Hazmat 10 Flashcards
(231 cards)
1
Q
the sixth step in the eight step process 9*****)
A
Implementing response objectives
2
Q
The IC should analyze and visualize events at the emergency scene in three phases:
A
- what has already taken place
- what is taking place now
- what will most likely be taking place in the immediate future
3
Q
Getting the “big picture as quickly as possible is an important step in
A
- predicting what will happen in the future,
and - determining which options are available to influence those events
4
Q
Future Events: there are five factors identified by Benner 35 years ago, which can be remembered by the acronym
A
MOTEL magnitude occurrence timing effects location
5
Q
One of the ICs most critical task is to minimize uncertainty by using a structured (****) process to size up the problem and select the safest strategy to make the problem go away.
A
decision making
6
Q
(****) is a plan for managing resources.
A
strategy
7
Q
(****) becomes the ICs game plan to control the incident.
A
Strategy
8
Q
Strategies are very broad and developed at the
A
Command level
9
Q
Strategic goal are pursued simultaneously during an incident and include
A
Rescue Public protective actions Spill control (confinement) Leak control (containment) Fire control Recovery
10
Q
(*****) are the specific objectives the IC uses to achieve strategic goals.
A
Tactics
11
Q
To be effective, (***) need to be concise, easy to communicate, and achievable in a given timeframe with the resources available.
A
objective
12
Q
Tactics are normally decided at the (****) levels in the command structure.
A
section or group/division
13
Q
The success of obtaining agreement depends on
A
- the ICs ability to understand the differences in how responders perceive tasks.
- The ICs ability to explain the options available to the risk takers
- Getting other agencies and organizations involved in the incident to understand the big picture concerning what will be lost versus what will be gained
14
Q
Once the command level has committed to a strategy, subordinate branches, groups and divisions will implement the ICs general game plan by establishing specific (***)
A
tactical objectives
15
Q
A well defined (*****) has a stated objective that can be achieved using specific procedures and task within a reasonable period on time.
A
tactic
16
Q
Developing a (****) can be time consuming and lead to the “paralysis from analysis” mode, where everything is dissected, second guessed, and besieged by “what if” questions to the point that nothing gets done in a timely fashion.
A
Site Safety Plan
17
Q
Where there is (***) or a rescue is required, the site safety plan can be abbreviated and quickly communicated ,but the safety plan still needs to be determined and communicated.
A
imminent danger
18
Q
the ICS 200 form (***) is a useful guide and template for an IC to structure mitigation efforts.
A
Site safety and control plan
19
Q
(****) decision making is about using one tactic over another.
A
tactical.
20
Q
Examples of tactical options that can buy you time:
A
barriers
distance
time
techniques
21
Q
the first law of HOT Zone Operations is that personnel working in the Hot Zone must:
A
be trained to play be dressed to play use the buddy system have back up capability have emergency decon have ICs approval
22
Q
Hazmat RESCUES fall in to three general categories
A
- Searching for and relocating people
- Rescuing victims who have be disorientated or disabled
- Planning and executing technical rescue
23
Q
Technical rescue problems have several common elements that make them difficult to plan for and execute. these include
A
Hazardous atmospheres
Hazardous work areas
limited access area
24
Q
Rescues that do occur successfully are typically made by the initial responding (***) responders rather than Technical level responders who arrive later along the incident time line.
A
operations level
25
if the victim is trapped in the IDLH atmosphere and medical statistics tell you that humans are biologically dead in (******) after breathing has stopped, and it takes you 20 minutes to respond, set up, and start rescue you do the math
5 minutes
26
Without an oxygen supply to the brain, clinical death occurs in (*******) and biological death occurs in ((******)
3 minutes
| 5 minutes
27
According to OSHA the majority of the fatalities in confined spaces occur from entrapment in
1 toxic atmospheres
2 asphyxiating atmospheres
3 physical hazards inside the confined space.
28
According to OSHA a (*******) is "any area that has a restricted means of entry or exit; is large enough and so configured that an employee can bodily enter and preform assigned work; and is not designed for continuous employee occupancy
confined space
29
Approach a confined space rescue problem with the attitude that the atmosphere is (************)
flammable, toxic, and oxygen deficient or enriched
30
(*********) are a better option when working in a confined space.
