H 2021 Flashcards
(170 cards)
III. (1) The Mayor established a citizen’s advisory group to provide recommendations to the Town
Council on the siting of new religious institutions within the rural community that includes an
agricultural reserve area. Which of the following draft recommendations would you identify to
discuss with the citizen’s advisory group as potentially being problematic under the federal Religious
Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act (RLUIPA):
(A) Exclude all religious institutions from the central business district
(B) Establish a minimum 1,000-foot buffer requirement between nonagricultural, nonresidential
uses in an agricultural district “to protect, preserve, and enhance the rural character and
lifestyle of existing low-density areas and agricultural use”
(C) Establish a conditional use approval process for certain religious institutions
(D) Require religious homeless shelters to comply with the town’s building code
The correct answer is (C)
RLUIPA cautions local governments not to “substantially burden” a religious land-use applicant’s right to
free exercise. A conditional use approval process covering only some religious institutions appears to
discriminate against those religious institutions, compared to other, non-covered, religious institutions,
and thereby likely creates a substantial burden for the covered religious institutions.
To date, the courts have generally found that the government did not substantially burden the religious
land-use applicant in three broad categories where:
1. General zoning and land-use restrictions apply to everyone.
EXAMPLE: Establishing a minimum 1,000-foot buffer requirement between nonagricultural,
nonresidential uses in an agricultural district “to protect, preserve, and enhance the rural
character and lifestyle of existing low-density areas and agricultural use”
2. Churches are excluded from some districts.
EXAMPLE: Excluding all religious institutions from the central business district
3. General review processes apply to everyone.
EXAMPLE: Requiring religious homeless shelters to comply with the town’s building code
(like everyone else)
PROBLEMATIC: Establishing a conditional use approval process for certain religious
institutions (e.g. Moslem; thereby treating them differently)
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Religious Land Use and Institutionalized Persons Act of
2000”, p. 586
Zoning Practice (October 2010), What Constitutes a ‘Substantial Burden’ Under RLUIPA?
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9006935/
Zoning Practice (September 2008), The Zoning of Religious Institutions in the Wake of RLUIPA
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9027708/
V. (2) A county planner (FAICP) pleads nolo contendere to a charge of perjury with the judge then
withholding adjudication, resulting in:
(A) A hearing to determine the removal of their FAICP membership
(B) No ethics issue is involved, as a plea of nolo contendere is not addressed by the code, and
adjudication was withheld by the judge in this case
(C) A duty to immediately notify the Ethics Officer by both receipted Certified and Regular First
Class Mail of being convicted of a “serious crime”
(D) No issue, as the Ethics code applies only to AICP planners
The correct answer is (C)
A FAICP member is a Fellow of the American Institute of Certified Planners and subject to the Code of
Ethics. Rule of Conduct #26 requires that “We shall not fail to immediately notify the Ethics Officer by
both receipted Certified and Regular First Class Mail if we are convicted of a “serious crime” as defined in
Section E of the Code; nor immediately following such conviction shall we represent ourselves as Certified
Planners or Members of AICP until our membership is reinstated by the AICP Ethics Committee pursuant
to the procedures in Section E of the Code.” Part E.3. of the Ethics Code directs that perjury (i.e. false
swearing under oath) is considered to be a serious crime and that “The membership of a Certified
Planner shall be revoked if the Planner has been convicted of a “serious crime”. Membership shall be
revoked whether the conviction resulted from a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, from a verdict after
trial, or otherwise. Membership shall be revoked even if the Planner is appealing a conviction, but it will
be reinstated if the conviction is overturned upon appeal.” It doesn’t matter that adjudication was
withheld by the judge; the planner still entered a plea of nolo contendere covered by the code.
SOURCES:
AICP Ethics Code - https://www.planning.org/ethics/ethicscode/
AICP Ethics Report (2017) - https://www.planning.org/ethics/report/
II. (3) The Mayor asks the Planning Director to develop a planning strategy to address the
community’s Zombie subdivisions. The Planning Director will develop planning strategies to address
all of the following, except:
(A) Threats to safety and health
(B) Long-term service costs
(C) Illegal development
(D) New development planning
The correct answer is (C)
Zombie subdivisions are unfinished housing developments with at least some infrastructure in place that
were left unfinished after the housing bubble burst in 2008. Some are empty, but others are partially
inhabited, requiring the delivery of public services to remote neighborhoods that generate very little tax
revenue. Such lots can also pose health and safety issues from wildfires, flooding, erosion, water
contamination, and poor emergency access. They are prime candidates for additional planning efforts
for communities seeking to regulate unfinished subdivisions; take advantage of the already built, underutilized, infrastructure; or to support rezoning lands to limit the number of potential residential
development entitlements.
