Tropical Medicine Flashcards

(139 cards)

1
Q

What group of microorganisms?

African trypanosomiasis
(sleeping sickness), American trypanosomiasis
(Chagas disease), amoebiasis, babesiosis,
coccidiosis and microsporodiosis,
cryptosporidiosis, giardiasis, leishmaniasis—
cutaneous and visceral (kala-azar), malaria,
toxoplasmosis, trichomonas

A

Protozoan

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2
Q

What group of microorganisms?

Cysticercosis ( Taenia
solium, T. saginata ), echinococcus (hydatid
disease

A

Cestodes (tapeworms

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3
Q

What group of microorganisms?

Schistomiasis (bilharziasis),
clonorchiasis, paragonimiasis

A

Trematodes (flukes):

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4
Q

What group of microorganisms?

Ascariasis, enterobiasis
(pinworm), Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea
worm), filariasis, hookworm, larva migrans
(cutaneous and visceral), strongyloidiasis,
trichinosis ( Trichinella spiralis ), trichuriasis
(whipworm)

A

HIV

seroconversion infection.Nematodes (roundworms):

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5
Q

Problems in the returned tropical traveller:

Most will present within 2 weeks except ____

A

HIV

seroconversion infection.

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6
Q

Problems in the returned tropical traveller:

Common infections encountered are

A

dengue
fever, giardiasis, hepatitis A and B, gonorrhoea
or Chlamydia trachomatis, malaria and helminthic
infestations.

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7
Q

Problems in the returned tropical traveller:

An important non-infection problem requiring
vigilance is _________ and ______________

A

deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and

thromboembolism.

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8
Q

returned tropical traveller:

What to do in patients with mild diarrhea:

A

Stool microscopy and culture
• Look for and treat associated helminthic
infestation (e.g. roundworms, hookworms

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9
Q

Etiology of Moderate or prolonged (>3 weeks)

diarrhoea

A

Usually due to Giardia lamblia, Entamoeba histolytica,
Campylobacter jejuni, Salmonella, Yersinia enterocolitica
or Cryptosporidium

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10
Q

Consider exotic causes such as _______, ______, ______ in unusual
chronic post-travel ‘gastroenteritis

A

schistosomiasis,

strongyloidiasis and ciguatera

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11
Q

What type of rash:

dengue, HIV, typhus, syphilis, arbovirus infections, leptospirosis, Q fever

A

• Maculopapular:

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12
Q

What type of rash:

________ viral haemorrhagic fevers,
leptospirosis, dengue
_______: typhoid
_________typhus (tick and scrub), anthrax
_________ African trypanosomiasis, syphilis

A
  • Petechiae:
  • Rose spots
  • Eschar:
  • Chancre:
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13
Q

An Australian study of fever in returned
travellers 3 revealed the most common diagnosis
was
_____ (27%) followed by________ (24%), _______(14%), ________ (8%) and bacterial pneumonia (6%).

A

malaria

respiratory tract infection

gastroenteritis

dengue fever

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14
Q

The common serious causes of fever are

A

malaria, typhoid,
hepatitis (especially A and B), dengue fever and
amoebiasis

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15
Q

Most deaths from malaria have occurred after
at least ________ days of symptoms that may be
mild. Death can occur within 24 hours

A

3 or 4

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16
Q

Be vigilant for ________—can present with a
toxic megacolon, especially if antimotility drugs
are given

A

amoebiasis

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17
Q

If well but febrile, first-line screening tests:

A

— full blood examination and ESR

— thick and thin films

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18
Q

Malaria

• Incubation period: P. falciparum _____ days; others
12–40 days
• Most present within 2 months of return
• Can present up to ______

A

7–14

2 or more years

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19
Q

What needs to be ruled out in patients with malaria?

A

G6PD deficiency?

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20
Q

How to treat?

P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae

A

(Riamet)
4 tablets with food at 0, 8, 24, 36, 48, 60 hours
(i.e. 24 tablets) in 60 hours
+
primaquine dose by weight to achieve a total dose
of 6 mg/kg. For most people this equals 30 mg (o)
daily for 14–21 days

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21
Q

How to treat?

P. falciparum uncomplicated

A
Riamet (as above)
or
quinine sulphate 600 mg (o) 8 hourly, 7 days
\+
doxycycline 100 mg (o) 12 hourly, 7 days
or
clindamycin 300 mg (o) tds, 7 days (children,
pregnancy)
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22
Q

How to treat

complicated (severe):

A

artesunate 2.4 mg/kg IV statim, 12 hours, 24 hours,
then once daily until oral therapy (Riamet) is possible
or
quinine dihydrochloride 20 mg/kg up to 1.4 g IV
(over 4 hours) then after 4-hour gap 7 mg/kg IV 8
hourly until improved (ECG/cardiac monitoring)
then
quinine (o) 7 days

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23
Q

• Insidious onset
• Headache prominent
• Dry cough
• Fever gradually increases in ‘stepladder’ manner
over 4 days or so
• Abdominal pain and constipation (early)
• Diarrhoea (pea soup) and rash—rose spots (late)
• ± splenomegaly

A

Typhoid fever

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24
Q

How to diagnose Typhoid fever?