Supplied Air respirators SAR
31
Even higher pressure, long duration SCBA units will often limit the actual on site working time to (******)
5 to 10 minutes
32
The use of an SAR can make entry into the space easier and extend the search and rescue time, but these units are limited to (******( of air hose.
300 feet
33
The potential for a flammable atmosphere inside most confined areas means that all lighting must be intrinsically safe. ton other words, the equipment must be suitable for (*********) atmosphere requirements
NEC Class 1, Division 2
34
Like hand lights radio equipment in confined spaces must meet (*******) atmosphere requirements.
NEC Class1, Division 2
35
Flammable atmospheres containing (*****) or less concentration of flammable vapors are considered within SAFE limits for conducting rescue operations. Concentrations between (******) are considered HAZARDOUS and should never be entered by rescue teams unless they have the proper PPE and respiratory protection and all electric equipment is rated for Class 1, Division 2 atmospheres.
10%
| 10 to 20%
36
The explosive range of many hydrocarbon vapors range from a (*******) vapor to air mixture, the explosive range for oxygenated materials like alcohols and glycols is wider.
1 to 10%
37
Any mixture of vapor and air between the (*******) will ignite when exposed to an ignition source and should be considered too dangerous for entry.
UEL and LEL
38
A rescuer who experiences damaged protective clothing or an air supply problem inside of a confined space with a toxic IDLH atmosphere faces
almost certain death
39
The people (*****) always have the final say on GO/NO GO
taking the risk
40
An oxygen deficient space has less than (*****) oxygen
19.5%
41
An oxygen enriched space is (*******) or greater in oxygen content.
23.5%
42
(******) atmosphere present rescuers with significant risks because of increased risk of fire.
Oxygen enriched
43
All potentially hazardous atmospheres in confined spaces should be confirmed by (******)
monitoring instruments
44
When the human body is deprived of oxygen death occurs in (*****) so the chances for life decline rapidly.
3 to 5 minutes
45
If a flammable hydrocarbon atmosphere is present the (******) will usually be exceeded before 10% of the lower flammable atmosphere is reached. Therefore, the atmosphere will almost always be toxic before reaching flammable concentrations
PEL and the TLV/YWA
46
As a general guideline, whenever the victim has been subjected to an oxygen deficient atmosphere less then 19.5%, or a flammable atmosphere of 10% or grater, or a toxic atmosphere above the PEL/TLV for periods longer than (******) minutes , the IC should consider the possibility that there is no real chance for successful rescue.
5 to 10 minutes
47
The lower the oxygen content and the higher the toxic and flammable atmosphere inside the confined space, the less likely the victim will survive periods of exposure exceeding (*****)
5 minutes
48
The following activities can help maintain site discipline until the problem has been eliminated and the incident safely terminated
maintain an Incident Safety Officer throughout the incident
Use formal site and safety checklist
Enforce isolation perimeter security and the use of hazard control zones
Establish a crew rotation schedule
49
(*******) strategies and (******) tactics are the actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area
spill control
| confinement
50
(********) tactics expose personnel to less risk than containment tactics.
confinement
51
If responders can accomplish the same objective using (******) tactics such as diking or remotely closing a valve, then they should be implemented before attempting higher risk offensive oriented options
confinement
52
Confinement tactics such as diversion can usually begin immediately upon the arrival of first responders trained to the (*******)
Operations Level
53
(********) id the physical process of absorbing or "picking up" a liquid hazardous material to prevent enlargement of the contaminated area
absorption
54
Operationally, absorbents are effective when dealing with liquids less then (****)
55 gallons
55
Materials used as (*****) include clay, sawdust, charcoal, absorbent particulate, socks, pans, pads, and pillows.
absorbents
56
(******) is the chemical in process in which a sorbate interacts with solid sorbent surface. since the sorbent surface is solid, the sorbate adheres to the surface and is not absorbed, as with absorbents
adsorption
57
(*****) is a physical method of confinement. is is typically a temporary measure until more effective control tactics can be implemented.
covering
58
(*******) is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed to prevent or reduce the quantity of liquid flowing into the environment.
Damming
59
(*****) consist of constructing a barrier across a waterway to stop/control the product flow and pick up the liquid or solid contaminants
Damming
60
There are two types of dams
overflow and under flow
61
(******) used to trap heavier than air material behind the dam (specific gravity >1) With the product trapped, uncontaminated water is allowed to flow unobstructed over the top of the dam.
