Child Emergency Flashcards

(87 cards)

1
Q

Signs of serious illness

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 58%
\_\_\_\_\_49%
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_41%
\_\_\_\_\_\_42%
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ 42%
A

Drowsiness

Pallor

Chest wall retraction

Temperature >38.9°C or
<36.4°C

Lump >2 cm

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2
Q

ABCDEGF of Child emergency

A
  • A irway
  • B reathing
  • C irculation
  • D isability (neurological assessment)
  • E xposure
  • F luids: in and out
  • G lucose
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3
Q

Two main groups of signs are good indicators of

serious illness

A

Group 1: common features with reasonable risk and indicator of toxicity

Group 2: uncommon features with high
risk requiring urgent referral

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4
Q

Group 1: common features with

reasonable risk and indicator of toxicity

A

A = poor Arousal, Alertness and Activity
B = Breathing difficulty
C = poor Circulation (persistent pallor, cold legs
to knees)
D = Decreased fluid intake and/or urine output

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5
Q

Group 2: uncommon features with high
risk requiring urgent referral

  • Respiratory: ____
  • GIT: ____
  • CNS: convulsions
  • Skin: petechial rash
A

apnoea, central cyanosis, respiratory grunt

persistent bile-stained vomiting, mass
>2 cm other than hydrocele or umbilical hernia,
significant faecal blood

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6
Q
Inspiratory noises with obstruction
— \_\_\_\_\_\_—partial obstruction with
fluid
— snoring—decreased level of consciousness
— \_\_\_\_\_—partial obstruction to larynx or
trachea
A

bubbly noises

stridor

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7
Q

Secondary signs of worsening obstruction

A
• Increased respiratory rate or effort
• Decreased oxygen saturation
• Increasing tachycardia
• Deterioration of colour
• Development of agitation or decreased level of
consciousness
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8
Q

Investigations for sick child

Culture and sensitivity
_______________
Full blood examination __________

A

All with fever

All <4 weeks
Risk factors present
Doctor uncertain

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9
Q

Investigations for sick child

Those on antibiotics
Doctor uncertain

A

C-reactive protein

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10
Q

Indications for CSF examin

A
Suspected meningitis (infant
drowsy, pale and febrile)
Convulsion in febrile child and:
• source of fever unknown
• receding drowsiness and
pallor
• infant <6 months, child
>5 years
• prolonged convulsion
(>10 minutes)
• postictal phase longer than
usual (>30 minutes)
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11
Q

________

is the usual rhythm at the time of arrest.

A

Asystole or severe bradycardia

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12
Q

How is BLS done outside the hospital

A

Basic life support outside the hospital
setting is 30: 2 compression ventilation
ratio, including two initial rescue breaths.
The ratio of 30:2 is recommended for all
ages regardless of the number of revivers
present

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13
Q

How to ventilate properly

A

Ventilate lungs at about 20 inflations/min with
bag-valve-mask or mouth to mask or mouth to
mouth. An Air-viva using 8–10 L/min of oxygen
is ideal if available

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14
Q

If intubation not possible, use a needle

_______ as an emergency

A

cricothyroidotomy

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15
Q

How to do compressions in children

A

Use two fingers or thumbs for infants <1 year
and heel of one hand for children 1–8 years.
If >8 years use a two-handed technique

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16
Q

Differences in children’s airways for intubation:

• epiglottis\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
• larynx \_\_\_\_\_ → difficult to intubate
‘blind’
•\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ → cuffed tube
not required
• shorter trachea → increased risk intubating
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
• narrow airway → increased airway
resistance
A

longer and stiffer, more horizontal

more anterior

cricoid ring is narrowest position

right main bronchus

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17
Q

Rule for endotracheal tube (ETT) size

(internal diameter in mm

A

• ETT (mm) = (age in years ÷ 4) + 4
or the size of the child’s little finger or nares

• ETT length (cm) oral = (age in years ÷ 2) + 12;
nasal—add 3 cm

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18
Q

Drugs that can be administered through the ETT

can be considered under the mnemonic NASALS:

A
N = Naloxone
A = Atropine
S = Salbutamol
A = Adrenaline
L = Lignocaine
S = Surfactant
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19
Q

Give a single shock instead of stacked shocks

(single shock strategy) for _____

A

ventricular

fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia

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20
Q

Where the arrest is witnessed by a health care
professional and a manual defibrillator is available,
________ the first defibrillation attempt

A

then up to three shocks may be given (stacked

shock strategy) at

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21
Q

Monophasic or biphasic defibrillation:_______

A

first

shock—2 J/kg, subsequent shocks—4 J/kg.