SOURCE:
Zoning Practice (May 2014), Zombie Slaying
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9006890/
https://www.lincolninst.edu/publications/articles/combating-zombie-subdivisions
I. (4) Place the following generations in order from youngest to oldest:
(A) Generation X, Silent Generation, Millennials, Baby Boomers
(B) Silent Generations, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials
(C) Millennials, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Silent Generation
(D) Millennials, Generation X, Baby Boomers, Silent Generation
The correct answer is (D)
Millennials, also known as the Millennial Generation, Echo/Shadow Boomers (i.e. because they
are the children of Baby Boomers), or Generation Y, is the demographic cohort following Generation X.
Commentators use birth dates ranging from the early 1980s to the early 2000s.
Generation X, commonly abbreviated to Gen X, is the generation born after the Western Post–
World War II baby boom. Demographers, historians and commentators use birth dates ranging from the
early 1960s to the early 1980s.
The Baby Boomers are the generation that was born following World War II, generally from
1946 up to 1964, a time that was marked by an increase in birth rates. In the 1960s, as the relatively
large numbers of young people became teenagers and young adults, they, and those around them,
created a very specific rhetoric around their cohort, and the change they were bringing about.
The Silent Generation, also known as the Lucky Few, were born from approximately 1925 until
1942. It includes some who fought in World War II, most of those who fought the Korean War and many
during the Vietnam War.
SOURCE:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Generation#Western_world
I. (5) Digital billboards have become all the rage in your municipality. As Planning Director you ask
your senior staff to revise your existing sign ordinances to address:
(A) Message Control and Illumination
(B) Illumination and no net increase policies
(C) Amortization
(D) Message Control
The correct answer is (B)
Ordinances addressing message control will likely run into significant first amendment challenges, and
the billboard industry has been highly successful at restricting the use of amortization through both
state and federal legislation (e.g. the federal Highway Beautification Act, which was modified many
years ago under industry pressure to prohibit amortization and requires cash compensation for billboard
removal).
SOURCES:
Zoning Practice (April 2008), Looking Ahead: Regulating Digital Signs and Billboards
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9027703/
PAS QuickNotes (February 2009), Regulating On-Premise Signage
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007615/
APA Policy Guide (1997) – Billboard Controls
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/billboards.htm
III. (6) Riparian rights can be described as:
(A) Reasonable use of water as flows under your property
(B) Principal western water right law
(C) First in time, first in right
(D) Prior appropriation
The correct answer is (A)
RIPARIAN water rights (or simply riparian rights) is a system for allocating water among those who
possess land along its path. Under the riparian principle, all landowners whose properties adjoin a body
of water have the right to make reasonable use of it as it flows through, under, or over their properties.
These rights cannot be sold or transferred other than with the adjoining land and only in reasonable
quantities associated with that land. Riparian rights include such things as the right to access for
swimming, boating and fishing; the right to wharf out to a point of navigability; the right to erect
structures such as docks, piers, and boat lifts; the right to use the water for domestic purposes; the right
to accretions caused by water level fluctuations; the right to exclusive use if the waterbody is nonnavigable. Riparian rights also depend upon “reasonable use” as it relates to other riparian owners to
ensure that the rights of one riparian owner are weighed fairly and equitably with the rights of adjacent
riparian owners.
PRIOR APPROPRIATION water rights is the legal doctrine that the first person to take a quantity of water
from a water source for “beneficial use”—agricultural, industrial or household —has the right to
continue to use that quantity of water for that purpose (i.e. “First in time, First in Right”). Subsequent
users can take the remaining water for their own beneficial use provided that they do not impinge on
the rights of previous users. This doctrine developed in the western states of the United States. These
water rights are different from riparian water rights, which are applied in the rest of the United States.