Overflow dam
62
(*******) used to trap floating lighter then water materials behind the dam. Using PVC piping and hard sleeves, the dam is constructed in a manner that allows uncontaminated water to flow un obstructed under the dam while keeping the contaminant behind the dam
under flow dam
63
If the pipes are not deep enough on the upstream side of the dam, a whirlpool may be created and pull the hazardous substance through the pipes. This problem can be overcome through the use of a (******) on the upstream side
t- siphon
64
(*******) is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground used to control the movement of liquids, sludge, solids, or other materials.
diking
65
(*****0 prevent the passage of the hazmat to an area where it will produce more harm
dikes
66
Dikes are most effective when they can be built (****)
quickly
67
Slow moving or heavy materials should be confined by the use of a (*****)
circle dike
68
Faster moving products will require a (******) dike located in the best low lying area.
v shaped
69
(*****) is a chemical method by which a water soluble solution, usually a corrosive, is diluted by adding large volumes of water to the spill.
dilution
70
As a general rule, dilution on liquid substances and solid substances that are (******), and only when all other reasonable methods of mitigation and removal have proven unacceptable .
corrosives
71
dilution tactics are a (*****)
last resort
72
Dilution can be effective for small corrosive spill of (******), especially for concentrated corrosives with a pH of (************)
one quart or less
| pH of 0-2 )acidic) or pH 12-14 (alkaline)
73
Federal and most state regulations limit corrosive entries into storm drains and drainage canals to a (*********) a long as no other pollutants are involved that may bee harmful to the environment o wild life
pH of 6 to 8
74
a 1 gallon spill of an acid with a pH of zero will require (********) of water just to bring its pH up to 6
1 million
75
(*****) is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground or placed in a waterway to intentionally control movement of a hazardous material into an area where it will pose less harm
Diversion
76
(*****) can also be placed across stream and waterways to divert the hazardous substance into an area where it can be absorbed or picked up, such as with vacuum trucks.
booms
77
for fast moving spills a barrier constructed at a 45 degree perpendicular angle will be ineffective, a barrier angle of (*****) or more should be used.
60 degree
78
A typical 4 person crew can build a 20yard-by-8inch diversion wall in about (******) if the proper tools and equipment are available.
10 minutes
79
(******) is a chemical method of confinement by which certain chemical agents are used to disperse or break up the material involved in liquid spills on water.
dispersion
80
Dispersants are often applied to (******) spills, resulting in oil-in-water emulsions and diluting the hazmat to acceptable levels
hydrocarbon
81
(******) is a physical method of confinement by which a liquid is temporarily contained in an area where it can be absorbed, neutralized or picked up for proper disposal.
Retention
82
(******) is a physical method of confinement. Water spray or fans are used to disperse or move vapors away from the surface areas of the product.
vapor dispersion
83
vapor dispersion is particularly effective on (******) materials
water soluble
84
(********) is a physical method of confinement to reduce or eliminate the vapors emanating from spilled or released material.
Vapor suppression
85
Vapor mitigation agents like (*******) can mitigate dangerous vapor releases..
ANSULS TARGET 7
86
(****) is well suited for supporting emergency services with airborne recon
CAP CIVIL AIR PATROL
87
When planning leak control tasks, keep the time tested (******) principal in mind
KISS
| Keep It Simple Stupid
88
Liquid vapor expansion ratio for chlorine is (*****) and (******) for ammonia
460: 1
850: 1
89
(*******) is a chemical method of containment by which a hazmat is neutralized by applying a second material to the original spill that will chemically react with it to form a less harmful substance.
neutralization
90
operationally, many responders recommend that neutralization operations should be limited to spills of less than (******)
55 gallons
91
The most widely favored neutralizing agent from an environmental perspective are (********) (for acid spills) and (*****) (for alkali spills) sodium and calcium hydroxide will not produce a biodegradable end product.
sodium sesquicarbonate
| acetic acid
92
(*******) is a physical method of containment by which a leaking drum, container or cylinder is placed inside a larger undamaged and compatible over pack container.
over packing
93
Liquid over packs are constructed of both steel and polyethylene. they range in size from (*******)
5 gallon to 110 gallon
94
Lab packs range in size from (******)
20 gallons to 110 gallon
95
the (********) method. slip the compatible over pack container over the leaking drum
The inverted method
96
the (*****) method can be used if the leaking drum is in a horizontal position.
slide in method
97
The (*******) method is a variation of the slide method.
rolling slide in or v roll
98
A 55 gallon drum of sulfuric acid can weigh over (*****)
600 pounds
99
(******) are over pack drums used for transporting leaking, damaged, or deteriorated compressed gas cylinders.
