Nausea and Vomiting Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

The effortless passage of gastric
contents into the mouth in the absence of
nausea and without diaphragmatic muscular
contractions.

A

Regurgitation

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2
Q

An involuntary act with all the movements

of vomiting without the expulsion of gastric contents because the cardiac orifice remains closed

A

Retching

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3
Q

The effortless regurgitation of recently

ingested food into the mouth, followed by rechewing and reswallowing or spitting out.

A

Rumination

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4
Q

What are the red flags for vomiting

A
  • Marked pallor
  • Signs of hypovolaemia
  • Peritoneal signs
  • Headache, stiff neck, confusion
  • Distended tympanic abdomen
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5
Q

Vomiting without bile-stained vomitus =

A

pyloric

obstruction

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6
Q

Vomiting of bile =

A

obstruction below duodenal

ampulla

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7
Q

Vomiting of ingested food =

A

oesophageal obstruction.

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8
Q

Vomiting without nausea and possibly

projectile =

A

↑ intracranial pressure

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9
Q

Green vomiting = urgent surgical referral for

possible_____ and ____

A

intestinal malrotation with volvulus

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10
Q

Non bile-stained vomitus (curdled milk): consider________

A

pyloric stenosis, GORD, feeding problems, concealed infection (e.g. UTI, meningitis).

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11
Q

Important warning signs in neonates of vomiting

A
  • Excessive drooling of frothy secretions from mouth
  • Bile-stained vomitus—always abnormal
  • Delayed passage of meconium (beyond 24 hours)
  • Inguinal hernias
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12
Q
  • Usually sudden onset vomiting 3rd–6th week
  • Projectile vomitus
  • Failure to thrive
A

Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

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13
Q

Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis biochemistry

A

metabolic alkalosis: sodium usually

<130 mmol/L, chloride <100 mmol/L

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14
Q

Special investigations for Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

— barium meal (_______)—concern about
aspiration
— ________

A

string sign

abdominal ultrasound

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15
Q

________ or severely delayed gastric emptying is a moderately common condition, which is a cause of nausea and vomiting.

A

Gastroparesis (gastropathy)

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16
Q

Medications to improve gastric motility

A

domperidone 10–20 mg (o) tds, 15–30 minutes before meals
or
metoclopramide 5–10 mg (o) tds, 30 minutes
before meals
or
erythromycin (has prokinetic properties)

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17
Q

Other measures to improve gastric motility
1
2

A

• Injection of botulinum toxin into the pylorus
• Gastric pacing with internally implanted
neurostimulators

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18
Q
  • severe, unexplained vomiting or nausea occurring at varying intervals in a normal healthy person
  • lasts hours to days
A

Cyclical vomiting

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19
Q

The first-line management in vomiting is to _______

A

ensure that any fluid and electrolyte imbalance is corrected and that any underlying cause is identified and treated

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20
Q
Avoid the use of centrally acting dopamine
antagonist drugs (DADS, e.g. metoclopramide and prochlorperazine) in children because of risk of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

extrapyramidal side effects (EPSE), usually acute dystonic reactions.

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21
Q

These include ondansetron, granisetron, dolasetron, palonosetron and tropisetron and are effective at _______ and ____

A

preventing chemotherapy- and radiotherapyinduced

emesis when initiated prior to treatment

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22
Q

_______ enhances the effect of 5-HT3 agents

A

Dexamethasone

23
Q

How to manage severe Drug-induced nausea and vomiting

A

ondansetron 8 mg (o) or IV prior to therapy then two doses 6 hourly
plus
dexamethasone 8 mg IV 30 minutes prior to
therapy, then two doses 6 hourly

24
Q

Most effective drugs for vestibular disturbances

A

The phenothiazine derivatives are the most effective, while the dopamine D 2 -receptor antagonists are relatively ineffective