SOURCES:
Zoning Practice (August 2009); Local Zoning and Water Rights
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9027671/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riparian_water_rights
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prior-appropriation_water_rights
I. (7) Real property does NOT include:
(A) Mineral Rights
(B) Light fixtures
(C) Easements
(D) Washer and dryer
The correct answer is (D)
Real property consists of all land, structures, firmly attached and integrated equipment (such as light
fixtures or a well pump), anything growing on the land, and all “interests” in the property which may be
the right to future ownership (remainder), right to occupy for a period of time (tenancy or life estate)
the right to drill for oil, the right to get the property back (a reversion) if it is no longer used for its
current purpose (such as use for a hospital, school or city hall), use of airspace (condominium) or an
easement across another’s property. Real property should be thought of as a group of rights like a
bundle of sticks which can be divided. It is distinguished from the other type of property, “personal
property”, which is made up of movable items.
SOURCES:
http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/real+property
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_property#USA
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Personal_property
I. (8) The dissimilarity index:
(A) Measures the genetic diversity between two species used to determine whether two species
constitute one or two discrete species.
(B) Is a census-related term that measures the relative separation or integration of groups across all
neighborhoods of a city or metropolitan area
(C) Is a statistical term that measures the degree of separation between two data sets
(D) Is the inverse of the correlation coefficient
The correct answer is (B)
The index of dissimilarity is a demographic measure of the evenness with which two groups are
distributed across component geographic areas that make up a larger area. The index score can also be
interpreted as the percentage of one of the two groups included in the calculation that would have to
move to different geographic areas in order to produce a distribution that matches that of the larger
area.
For example, the dissimilarity index measures the relative separation or integration of groups across the
census tracts of all neighborhoods of a city or metropolitan area. A high value indicates that the two
groups tend to live in different tracts. D ranges from 0 to 100. A value of 60 (or above) is considered very
high. It means that 60% (or more) of the members of one group would need to move to a different tract
in order for the two groups to be equally distributed. Values of 40 or 50 are usually considered a
moderate level of segregation, and values of 30 or below are considered to be fairly low.
SOURCES:
http://www.censusscope.org/us/s40/p75000/chart_dissimilarity.html
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Index_of_dissimilarity
http://www.s4.brown.edu/us2010/segregation2010/Default.aspx
II. (9) This type of survey is inexpensive, but does not work well with the disabled or the poorly
educated:
(A) Telephone survey
(B) Charrette
(C) Mailed-in survey
(D) In-person survey
The correct answer is (C)
The costs for mail surveys tend to be lower than those for telephone surveys, and mail surveys are a
good strategy for obtaining feedback from people who are dissatisfied with a service or have strong
concerns. However, return rate are low and mail surveys face the possibility of bias due to these low
response rates, especially for some of the following groups:
1. Very young children
2. People with illnesses or disabilities that preclude reading or responding in writing
3. People who do not speak or understand the language(s) in which the questions are written,
who cannot write in that language, or who are marginally literate or illiterate
4. Homeless adolescents and adult
5. People in institutional settings, such as hospitals or jails
SOURCES:
The Planner’s Use of Information (2003); “Mail-in Questionnaire”, pp. 67-68.
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Surveys” pp. 51-52.
I. (10) A 5th amendment taking occurs when:
(A) Government utilizes public property for a new highway
(B) Government seizes private property for a public use
(C) A regulation is enacted to regulate private property
(D) Adverse possession is invoked
The correct answer is (B)
The Fifth Amendment provides that private property shall not be taken without just compensation.
While the Fifth Amendment by itself only originally applied to actions by the federal government, the
Fourteenth Amendment extended the Takings Clause to actions by state and local government as well.
When the government wishes to acquire property (e.g building a new road), it first attempts to buy the
land from a willing seller. If the owner refuses to sell, the government may go to court to have the court
allow the condemnation and taking of the property by eminent domain. The government must
demonstrate that the property is being acquired “for public use,” and the government must pay “just
compensation” to the property owner.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Eminent Domain, Takings, and Exactions” pp. 563-565.
APA Policy Guide (1995) – Takings
https://www.planning.org/policy/guides/adopted/takings.htm
http://law2.umkc.edu/faculty/projects/ftrials/conlaw/takings.htm
II. (11) The Mayor directs you, the Planning Director, to undertake a community visioning exercise. To
ensure this effort is successful, you focus on the following important aspects, EXCEPT:
(A) Ensuring that key community institutions and opinion leaders are involved with the process.
(B) Engaging elected officials and city managers to gain their support of the effort
(C) Empowering the community to design and manage the visioning effort without assistance.