Salvage cylinders
100
(*****) is a physical method of containment that uses chemically compatible patches to reduce or temporarily stop the flow of materials from small container holes, rips, tears, or gashes.
Patching (plugging)
101
leak bandages and leak sealing kits are effective tools for dealing with liquids with (*******)
low head pressures or low pressure gases (<100 psi)
102
Some inflatable air bag patch kits like VETTER BAG, are effective at pressures (*******)
less than 25 psi
103
Select a patching device at least (*******) than the breach
half a size larger
104
(******) involves putting something into a breach or an opening to reduce the size of the hole and the amount of product flow.
plugging
105
A small hole in an aluminum MC 306/DOT406 cargo tank can sometimes be plugged by driving a (********) into the opening with a rubber mallet.
wooden peg
106
Plugs constructed of (*****) are quite effective for holes whose area is less than 3 square inches
soft woods, such as yellow pine or douglas fir
107
Small holes (less than 1/2 diameter) not under pressure can be filled with (*****)
putty or epoxy resin compound
108
(*******) is a physical or chemical method of containment by which the internal pressure of a closed container is reduced. the tactical objective is to reduce the internal pressure in order to either reduce the flow or minimize the potential of container failure
Pressure isolation reduction
109
(*****) are the most common leaks found on cargo tank trucks and may be controlled by either closing valves or tightening the valve packing.
Piping and valve leaks
110
MC306/DOT 406 and MC 307/DOT407 are normally under (********) pressure.
gravity or atmospheric
111
MC312/DOT412 corrosive cargo tank trucks will often be (******)
under pressure
112
Pressure relief devices include (*****)
spring loaded pressure relief valves. Christmas tree vents, and rupture disks
113
dome cover leaks
| For MC306/DOT406 cargo tank trucks (******) can typically be used to control the leak.
dome clamps
114
dome cover leaks
MC307/DOt407 and MC312DOT412 cargo tank trucks, the leak can sometimes be controlled by tightening down the (******) found around the manway.
wing nuts
115
Cryogenic liquids are stored in pressurized containers at temperatures below (*******)
-130F
116
According to the"handbook of compressed gas" nearly 200 types of compressed gas are commonly shipped annually. More than (*******) different cylinder specification exist with more than (*******) different valve outlets used.
12
| 64
117
Most valves can be closed by turning the wheel (*****)
clockwise
118
(*****) is the controlled release of a material to reduce and control the pressure, and decrease the probability of a violent container eruption
venting
119
(******) is usually associated with venting and involves the use of physical or chemical filters or control devices to "scrub" contaminants, particulates or gases during normal or emergency response operations.
scrubbing
120
When activated an emergency scrubber is normally capable of filtering or neutralizing (*****) of accidental discharge
100%
121
(*******) is the controlled burning of a liquid or gas material to reduce or control pressure inside the tank, dispose of residual vapors .....
flaring
122
(*****) are deigned to bur either liquid or vapor product
flares
123
using a 2 inch diameter hose of 150 feet in length, it would take approximately (******) to flare off 30,000 gallons of propane, (*****) to burn off 11,500 gallons and (*****) to burn off 3,000 gallons
177 hours
54 hours
14 hours
124
Another factor affecting flaring operations involving liquefied gases is (*****)
auto refrigeration
125
(****) is used to gain access to bulk liquid or gas tanks, pipelines, or containers for the purpose of product removal It involves the welding of a threaded nozzle to the exterior of a tank or pipeline. A valve is then attached...
hot tapping
126
(****) is the process by which shaped explosive charges are placed by explosive demolition specialist on a flammable container,...