A
  • On suspicion—blood and stool culture

* Serology not very helpful

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25
How to Tx Typhoid fever
• Azithromycin l g (o) for 7 days or • Ciprofloxacin 500 mg (o) bd for 7–10 days
26
What is the dx? • Subclinical • Mild, uncomplicated episode of diarrhoea • Fulminant lethal form with severe water and electrolyte depletion, intense thirst, oliguria, weakness, sunken eyes and eventually collapse
Cholera
27
fever + vomiting + abrupt onset | ‘rice water’diarrhoea
cholera
28
Mx of cholera
Treatment • In hospital with strict barrier nursing • IV fluid and electrolytes • Doxycycline
29
VIRAL HAEMORRHAGIC FEVERS These include:
yellow fever, Lassa fever etc., dengue | fever and chikungunya
30
In yellow fever, Milder cases may present with flu-like symptoms and relative bradycardia, what sign?
Faget's sign
31
Signs and symptoms of yellow fever
abrupt fever then prostration, jaundice and abnormal | bleeding from the gums and possibly haematemesis
32
These rare but deadly tropical diseases usually commence with a flu-like illness, gastrointestinal symptoms with thrombocytopenia, anaemia and, if severe, findings consistent with disseminated intravascular coagulation leading to bleeding and possibly shock and frank haemorrhage
Lassa fever, Ebola virus, Marburg | virus, Hanta virus
33
Also known as ‘breakbone’ fever, it is widespread in the south-east Pacific and endemic in Queensland. A returned traveller with myalgia and fever <39 ° C is more likely to have dengue than malaria.
Dengue fever
34
vector of DFS
Mosquito-borne ( Aedes aegyptii ) viral infection
35
DX: Abrupt onset fever, malaise, headache, nausea, pain behind eyes, severe backache, prostration
DFS
36
DFS, what type of rash? _____________ → trunk (hand pressure for 30 seconds causes blanching
Maculopapular rubelliform rash on limbs
37
Kind of erythema in DFS
Generalised erythema with ‘islands of sparing’
38
Diagnosis of DFS
• Dengue-specific IgM serology—best on day 5 • PCR • FBE: leukopenia; thrombocytopenia in haemorrhagic form
39
This is an alpha-viral mosquito-borne infection with a similar clinical picture to dengue fever; it can cause haemorrhagic fever. It is encountered in tropical South-East Asia, Indian Ocean islands and parts of Africa.
Chikungunya
40
Dx of Chikungunya
Positive serology
41
presents with fever, nausea and vomiting then progressing to stupor, coma and convulsions.
Encephalitis
42
Encephalitis: Mosquito-borne cases include
Japanese | B encephalitis and West Nile fever
43
the Gram-negative bacillus Burkholderia pseudomallei, a soil saprophyte that infects humans mainly by penetrating through skin wounds, especially abrasions.
Melioidosis
44
Where is Melioidosis obtained?
It is mostly acquired while wading in rice | paddie
45
Presentation of Melioidosis
It may manifest as a focal infection or as septicaemia with abscesses in the lung, kidney, skin, liver or spleen.
46
It is called the ‘Vietnamese time bomb’ because it can present years after the initial infection, as seen in Vietnamese war veterans
Melioidosis
47
Fever, headache, cough, pleuritic pain and | generalised myalgia
Melioidosis
48
Dx of Melioidosis
Blood culture, swabs from focal lesions, | haemagglutination test
49
Tx of Melioidosis
``` Treatment (adults) 8 • Ceftazidime 2 g IV, 6 hourly or • Meropenem 1 g IV, 6 hourly or • Imipenem 1 g IV, 6 hourly • All for at least 14 days, followed by oral cotrimoxazole ± doxycycline bd + folic acid for 3 months ```
50
Prevention of Melioidosis
Traumatised people with open wounds (especially diabetics) in endemic areas (tropical South-East Asia) should be carefully nursed
51
Plague (Black Death), which is caused by the Gramnegative bacterium _______ , is endemic in parts of Asia, Africa and the Americas
Yersinia pestis
52
2 forms of plague
bubonic plague and pneumonic plague
53
``` painful suppurating inguinal or axillary lymphadenitis (buboes) ```
bubonic plague
54
flu-like symptoms with haemoptysis, septicaemia and a fatal haemorrhagic illness ( ± buboes
pneumonic plague
55
Plague: There is a rapid onset of high fever and prostration with black patches of skin due to _______
subcutaneous | haemorrhage.
56
Dx of plague
• Serology and smear/culture of buboes
57
†x of plague
• Streptomycin and doxycycline
58
________ is a rhabdovirus acquired by bites from an infected mammal, for example a dog, cat, monkey, fox or bat.
Rabies
59
What kind of rabies sx: malaise, headache, | abnormal behaviour including agitation and fever
Prodromal symptoms
60
Type of rabies
‘dumb rabies’ and ‘furious rabies
61