25
Mx of vomiting in pregnancy
pyridoxine hydrochloride 25–50 mg (o) tds if still ineffective add metoclopramide 10 mg (o) tds or IM (if oral intolerance)
26
Consider the possibility of _____ and _____ in adolescent females with a history of vomiting immediately after meals, especially after binge eat
anorexia nervosa and bulimia
27
__________ can be caused typically by alcohol, pregnancy, kidney failure and raised intracranial pressure
Early morning nausea and vomiting
28
Anti-emetic drug therapy should not be used in infants and children with _______
gastroenteritis
29
what receptor? Promethazine Metoclopramide Prochlorperazine
H1 D2 + 5-HT3 D2 (central)
30
Domperidone Haloperidol Ondansetron
D2 (peripheral) D2 (central) 5-HT3
31
Most neck lumps are ______
reactive lymph nodes—to | concurrent infection
32
what is the 20-40s rule
``` — 0–20 years: congenital, inflammatory, lymphoma, tuberculosis — 20–40 years: inflammatory, salivary, thyroid, lymphoma — >40 years: lymphoma, metastases ```
33
_________of malignant nodes in the anterior triangle have their primary tumour in the head and neck
Eighty-five per cent
34
Consistency of enlarged nodes Rules of thumb are: * hard:_________ * rubbery: ________ * soft: _______ * tender and multiple:______
secondary carcinoma lymphoma sarcoidosis or infection infection
35
causes of Acute cervical lymphadenitis
* Acute viral lymphadenitis | * Acute bacterial lymphadenitis—coccal infection
36
Widespread spread of neck lumps 1 2
* Sebaceous cysts | * Lipomas
37
Midline spread of neck lumps 1 2 3
• Thyroid nodule (moves upon swallowing) • Thyroglossal cysts (moves upwards on tongue protrusion) • Dermoid cyst (beneath chin)
38
``` Examples of tumors in the anterior triangle 1 2 3 4 ```
* Branchial cyst (in upper part): * Carotid body tumour: * Carotid aneurysm * Lateral thyroid tumours
39
Determine what tumor? ``` — opposite thyroid cartilage — smooth and pulsatile — can be moved laterally but not vertically — usually 40–60 years — requires excision (with care) ```
Carotid body tumour:
40
Tumors of the posterior triangle
* Developmental remnants * Pancoast tumour (from apex lung) * Cervical rib
41
— chronic granulomatosis infection due to Gram-positive Actinomyces israelii — forms a multilocular abscess (pus has ‘sulphur granules’) — infection follows dental extraction or poor dental hygiene, esp. severe caries — treat with high-dose penicillin G, 4 months
``` Cervicofacial actinomycosis (lumpy jaw syndrom ```
42
* A soft, squelchy, indefinite mass * Base of left neck * History of difficulty in swallowing
Pharyngeal pouch
43
The most likely cause of a solitary thyroid nodule is the _____
dominant nodule in a multinodular goitre.
44
In Children, Benign lumps usually occur in the _______ while malignant lumps are more likely in the ______
anterior triangle, posterior triangle
45
The common | midline lump in children is the _____
thyroglossal cyst
46
Most enlarged lymph nodes are either ‘normal’ or local infections (mainly viral), especially if______ diameter, and not hard or fixed
<2 cm
47
Inflammatory nodes may be caused by infection in the
tonsils, the teeth or other oral or | nasopharyngeal cavities
48
Suspicious nodes are 1 2 3
>2.5 cm, with firmer consistency than normal and less mobility (investigate especially with biopsy
49
MAIS lymphadenitis is caused by?
Caused by Mycobacterium avium-intracellulares crofulaceum | (MAIS) infection
50
•Produces chronic cervical lymphadenitis and collar stud abscesses • A relatively common infection of cervical nodes, yet often unrecognised • Painless swelling due to development of a cold abscess in healthy child
MAIS lymphadenitis
51
Common sites of MAIS
Common sites are submandibular, tonsillar and | pre-auricular nodes
52
Tx of MAIS
Unresponsive to antimicrobials: treatment is by surgical excision of abscess and underlying lymph nodes
53
etiology of Acute bacterial lymphadenitis
Usually coccal infections— Staphylococcus, | Streptococcus