vent and burn
127
(*****) is at the high end of the tank
hole #1
128
(*****) is at the low point
hole #2
129
(*******) is a chemical method of containment whereby a liquid substance is chemically treated so that a solid material results
solidification
130
solidification is used for both (*******) and (******) spills
corrosive
| hydrocarbon
131
(*****) is a physical method of containment by which a hazardous material is placed in chemically compatible container by simply vacuuming it up
vacuuming
132
Vacuuming is usually preformed using a (******) vacuum
HEPA
133
A HEPA air filter must remove (******) of all particles greater than 0.3 microns
99.7%
134
The primary advantage of vacuuming is there is
no increase in the volume of waste materials
135
Leak Cylinder:
| .fusible plug
apply a clamping device that will hold a compatible material to stop the leak valve assembly
136
Leak Cylinder
| Fusible plug threads
Attempt to tighten the plug with available tools, If this fails, cut the plug off flush with the valve body and use a clamp with compatible material over the leak
137
Leak Cylinder
| Valve stem or assembly blow out
Drive a compatible drift pin material into opening and secure with load strap
138
Leak Cylinder
| Valve seat
Reopen and reclose the valve handle allowing the possible obstruction to clear the seat.
139
Leak Cylinder
| Valve packing
Tighten the valve stem. locate the packing nut and tighten the nut
140
Leak Cylinder
| Valve inlet threads
Using wrench, tighten the entire valve assembly into the cylinder body with slow, constant pressure
141
Leak Cylinder
| cylinder side wall damage
Before attempting shift leak into up right position to maintain the gas phase of the product and sound the side walls of the container to detect additional container damage. use side wall patch kit to secure the leak
142
(*****) are the most common hazard class encountered by emergency responders
Flammable liquids
143
The fact is that over (****) have been killed in the line of duty in the last 50 years at incidents involving flammable liquids storage tank fires.
70
144
Large flammable liquid fires normally allow time to gather the necessary resources before mounting an (********)
aggressive offensive oriented attack
145
NFPA 11 recommends an application time of (****) for flammable liquid spill fires and a (*****) minutes for Class I flammable liquid storage tank fires.
15 minute
| 65 minutes
146
water streams applied to exposures inside of a diked area should be temporarily shut down when they no longer produce (******) at the point where the water contacts the hot steel.
steam
147
(*****) firefighting foam is the work horse of flammable liquid fire fighting.
Class B
148
(*****) foam is still the top gun for large scale flammable liquid problems.
Class B
149
When dealing with three dimensional fires make sure the (******) can be shut down when the fire is extinguished. (******) can be used to secure the fuel surface area.
fuel source
| Class B
150
Fire fighting foam concentrates should be selected based on the (******) and the type and nature of the hazard to be protected.
type of fuel
151
(*************) Combination of protein based foam derived from protein foam concentrates an fluorochemical surfactants
Fluroprotein foam
152
(******) Synthetic foam consisting of fluorochemical and hydrocarbon surfactants combined with high boiling point solvents
Aqueous Film Forming Foam
153
(*****) is dependent on the difference in surface tension between the fuel and the firefighting foam.
AFFF
154
(****) is an effective agent in rapidly knocking down and extinguishing a spill fire.
AFFF
155
AFFF
1,3,6%
| VERY effective on spill fires with a good knockdown
156
(*****) foam is effective on most tank and spill fires
Fluoroprotien Foam
157
Fluoroprotien foam
3,6%
Are oleophobic (they shed oil) and can be used ro subsurface injection
has a shelf life of 10 years
158
Alcohol resistant AFFF or (AR-AFFF or ARC)
3x3 concentrates and 3x6
159
AR AFFF
when applied to a polar solvent fuel they will often create a (******) rather than film over the fuel. This membrane separate the water in the foam blanket from the attack of the polar solvent.
polymeric membrane
160
(******) foams are effective in dealing with ethanol, alcohol, and methyl ethyl ketone.
AR-AFFF
161
Calls B foams intended for hydrocarbon fires WILL NOT be effective on an (******) fire or for gasoline ethanol mixture greater than 10%. (******) foams should be used and applied with (*****) techniques rather than direct application.
ethanol
Alcohol resistant
type II
162
AR AFFF
Must be applied gently
should not be plunged
maybe used for subsurface injection
163
(******) based on fluoroprotien foam technology with AFFF capabilities.
FFFP Film Forming Fluoroprotien Foam
164
(******) combines the quick knockdown capabilities of AFFF with the heat resistance benefits of Fluoroprotien foam.