excessive salivation and excruciating spasms of the pharyngeal muscles on drinking water (in particular).
‘furious rabies’,
62
Tx of rabies
Post-bite prophylaxis (endemic area) Wash the wound immediately then clean it. Administer rabies vaccine (if unimmunised) and rabies immune immunoglobulin ASAP (within 48 hours).
63
This is a type of food poisoning caused by eating tropical fish, especially large coral trout and large cod, caught in tropical waters (
Ciguatera
64
How does ciguatera kill?
The problem is caused by a type of poison that concentrates in the fish after they feed on certain micro-organisms around reefs.
65
Ciguatera poisoning presents within hours as a | bout of ______
‘gastroenteritis
66
Neuro Sx of Ciguatera
muscle aching and weakness, paraesthesia and burning sensations of the skin, particularly of the fingers and lips
67
Hansen’s disease (Gerhard Hansen, 1869) is caused | by the acid-fast bacillus_________
Mycobacterium leprae
68
Leprosy: It is a disorder of tropical and warm temperate regions, especially
South-East Asia.
69
Transmission of leprosy
It is considered to be transmitted by nasal secretions with an incubation period of 2–6 years
70
WHO Guidelines for Leprosy Diagnosis is one or more of: • Skin lesions—usually anaesthetic; ________or reddish maculopapules or ______ lesions • Thickened peripheral nerves with loss of sensation, e.g___, ______, ________, ______); also peripheral neuropathy or motor nerve impairment
hypopigmented annular . ulnar (elbow), median (wrist), common peroneal (knee) and greater auricular (neck
71
Cont.. WHO Guidelines for Leprosy Diagnosis is one or more of: • Demonstration of ______ in a skin smear or on biopsy • It can be localised ______ or _______ (lepromatous
acid-fast bacilli (tuberculoid) generalised
72
Leprosy diagnosis: Diagnosis is by ____, _____ cultivation of the organisms or by PCR tests
biopsy, the lepromin test,
73
WHO Tx options for Leprosy
multiple drug therapy, e.g. rifampicin, clofazimine and dapsone, but therapy is constantly being evaluated
74
Scrub typhus is found in South-East Asia, northern Australia and the western Pacific. It is caused by ________, which is transmitted by mites
Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
75
SSX of scrub typhus: • Abrupt onset febrile illness with headache and myalgia • A________ at the site of the bite with regional and generalised lymphadenopathy • Short-lived______ • Can develop severe complications (e.g. ________
black eschar macular rash pneumonitis, encephalitis
76
Treatment of scrub typhus:
• Doxycycline 100 mg bd for 7–10 days
77
Queensland tick typhus, which is caused by _______is directly related to a tick bite. The symptoms are almost identical to scrub typhus, although less severe, and the treatment is identical
Rickettsia australis,
78
2 stages of African trypanosomiasis
``` Stage 1 (haemolymphatic) Stage 1 (haemolymphatic) ```
79
Other name of African trypanosomiasis
(sleeping | sickness)
80
What stage of (sleeping sickness) * Incubation period about 3 weeks * Fever, headache and a skin chancre or nodule * Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly
Stage 1 (haemolymphatic)
81
What stage of (sleeping sickness) * weeks or months later * cerebral symptoms including hypersomnolence
Stage 2 (meningoencephalitic)
82
Dx of African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness: Demonstrating _______ in peripheral blood smear or chancre aspirate
trypomastigotes
83
Dx of African trypanosomiasis (sleeping | sickness:
* Suramin IV | * Infectious disease consultation essential
84
Prevention African trypanosomiasis • Avoid bites of the_____. If visiting areas of East, Central and West Africa, especially the safari game parks, travellers should use insect repellent and wear protective light-coloured clothing, including long sleeves and trousers.
tsetse fly
85
This is transmitted by bites of sand flies and by blood | transfusions and IV drug use.
Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)
86
Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) The _________ is targeted and presenting features include fever, wasting, hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy
haemopoietic system
87
Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) • Among other signs is __________ hence the Hindu name kala-azar (‘black fever’) • Most cases are
hyperpigmentation of the skin, subclinical
88
This may be encountered in travellers and servicemen and servicewomen returning from the Middle East, especially the Persian Gulf, and also travellers returning from Central and South America
Cutaneous leishmaniasis
89