(D) Planning to follow-through and implement the resulting vision and action plan
The correct answer is (C)
One of the key reasons community visioning may fail is that the process may be poorly designed or
managed or inadequately resourced. Planning staff or outside expert assistance is typically required to
assist in ensuring the effort is successful. Other typical reasons why community visioning may be unsuccessful include:
* The community is too polarized to engage in a civilized dialogue
* Key community institutions or opinion leaders are not involved in the process
* Elected officials or city managers are unsupportive of the process
* There is no follow-through in implementing the vision and action plan
SOURCE:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Community Visioning” pp. 55-56
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/visioning/
III. (12) The Housing Act of 1937 involved which of the following?
(A) Tied slum clearance to public housing
(B) Began providing federal housing subsidies
(C) Began an interest subsidy program
(D) None of the above
The correct answer is (A)
The 1937 U.S. Housing Act (Wagner-Steagall) set the stage for future government aid by appropriating
$500 million in loans for low-cost housing, and tied slum clearance to public housing. Note, however,
that it is often the 1949 Housing Act that may come up on the actual exam regarding its “providing
federal financing for slum clearance programs associated with urban renewal projects in American
cities” (compared against the 1954 Housing Act that had provisions related to slum prevention). The
best bet is to have a clear understanding of how the various Housing Acts differed – i.e. 1934 (FHA,
FSLIC), 1937, 1949, 1954 (Section 701), 1968 (Fair Housing), 1974 (CBDG).
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Federal Housing and Community Development Law” pp.
581-583.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Category:United_States_federal_housing_legislation
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Housing_Act_of_1937
http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/United_States_National_Housing_Act_of_1937#Sec._9._Loans_for_LowRent-Housing_and_Slum-Clearance_Projects
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Housing_Act_of_1949
II. (13) Impact fees:
(A) Are usually collected prior to project approval
(B) Cover all infrastructure and service costs
(C) Are subject to the dual rational nexus standard
(D) Are funds that can be used anywhere within the city
The correct answer is (C)
An impact fee is a fee that is imposed by a local government on a new or proposed development project
to pay for all or, more typically, a portion of the costs of providing specific public services to the new
development. Most often covered are impacts to roads, sewer, and public water utilities; sometimes
impacts on schools, libraries, parks and fire protection are also covered. Impacts fees should not be used
to address existing deficiencies. Impact fees are either authorized by state enabling acts or by local
government home rule. The courts have derived two major tests for impact fees—the “rational nexus”
test (i.e. impact connected to the new development) and the “rough proportionality” test (i.e. cost
roughly equal to impact caused), more commonly known together as the Dual Rational Nexus test or
standard.
SOURCES:
PAS QuickNotes (December, 2011), Development Impact Fees
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007632/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Impact_fee
II. (14) The Visioning process allows for: early citizen involvement, impartial leadership, all inclusive
citizen participation, and:
(A) The savings of time and money
(B) Implementation of the comprehensive plan
(C) Heavy media involvement
(D) Ideal communities
The correct answer is (C)
Visioning is “planning at its boldest”, a participatory, collaborative, and consensus-driven planning
process that seeks to describe an agreed-upon long-range desired future for a community on the issues
that matter most to the community. Therefore, the most successful visioning efforts involve all
segments of the community. This generally involves the use of major multi-media strategies to both
encourage public participation from all interest groups, and to periodically publicize the success of
ongoing efforts and maintain forward momentum and retain continued interest and involvement in the
process.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Community Visioning” pp. 55-56
Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices (2009); pp. 216-217
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/visioning/
PAS QuickNotes (August 2008): Visioning
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9007612/
III. (15) Key issues of concern in waterfront planning do NOT include addressing:
(A) Gentrification
(B) Industrial development
(C) Sprawl
(D) Heavy metals
The correct answer is (C)
The loss of working waterfronts due to residential gentrification (and the continued retention of major
industrial areas that need to be on the water, such as boat repair facilities) is a significant planning issue
for many coastal areas, as is sediment contamination by heavy metals from such industrial and marine
activities.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Waterfronts” pp. 425-429
https://www.flseagrant.org/wateraccess/working-waterfronts-2/
http://www.washington-apa.org/assets/docs/new_efforts_with_working_waterfronts_and_public_access.pdf
III. (16) A Neighborhood plan:
(A) Often proposes a program of implementation longer in duration than is proposed in the general
plan
(B) Is intended to provide a more general inclusion of goals, policies and guidelines than in the
general plan
(C) Focuses on a specific geographic area of a local jurisdiction that typically includes substantial
residential development, associated commercial uses, and institutional services such as
recreation and education
(D) Has the sole sponsors of neighborhood plans being government and the citizens of the
neighborhoods affected.