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22
Q

Children

_____ old are most prone to accidental poisoning

A

1–2 years

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23
Q

The most common cause of death in comatose

patients is _______

A

respiratory failure

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24
Q

The common dangerous poisons in the past were

____ and _____

A

kerosene and aspirin

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25
In a UK study the main cause of deaths from poisoning were (in order) tricyclics, salicylates, opioids including _______
Lomotil, barbiturates, digoxin, | orphenadrine, quinine, potassium and iron
26
In poisoning The modern trend is away from_______
emesis, | which includes not using syrup of ipecacuanha
27
What to give within an hour of poisoning
gastric lavage: within 1 hour but also has a | limited place in management
28
How to give activated charcoal
multiple dose charcoal, 5–10 g every 4 hours | or 0.25 g/kg per hour for 12 hours, is effective
29
When not to give activated charcoal
never administer activated charcoal in children with an altered conscious state without airway protection (use only where benefits outweigh the risks of aspiration) 7
30
Contraindications for activated charcoal
* stuporous or comatose * absent gag reflex (unless endotracheal tube in situ) * ingestion of corrosives: acids, alkali * ingestion of hydrocarbons or petrochemicals
31
Drugs not absorbed by active charcoal
``` Acids Alcohols (e.g. ethanol) Alkalis (caustics) Boric acid Bromides Cyanide Iodines Iron Lithium Other heavy metals ```
32
It is usually limited to iron and lead, and slow-release drug preparations that don’t bind to charcoal.
Whole bowel irrigation
33
What is the antidote? Amphetamines (cause hypertension
Glyceryl trinitrate IV Sodium nitroprusside
34
What is the antidote? Benzodiazepines
Flumazenil | Sodium bicarbonate
35
What is the antidote? Beta blockers
Glucagon | Isoprenaline
36
What is the antidote? Calcium blocker
Calcium chloride IV or | Calcium gluconate IV
37
What is the antidote? Carbon monoxide
Oxygen 100% | Hyperbaric oxygen
38
What is the antidote? Cyanide
Hydroxocobalamin Dicobalt edetate Sodium nitrite IV Sodium thiosulphate IV
39
What is the antidote? Digoxin
Digoxin-specific antibodies Magnesium sulphate
40
What is the antidote? ``` Heavy metals (e.g. Pb, As, Hg, Fe) ```
Chelating agents, e.g. | dimercaprol
41
What is the antidote? Heparin
Protamine IV
42
What is the antidote? Methanol, ethylene glycol
Ethanol (ethyl alcohol)
43
What is the antidote? Organophosphates
``` Atropine Pralidoxime (2-PAM) ```
44
What is the antidote? | Paracetamol acetaminophen
Acetylcysteine (IV) (effective within 12 hours) consider up to 36 hours
45
What is the antidote? Phenothiazines
Benztropine
46
What is the antidote? Potassium
Calcium gluconate Sodium bicarbonate Salbutamol aerosol
47
What is the antidote? Tricyclic antidepressants
Sodium bicarbonate IV
48
What is the antidote? Warfarin
Fresh frozen plasma | Vitamin
49
The natural passage of most objects entering the stomach can be expected. Once the _______ is traversed the FB usually continues
pylorus
50
If a blunt FB has been stationary for 1 month | without symptoms, remove at ________
laparotomy
51
If not in stomach these (especially lithium batteries) create an emergency if in the oesophagus because __________
electrical current generated destroys mucous membranes and perforates within 6 hours (must be removed endoscopically ASAP).
52
Febrile Sz * The commonest cause is an_______ * Commonest age range _____ * Epilepsy develops in about_______of such children
URTI 9–20 months 2–3%
53
Abx for bact men in children
• ceftriaxone 100 mg/kg up to 4 g, IV statim then daily for 3–5 days or cefotaxime 50 mg/kg up to 2 g, IV statim then 6 hourly for 3–5 days
54
Abx for bact men in neonates
• ampicillin (or benzylpenicillin) + cefotaxime
55
Abx for meningococcemia
benzylpenicillin 60 mg/kg IV (max. 1.8 g), 4 hourly for 3–5 days. Give IM if IV access not possible or ceftriaxone 100 mg/kg IV or IM (max. 4 g) statim then daily for 5 days
56
Whom to give prophylaxis in pts with meningo
* live in the household and <24 months * have kissed patient in the previous 10 days * have attended the same day care centre
57
How to give meningo prophylaxias
``` prophylaxis—rifampicin dose: adult — 600 mg bd for 3 days child <1 month—5 mg/kg child >1 month—10 mg/kg give bd for 2 day ```
58