FFFP
165
FFFP
3x6
subsurface
can be plunged
166
Similar foam concentrates by different manufactures are not considered compatible in storage application. The exception to this would be (*******) foam concentrates
mill spec
167
Don't mix different kinds of foam before or during (******)
proportioning
168
On the emergency scene concentrates of a similar type but from different manufacturers may be mixed together (*******) before application
immediately
169
Finished foams of a similar type but from different manufacturers are considered (******)
compatible
170
As a genera tactical guideline, foam application operations should not be initiated until sufficient foam concentrate is on site to extinguish (*****) of the exposed flammable surface area
100%
171
Fixed system application for hydrocarbon fuels (e.g. cone roof storage tank with foam chambers)
0.10 gpm/ft2
172
Fixed system application for seal protection on an open top floating roof tank
0.30 gpm/ft2
173
Subsurface application for hydrocarbon fuel in cone roof tanks.
0.10 gpm/ft2
174
Portable application for hydrocarbon spills
0.10gpm/ft2 (AFFF,FFFP)
| to 0.16 gpm/ft2 (protein, fluoroprotien)
175
Portable application for hydrocarbon storage tanks
0.16 gpm/ft2
176
A foam application rate of (******) has been used to successfully extinguish hydrocarbon fires in large diameter tanks using master stream portable nozzles.
0.18 to 0.20 gpm/ft2
177
minimum recommended rate for polar solvents.
0.20 gpm/ft 2
178
the most common ethanol blend being transported by rail tank car is (*******)
E95 or denatured ethanol
179
Ethanol
IDLH = 3000ppm
LFL=3.3%
UFL=19.0%
180
Gasoline
IDLH=500ppm
LEL=1.4%
UEL=7.4%
181
Fire involving gasoline ethanol mixtures up to 10% will behave like a (*******), while those from 10 to 15% will assume the burning properties of a (*******) Regular AFFF and AR-FFF/ARC will be effective
hydro carbon fire
| polar solvent
182
Regular Class B firefighting Foam will not be effective for either ethanol or for gasoline ethanol mixtures greater than (****) ethanol
10%
183
Overall, (******) is the best agent for dealing with both ethanol and gasoline ethanol blends.
AR AFF or ARC
184
An open floating roof tank containing gasoline is fully involved in fire. Determine the amount of foam concentrate required to control and extinguish the fire. The fire department is using a 3x3 ARC
required amount of foam concentrate= 39000 gallons
Required amount of water=126,100 gallons
185
A 150 ft diameter covered floating roof tank containing gasoline has overflowed and ignited. Both the tank and the dike area (100ftx80ft) are completely involved in fire. Determine the amount of foam concentrate required to control and extinguish the fire. The fire department is using a 3x3 (ARC)
Total amount of foam concentrate required=4086G
Total amount of water=239,014G
186
A MC306/DOT406 cargo tank containing 8500 gallons of gasoline has overturned on a four lane interstate highway. All cells are ruptured upon your arrival and the gasoline tank car is fully involved in fire. The surface area burning on the street is approximately 150ftx300ft. Determine the amount of foam concentrate required to control and extinguish the fire. The fire department is using a 3x3 (AFFF)
Required amount of foam concentrate=2025G
Required water= 65,475G
187
Cooling water guidelines for exposed tank pressure vessels;
| Atmospheric storage tanks up to 100ft in diameter require
500gpm
188
Cooling water guidelines for exposed tank pressure vessels;
| Atmospheric storage tanks 100ft diameter to 150ft diameter require
1000gpm
189
Cooling water guidelines for exposed tank pressure vessels;
| Atmospheric storage tank exceeding diameter listed (150FT)
2000gpm
190
Pressure vessel should have a minimum (******) applied to the point of impingement
500gpm
191
The heart of fire protection system protecting bulk storage facilities is a reliable (********) able to supply the pressure and quantity for the fire departments
water supply
192
Above ground petroleum storage tanks are designed to operate at (*********)
atmospheric or low pressures
193
Cone roof tanks will have a (*******) for normal operations, while open floating and covered floating will vent to the atmosphere during normal operations
pressure vacuum valve
194
In the event of an over pressure, cone roof and covered floating roof tanks designed to API specifications will have a weak roof to shell seam that will allow the (********) and avoid catastrophic tank failure
roof to collapse
195
(*****) system are designed to ensure that accidental discharge of flammable liquids will be prevented
Impoundment and dyking
196
(******) is designed so that any spilled liquids drain away from the storage tank and exposures by way or grading, swales, or ditches, to an area large enough to contain all of the liquid that can drain in to it.
