Infections in Pregancy Flashcards

(55 cards)

1
Q

This infection, usually due to Escherichia coli, is one
of the most common infective complications of
pregnancy

A

Acute pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acute pyelonephritis, why the need to hospitalize?

A

The patient should
be hospitalised and usually requires intravenous
antibiotic therapy and possibly rehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Abx for Acute pyelo

A

amoxycillin 1 g IV 6 hourly for 48 hours, then
500 mg (o) 8 hourly (if bacteria sensitive) for
14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Alternatives to Amox

A

Alternatives: cephalosporins (e.g. ceftriaxone 1 g

IV and cephalexin 500 mg (o))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Patients with _______ typically have dysuria and

frequency. Treat for 10–14 days

A

acute cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tx for acute cystitis

A

cephalexin 250 mg (o) 6 hourly 2
or
amoxycillin/potassium clavulanate (500/125 mg)
(o) 12 hourly
or
nitrofurantoin 50 mg (o) 6 hourly, if a betalactam
antibiotic is contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_______ is contraindicated in
the third trimester of pregnancy as it may
lead to haemolytic diseases in the newborn

A

Nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_________of pregnant asymptomatic women have

positive cultures during pregnancy

A

5–10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ideally all women should be screened for

___________at their first visit

A

bacteriuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Puerpuerial infection

It especially involves the______ and ______

A

placental site in the uterus and laceration or incisions of the birth canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

____________is infection of the placenta and membranes usually from normal vaginal flora
(e.g. Group B Streptococcus (GBS), E. coli ).

A

Chorioamnionitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

It is worth recalling that ___________
infection was the outstanding cause of septic maternal
death before the introduction of penicillin

A

Lancefield group A Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Routine testing for GBS is recommended
at 36 weeks because:

if antibiotics are not given to carriers (the
15–20% who carry GBS) in labour, 50% of babies
become colonised and _______ of these are severely
affected and often die

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

if antibiotics are given in labour (at least _______
prior to delivery) fetal colonisation and infection
almost never occurs

A

2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Intrapartum GBS prophylaxis is indicated for:

A

Indicated for GBS carrier in current pregnancy and

previous baby with early onset disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Intrapartum GBS prophylaxis TX

A

benzylpenicillin 1.2 g IV statim then 600 mg IV
4 hourly until delivery (clindamycin 600 mg IV 8
hourly if hypersensitive to penicillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
Maternal puerperal GBS infection usually has the
following features:
1
2
3
A
  • high fever >38 ° C on any 2 days from days 1 to 14
  • tachycardia (maternal and fetal)
  • endometritis—offensive or purulent discharge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tx of uterine sepsis

A
amoxycillin 2 g IV 6 hourly
plus
gentamicin 4–6 mg/kg IV daily
plus
metronidazole 500 mg IV 12 hourly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

___________is common in pregnancy since
pregnancy is a predisposing factor to the growth of
the fungus

A

Candida (thrush)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

______ is a first-line treatment for vaginal candidiasis

A

Clotrimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rubella _______ indicates recent infection, rises
7–10 days after infection, and a real risk if
pregnant

A

IgM:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dx of rubella infection

Fourfold rise in ____________ If initial test –ve repeat in 2 weeks

A

IgG titres or rubella specific IgM

antibody.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

• Greatest risk if infection for varicella is in______ and _______

A

first trimester and very late pregnancy

24
Q

______________ is rare—includes limb
abnormalities, microcephaly, optic atrophy, mental
impairment, IUGR—but it appears to occur in 3% of
pregnancies where the mother contracts varicella