A toxic febrile illness, with sudden onset of expiratory stridor, should alert one to this potentially fatal condition
Acute epiglottitis
59
________ is characterised by fever, a soft voice, lack of a harsh cough, a preference to sit quietly (rather than lie down) and especially by a soft stridor with a sonorous expiratory component
Epiglottitis
60
________ is distinguished by a harsh inspiratory | stridor, a hoarse voice and brassy cough.
Croup
61
Children with _______usually sit still with their mouth open, drooling saliva, and their eyes follow you around the room because limited head movement protects the compromised airway.
epiglottitis
62
______________ confirms the | diagnosis of epiglotitis
A swollen, cherry-red epiglottis recognised | on examination of the nasopharynx
63
Abx for epiglotitis
cefotaxime 25 mg/kg up to 1 g IV for 5 days 8 hourly or ceftriaxone 25 mg/kg to max. 1 g/day IV daily for 5 days
64
______ refers to a symptom complex with a harsh, brassy cough, usually with an inspiratory stridor and with or without respiratory difficulty
Croup
65
Cause of Croup
caused by parainfluenzal and other viruses | e.g. RSV
66
What grade of croup? (barking cough, no stridor or stridor at rest without chest retraction, hoarse voice):
Grade 1 croup
67
Tx of Gr 1 croup
consider oral steroids (e.g. dexamethasone 0. 15–0.3 mg/kg/dose or prednisolone 1 mg/kg/ dose) if stridor and chest wall retraction develop
68
What grade of croup? (inspiratory stridor when upset or at rest with chest wall retractions):
Grade 2 croup
69
Grade 2 croup Tx
• oral steroids dexamethasone 0.6 mg/kg or prednisolone (tablets or oral solution)1 mg/kg (2–3 doses) and/or (for children 2 or more years) budesonide 100 mcg × 20 puffs or 2 mg nebulised • nebulised adrenaline
70
What is Gr 3 croup
``` Severe croup (inspiratory stridor at rest, use of accessory muscles, patient restless and agitated). ```
71
What is the first line of tx for gr3 croup
Adrenaline is first-line therapy:
72
* An acute viral illness usually due to RSV * The commonest acute LRTI in infants * Usual age 2 weeks to 9 months
Bronchiolitis
73
PE of Bronchiolitis
Hyperinflated chest: barrel-shaped, usually | subcostal recession
74
CXR of bronchiolitis
Hyperinflation of lungs with depression of diaphragm—but chest X-ray should not be used for diagnosis or routinely performed
75
Causes of acute heart failure in children
* congenital (e.g. VSD) * cardiomyopathy * tachyarrhythmias * postprocedural myocardial dysfunction
76
_______ is necessary in almost every child where there is a strong suggestion of an inhaled FB. It is difficult and requires an expert with appropriate facilities
Bronchoscopy
77
How to give NE in anaphylaxis
(repeat adrenaline every 5 minutes as necessary) if no improvement set up a continuous infusion (1 mg adrenaline in 1000 mL N saline)
78
Mx of drowning • decompress stomach with nasogastric tube • support circulation with _____ • _______ • correct electrolyte disturbances (e.g. hypokalaemia
IV infusion of colloid solution and dopamine 5–20 mc g/kg per minute mannitol 0.25–0.5 g/kg IV if cerebral oedema
79
Intraosseous infusion is preferred to an intravenous cutdown in children under_____
5 years
80
Site of Intraosseous infusion * Adults and children over 5: _______ * Children under 5: ______
distal end of tibia proximal end of tibia
81
Characteristic features include sudden-onset pallor which persists, episodic crying and vomiting. Rectal bleeding and an abdominal mass
Intussusception
82
_________, which appears from 2 weeks to 3 months of age, should be suspected with projectile vomiting, acute weight loss and alkalosis
Pyloric stenosis
83
Bile-stained vomitus indicates urgent referral to | consider possible ___________ and ______
intestinal malrotation and mid-gut | volvulus
84
Failure to pass meconium beyond 24 hours: may | represent _______
congenital intestinal atresia and stenosis, | meconium ileus or Hirschsprung disease
85
risk factor for SIDs
``` Risk factors • Prone sleeping position • Smothered airways (debatable) • Artificial feeding (possible) • Passive smoking (before or after birth) • Hyperthermia or excess warmth • Extreme prematurity <32 weeks • Parental narcotic/cocaine abuse • Intercurrent viral infections ```
86
_______or ‘near-miss SIDS’, is defined as a ‘frightening’ encounter of apnoea, colour change or choking. At least 10% will have another episode
Apparent life-threatening episod
87
Guidelines for home apnoea monitoring
* ALTE * Subsequent siblings of SIDS victims * Twin of SIDS victim * Extremely premature infants