Remote impoundment
197
The most commonly encountered flammable gases are (*******) and (*********)
natural gas
| liquefied petroleum gas
198
(******) propane, butane, natural gas, LNG, CNG, liquid hydrogen methane
Common flammable gases
199
(*******) Hydrogen sulfide, ethylene oxide, phosphine, arsine
Flammable and toxic gases
200
(*******) isopropyl chloroasetate, 1 amino 2 propanol
Flammable and corrosive gases
201
(******) butadiene, acetylene, silane
Flammable and reactive gases
202
(******) Anhydrous ammonia
Fooler gases
203
Pressure fed flammable gas fires may produce direct flame impingement on nearby vessel and cause catastrophic tank failure within (******) of exposure.
5 to 20 minutes
204
BLEVEs of bulk containers are process vessels can produce severe fire and fragmentation risks within (********) of the failed container.
3000feet
205
A (*****) is defined as a container failure with release of energy, often rapidly and violently, which is accompanied by a release of gas to the atmosphere and propulsion of the container pieces due to over pressure rupture
BLEVE
206
(*****) is methane in its liquid state.
LNG
207
LNG is a (******)
flammable and odorless gas
208
LNG is a cryogenic liquid stored and transported a (*****)
-260F
209
LNG presents two primary hazards and risks;
1 flammability
| 2 liquid or vapor dispersion
210
LNG vapor is ignitable in the (******) range
5 to 15%
211
LNG: the flammable region of the vapor cloud can be estimated by the visible (******) that is actually water vapor condensed
white cloud
212
LNG is primarily composed of (******) methane.
85 to 96%
213
LNG has a vapor expansion ratio of (******)
600:1
214
The density of LNG is (*******) about half the weight of water.
3.9 lbs/gallon
215
(******) are a broad family of chemicals including oxidizers, organic peroxide, certain flammable solids, hypergolics, pyrophorics and various water reactive substance
Reactive Chemicals
216
(*****) the resistance of a chemical to decomposition or spontaneous change.
Stability
217
(*****) the chemical reactions and the products of the reactions as a result of the incompatibility will vary with the nature of the chemical involved.
incompatibility
218
(*******O may be produced in dangerous quantities as a result of a chemical reaction or thermal decomposition. This includes toxic products of combustion as well as off gases produced by a chemical reaction
Decomposition products
219
a fire of molten sulfur will also result in high levels of (*******) in the area. When combined with skin moisture and moisture within the respiratory tract, it will form a mild acidic solution
sulfur dioxide
220
when dealing with large quantities of strong oxidizers and organic peroxides, responder should consider treating the incident like an (*******)
explosives fire
221
(*****) may be an appropriate tactical option if extinguishing a fire will result in large uncontrolled volumes of contaminated run off, further threaten the safety of both responders and the public, or lead to more extensive clean up problems.
controlled burning
222
Before transferring site control to non emergency response personnel the IC should verify that any environmental spill contractors used...are trained per the requirements of (*******)
HAZWOPER
223
If contamination is found that will require specialized clean up a (*******) should be developed and coordinated through environmental officials
written remedial action plan
224
(*******) means that all fires have been extinguished, ignition sources have been controlled, and spill and leaks have been controlled.
Stabilization
225
When flammable liquids are involved make sure that backup crews with a minimum (**********) are in place to protect all personnel involved in offloading and up righting operation
two 1/3/4 foam hand line
| one 20 to 30 pound dry chem fire extinguisher
226
Product transfer and removal operations are normally preformed by product and container (******) as well as (******)
specialist
| environmental contrators
227
Liquid transfers would be used on (***********)
6,7,12
228
There are three primary methods of liquid product transfer
Gravity flow
pump transfer
pressure transfer
229
Liquefied gases(MC331) and cryogenic liquids (MC338), may be transferred through the use of (*****)
pumps
pressure differentials
compressors
230
Gas transfers are always a (******) transfer, in essence there is always a liquid line and a vapor line.
closed
231
In All bounding operations involving appliances, the first connection must always start at the (******)
damaged unit