A

Fetal varicella syndrome

25
Maternal infection in early pregnancy: greatest | risk <20 weeks gestation. Give a course of_________________
an antiviral | (e.g. acyclovir, valaciclovir); consider ultrasound
26
Consider VZ-Ig for baby if _________ before delivery and up to 4 weeks after. Isolate mother from baby until not contagious.
<7 days
27
What to screen if suspicious for Parvo
• Screen for immunity with parvovirus B19 IgG antibodies (reassure if positive). • Screen for infection with acute and convalescent sera for IgM antibodies
28
Miscarriage rate for Parvo
Miscarriage rate is 4% <20 weeks
29
__________ is anaemia–hydrops | fetalis with cardiac failure and possibly death
Fetal parvovirus syndrome
30
___________ is the commonest cause of intra-uterine | infection
CMV
31
* Up to 30% of CMV-affected infants have ____ | * In up to 50% the effects are restricted to ___
mental impairment. | hearing loss
32
* + ve HBsAg indicates _______ * + ve anti-HBs indicates ______ * + ve HBeAg indicates_____
acute infection. recovery and immunity. high infectivity but low transmission in utero.
33
Infected infants have a ______ risk of becoming | chronic carriers with liver disease
90%
34
When to give passive hep b vaccine
At delivery or ASAP give newborn babies of carrier mothers both hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin (HBIg). This gives efficacy of about 90–95%.
35
When to give booster of hep b
Follow up with booster doses of vaccine at 2, 4 and 6 (or 12) months.
36
HCV If positive, the transmission rate to fetus is _____ and much higher if there is maternal infection during pregnancy.
5%
37
The risk from primary infection of genital herpes is greatest if it occurs after
28 weeks gestation.
38
``` Risk factors for intrapartum genital herpes infection include 1 2 3 ```
primary infection, multiple lesions, premature rupture of the membranes and premature labour
39
When to give prophylactic antiviral therapy in herpes?
Consider prophylactic antiviral (e.g. acyclovir) for mother from 38 weeks until time of delivery—to try to prevent recurrent herpes in late pregnancy
40
When to do CS in herpes? 1 2
— there are active lesions present (cervix/vulva) at time of delivery or within preceding 4 days — membranes ruptured <4 hours
41
T or F Genital herpes If vaginal delivery, give acyclovir to the neonate
T
42
T or F the risk of transmission of the HPV virus from the maternal genital tract to the fetus is very high
false (low)
43
What condition? • Incidence 2:1000 • Usually transmitted in second trimester • May cause fetal death; congenital infection with mental handicap
Syphilis
44
What are the tests for Syphilis
VDRL, TPHA, FTA-Abs
45
Syph Tx Acquired early syphilis including latent <12 months: ______
benzathine penicillin 1.8 g IM as single dose
46
Syph Tx • Late latent syphilis (incubation period >12 months): _______
benzathine penicillin 1.8 g IM once each week for 3 doses
47
The fetal infection rate from an HIV-positive mother is about ______ unless appropriate ART has been given
15–25%,
48
If screening detects an HIV-positive mother, both | she and her newborn infant require ______
antiretroviral | therapy.
49
T or F Breastfeeding is inadvisable in HIV because it doubles the risk of vertical transmission
T
50
The risk of HIB transmission can be reduced to <5%: • by treatment with _____ prescribed for the mother antenatally and during labour and to the neonate for the first 6 weeks postpartum • by _______, and • by ________
zidovudine elective caesarean avoiding breastfeeding
51
Both gonorrhoea and chlamydia urethritis can transmit infection to the fetus, causing ________, which develops in the first 2 weeks of life
neonatal | conjunctivitis
52
Chlamydia can also cause neonatal pulmonary infection such as pneumonia, which usually appears at ________
2 or 3 months of age
53
• Acquired by close contact with infected cats or eating uncooked or undercooked meat • About 2:1000 maternal infection rate with about 30% passed to fetus
Toxoplasmosis
54
``` Well-proven transplacental vertically transmissible pathogens include 1 2 3 4 5 ```
cytomegalovirus, rubella, syphilis, toxoplasmosis and varicella
55
The best serological evidence of recent infection is ________ so the first specimen should be collected ASAP after the onset of symptoms
IgG seroconversion