The correct answer is (C)
The neighborhood plan is intended to provide more detailed goals, policies, and guidelines than those in
the general plan. The sponsors of neighborhood plans include cities, community development
organizations, foundations and private developers.
SOURCE:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Neighborhood Plans” pp. 16-17.
APA Knowledge Center - https://www.planning.org/knowledgebase/neighborhoods/
I. (17) Advocacy Planning is associated closely with Paul Davidoff. Which of the following was the
significant effect of the advocacy movement?
(A) Assisted single women with children find employment.
(B) Caused social planning to move from back room negotiations into the public forum.
(C) Reduced the need for more environmental documentation.
(D) Created economic stability.
The correct answer is (B)
The term advocacy planning was coined by Paul Davidoff in his famous 1965 article “Advocacy and
Pluralism in Planning”. Davidoff understood that planning had evolved in the United States with support
from governmental and development interests. This left under-represented low income and minority
groups vulnerable to the interests of those larger and more powerful public institutions and private
business interest, especially in the areas of access to the expertise, skills and information needed to
understand the planning decisions that affected them. He argued that planners should actively work
with these disadvantaged groups to help with the development of plans which incorporated and
addressed their social and economic needs. This open advocacy helped result in both making planning
more accessible to groups under-represented in planning, but also helped bring more transparency to
the planning process.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Advocacy and Equity Planning” pp. 82-83.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Advocacy_planning
II. (18) Which of the following represents the order of the basic rezoning process according to the
Standard State Zoning Enabling Act?
I. Plan Commission recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
II. Notice is given of the governing body public hearing
III. The governing body hearing occurs
IV. The governing body takes action
(A) II, I, III, IV
(B) I, II, III, IV
(C) III, I, II, IV
(D) IV, II, I, III
The correct answer is (B)
The Standard State Zoning Enabling Act states the following as the basic rezoning process:
1. Submittal of the zoning application
2. Application review by staff
3. Notice is given of the planning commission public hearing
4. The staff report is created
5. The planning commission hearing
6. The planning commission recommendation
7. The recommendation is forwarded to the governing body
8. Notice given of the governing body public hearing
9. The governing body hearing occurs
10. The governing body decision
SOURCE:
https://www.planning.org/growingsmart/enablingacts/
II. (19) Carrying Capacity is a concept associated with:
(A) Andres Duany
(B) Ebenezer Howard
(C) Frederick Law Olmsted, Jr.
(D) Ian McHarg
The correct answer is (D)
Ian L. McHarg was a landscape architect and a renowned writer on regional planning using natural
systems. He was the founder of the department of landscape architecture at the University of
Pennsylvania in the United States. His 1969 book Design with Nature pioneered the concept of
ecological planning. The book was essentially a step-by-step graphic overlay style instruction manual
about how to assess a region (big or small), in physical planning terms, and to determine appropriate
land uses that would endure and have long term sustainability (i.e. “intrinsic suitability”). This land use
suitability approach laid the basis for both GIS layering and the notion of carrying capacity, which is
basically the maximum population size that an environment or location can sustain indefinitely, without
adverse environmental changes.
SOURCES:
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3863853/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ian_McHarg
The Environmental Planning Handbook (2014); “How Humans fit into Ecosystems”; pp. 70-73.
III. (20) Which of the following is NOT true about a Metropolitan Planning Organization (MPO)?
(A) They are federally mandated for urbanized areas with a population over 250,000.
(B) They channel federal funds for transportation projects.
(C) They maintain a long-range transportation plan for a region.
(D) Their decision-making committees can be comprised of a mix of local, state, and federal
representatives.
The correct answer is (A)
MPOs are federally mandated for urbanized areas with a population over 50,000.
SOURCES:
Local Planning: Contemporary Principles and Practices (2009); pp. 180-181
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Metropolitan Planning Organizations” p. 102.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metropolitan_planning_organization
I. (21) Which of the following happened in 1909?
(A) The San Francisco Plan is completed by Burnham
(B) Yellowstone Park was designated
(C) The first National Conference on City Planning
(D) All of the above
The correct answer is (C)
APA traces its roots back to 1909 and the First National Conference on City Planning that was held in
Washington, D.C., organized by Benjamin Marsh and attended by professionals such as Frederick Law
Olmsted, Jr., John Nolan, Lawrence Veiller, and Jane Addams.
