Census in 2000 collected which of the following data in addition to the short form questionnaire? I) Marital status II) Labor force status (current) III) Number of bedrooms IV) Value of home A) I, II B) II, III, IV C) I, III, IV D) I, II, III, IV
The correct answer is “D” The long-form questionnaire is used to collect more detailed information from approximately one in six households. In addition to all of the 100-percent data, the long-form questionnaire for Census 2000 collected sample data on the social and economic characteristics of the population and the physical and financial characteristics of housing.
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III. (164) The preservation of historic structures can best be assured by: (A) Asking owners of historic properties to renovate them and to avoid demolition (B) Creating historic preservation districts that govern the use and maintenance of contributing buildings in the district (C) Developing a historic properties inventory and including it in the Comprehensive Plan (D) Creating a commission to publicize the historic character of these structures
The correct answer is “B” The designation of a historic district and the imposition of special architectural controls are ways to integrate historic-preservation controls into a zoning ordinance. This regulates the treatment of historic buildings rather than depending on voluntary or informational means alone.
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III. (165) What land use has the highest traffic/trip peak in morning and late afternoon? (A) Residential (B) Office (C) Retail (D) Industrial
The correct answer is “A” The morning and afternoon traffic peaks both have trip ends that are home-based for many of the trips, even if they’re going and coming from work (i.e. office, retail, industrial). These are known as Home-Based Work (HBW) trips.
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III. (166) Which is the least responsible for homelessness? (A) Rent control (B) Housing supply (C) Housing costs (D) Unemployment
The correct answer is “A” Rent “control” (i.e. a system of rent regulation, administered by a court or a public authority, which limits the changes that can be made in the price of renting a house or apartment as a means of controlling the prices of rent and often counteract the inequality of bargaining power between landlords and tenant) is not typically a cause of homelessness. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rent_control https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/homelessness.htm
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V. (167) A planner’s Facebook friends include several members of a local development firm. The planner should therefore: A) Avoid chatting with them B) Delete his membership C) Be aware of appearances of conflicts D) Post only items not related to planning
The correct answer is “C” While social media is an open public forum and has many advantages, planners should be aware of the rule about appearance of conflict of interest and watch the context of their participation.
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I. (168) A city condemns a landowner’s property in order to stop blight from further extending into other areas of the City. The City intends to clear the land and resell it to another private owner who is willing to construct new commercial space. The same City condemns another private site for a parking garage to be constructed by the City and leased to a private operator. The operator is free to set parking rates at any level and may use part of the property for a restaurant. How would a federal court react to the “parking garage” condemnation? A) They would defer to the city's own legislative judgment. B) They would require the parking lot maintain in public ownership. C) They would require the parking lot maintain in public ownership and establish parking rates determined to be fair and reasonable. D) This case would not go before a federal court.
The correct answer is “A” Berman vs. Parker (1954) and, now, Kelo vs. London (2005) establish the underlying case law in which all legislative bodies determine the appropriateness of eminent domain. In this case, the Federal court would defer to the City's legislative judgment that the parking garage is serving a public benefit. The fact that a private party is going to operate the garage and set the rates is of little concern to the federal court. However, a state court might invalidate the city’s actions because of the more demanding view of public use required under state law, the presence of the private enterprise that may be prohibited under state eminent domain laws, or the fact that the city lacks control over the parking rates.
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V. (169) A private sector planner is preparing a site plan for a small 20 home residential community that is part of a much larger residential golf course development. She intends to secure local government approval for her client's development, since it could lead to additional work for her in the future phases of the golf course project. According to the AICP Code of Ethics: A) There is no conflict of interest since she is not a public sector planner. B) She can only work on 25% of the entire development without declaring an economic interest in the project. C) There is a conflict of interest only if she purchases a home within the development within One year. D) This definitely constitutes a conflict of interest.
The correct answer is “A” Because she is a Private sector planner, there is no conflict of interest. If she were a public sector planner who was only approving the first phase of the project in hopes that she would be able to acquire a job with the developer in the near future or be able to work on the future parts of this specific project, then there could be a potential of a conflict of interest.
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III. (170) A community with an aging population is reconsidering its land use and housing policies to promote aging in place. Such considerations may include: I. Promoting granny flats II. Relaxing development standards for nursing homes Ill. Improving transit services to residential neighborhoods IV. Providing loans and grants for accessibility improvements at homes A. I and IV only B. I, II, and Ill only C. I, Ill, and IV only D. All of above
The correct answer is “C” Relaxing development standards for nursing homes is not an Aging in Place strategy. The Center for Disease Control defines aging in place as "the ability to live in one's own home and community safely, independently, and comfortably, regardless of age, income, or ability level. Options I, III and IV help accomplish that. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aging_in_place http://www.aarp.org/content/dam/aarp/livable-communities/plan/planning/aging-in-place-a-toolkit-for-local-governments-aarp.pdf