SOURCE:
https://www.planning.org/history/
I. (22) Village of Euclid v. Ambler Realty Co., 272 U.S. 365 (1926) dealt with which of the following
issues?
(A) Adult Uses
(B) Exactions
(C) Taking
(D) Sign Ordinance
The correct answer is (C)
Ambler Realty sued the village, arguing that the zoning ordinance had substantially reduced the value of
the land by limiting its use, amounting to a deprivation of Ambler’s liberty and property without due
process (i.e., an unconstitutional “taking”).
SOURCES:
https://planning-org-uploaded-media.s3.amazonaws.com/document/PLD-Land-Use-Law-Cases-2019.pdf
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Village_of_Euclid_v._Ambler_Realty_Co.
III. (23) According to Richard Florida, the types of urban areas that attract the “Creative Class” do NOT
require those with:
(A) Low taxes
(B) A highly talented/educated/skilled population
(C) A diverse community
(D) Technological infrastructure necessary to fuel an entrepreneurial culture
The correct answer is (A)
In Cities and the Creative Class (2004), Richard Florida devotes several chapters to discussion of the
three main prerequisites of creative cities (though there are many additional qualities which distinguish
creative magnets). For a city to attract the Creative Class, he argues, it must possess “the three ‘T’s”:
Talent (a highly talented/educated/skilled population), Tolerance (a diverse community, which has a
‘live and let live’ ethos), and Technology (the technological infrastructure necessary to fuel an
entrepreneurial culture). In Rise of the Creative Class, Florida argues that members of the Creative Class
value meritocracy, diversity and individuality, and look for these characteristics when they relocate
(2002).
SOURCES:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Creative_class
https://www.planning.org/planning/2008/jun/research.htm
PAS MEMO (October, 2016), Creative Placemaking
https://www.planning.org/publications/document/9115238/
I. (24) Which of the following groups of planning philosophies came before the City Humane
Movement?
(A) City Functional, City Efficient, City Beautiful and Garden City
(B) Garden City, Agrarian Philosophy, Laissez Faire, City Functional
(C) Public Health, Agrarian Philosophy, Laissez Faire, Garden City
(D) Agrarian Philosophy, Laissez Faire, Public Health, City Functional
The correct answer is (C)
The Public Health Movement developed in the late 1800s from a concern for public health and workers’
safety. This movement focused on the establishment of industrial safety requirements, maximum work
hours, minimum housing standards, public recreation amenities, and ensuring the provision of light and
air in cities.
The Garden City Movement began with Ebenezer Howard’s classic work, Tomorrow: A
Peaceful Path to Real Reform, which was published in 1898, later republished in 1902, Garden Cities of
Tomorrow. A reaction to industrialization and poor living conditions in cities, this movement was
predicated on the inherent immorality of the city, a return to the country village, and the sacredness of
nature. The Garden City Movement proposed public greenbelts and agricultural areas surrounding selfsupporting, satellite communities ringing a central garden city with maximum populations to prevent
sprawl.
Emphasizing design and aesthetics, the City Beautiful Movement emerged from the 1893 Columbian
Exposition in Chicago. The Exposition provided a prominent American example of a great group of
buildings designed in relation to each other and in relation to open spaces. Contributions of the
movement included: a revival of city planning and its establishment as a permanent part of local
government, an emphasis on physical site planning, the professional consultant role, and the
establishment of quasi-independent planning commissions composed of citizens.
The City Humane Movement occurred during the 1930’s and is associated with the Great Depression
and concentrated on social and economic issues and ways of alleviating the problems of unemployment,
poverty, and urban plight.
The City Functional Movement (included in the other three answers) developed during the 1940’s with
the growth of the military and renewed industrialization. This movement emphasized functionalism and
administrative efficiency, and contributed to the federal government’s increased involvement in local
planning and the passage of Section 701 of the Housing Act in 1954. The 701 program subsidized
thousands of general plans and, once expanded, special projects for cities, counties, regional councils of
government, and states until 1981.
SOURCES:
Planning and Urban Design Standards (2006); “Planning Movements” pp. 68-96.
http://www.cityofbenson.com/vertical/sites/%7BF59197D1-30ED-49AE-8751-
2EBA89C105BA%7D/uploads/pzhandbook_email.pdf (Chap. 2, p.5)
http://www.csun.edu/~schoi/urbs310_planninghistory_wk6.pdf