Cutaneous leishmaniasis The protozoa is transmitted by a ______ and has an average incubation period of 9 weeks.
sandfly
90
Cutaneous leishmaniasis The key clinical finding is an _____
erythematous papule
91
Dx of Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Performing a punch biopsy and culturing tissue | in a special medium
92
How to Tx extensive lesions of Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Treatment for extensive lesions is with highdosage | ketoconazole for 1 month
93
How to Tx extensive lesions of Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Smaller lesions should be treated topically with 15% paromomycin and 12% methyl benzethonium chloride ointment applied bd for 10 days
94
First clinical sign of Schisto
The first clinical sign is a local skin reaction at the site of penetration of the parasite (it then invades liver, bowel and bladder). This site is known as ‘swimmer’s itch
95
Dx of Schisto:
• Serology • Detecting eggs in the stools, the urine or in a rectal biopsy
96
Tx of Schisto
• Praziquantel (may need retreatment
97
_____can be diagnosed in a sick traveller returning from an endemic area with severe diarrhoea characterised by blood and mucus.
Amoebiasis ( Entamoeba histolytica )
98
Cx of Schisto
Complications include fulminating colitis, amoebomas (a mass of fibrotic granulation tissue) in the bowel and liver abscess
99
Acute amoebic dysentery | is treated with oral____ or ______
tinidazole or metronidazole.
100
What is the dx? ``` Clinical features • High swinging fever • Profound malaise and anorexia • Tender hepatomegaly • Effusion or consolidation of base of right chest ```
Amoebic liver abscess
101
T or F Amoebic liver abscess There is often no history of dysentery, and jaundice is unusual
T
102
Dx of Amoebic liver abscess
• Serological tests for amoeba and by imaging | CT scan
103
Treatment of Amoebic Liver Abscess:
• Metronidazole and by percutaneous CT-guided | aspiration
104
• Often asymptomatic • Symptoms include abdominal cramps, bloating, flatulence and bubbly, foul-smelling diarrhoea, which may be watery, explosive and profuse.
Giardiasis
105
Dx of Giardia:
Three specimens of faeces for analysis (cysts and trophozoites): ELISA/PCR
106
Tx of Giardia
Scrupulous hygiene: metronidazole or tinidazole
107
______ which refers to the infestation of body tissues by the larvae (maggots) of flies, often presents as itchy ‘boils’.
Myiasis,
108
Primary myiasis invariably occurs in travellers to tropical areas such as Africa _________ and Central and South America ______, whereby the fly can introduce the larvae into the skin, or it can be due to secondary invasion of pre-existing wounds
(Tumbu fly) | bot fly
109
Tx of cutaneous myasis:
simplest treatment is lateral pressure and tweezer extraction or place paraffin jelly (Vaseline) or thick ointment over the lesion to induce emergence by restricting oxygen, then apply a topical antibiotic.
110
Pinworm Also known as _____ this is a ubiquitous parasite infesting mainly children of all social classes
‘threadworm’,
111
Clinical features of pinworm:
``` Pruritus ani (in about 30% of cases) • Diarrhoea (occasionally) ```
112
Pinworm meds: Medication
• Any one of pyrantel, albendazole or mebendazole—as single dose orally ``` pyrantel 10 mg/kg up to 750 mg or mebendazine 100 mg (child <10 kg: 50 mg) or albendazole 400 mg (child <10 kg: 200 mg) ```
113
How soon to repeat tx in pinworm
2-3 weeks
114
By finding eggs in the faeces. The worm is very sensitive to any of the three agents used for pinworm. May give positive faecal occult blood test.
Human roundworm
115
Tx of human roundworm
A first-line option is pyrantel 20 mg/kg up to 750 mg orally, as a single dose—to be repeated after 7 days if a heavy infestation
116
These used to be common in Indigenous communities, possibly causing failure to thrive, anaemia, abdominal pain and diarrhoea and rectal prolapse with heavy chronic infestation. The worms are about 1–2 cm long
Whipworm
117
Tx of whipworm
• Single large doses of mebendazole or albendazole
118
These are found in humid tropical regions but are now uncommon in northern Australia. About 1–1.5 cm long, the parasites are acquired by walking barefoot (or wearing thongs or sandals) on earth contaminated by faeces
Hookworm
119
First sign of hookworm
The first sign is local irritation or ‘creeping eruption’ at the point of entry, known as ‘ground itch’, which is often unnoticed
120
Cx of hookworm
They can cause iron/protein | deficiency anaemia in chronic infestation
121
Hookworm | infection is the commonest cause of ________ in the world
iron deficiency | anaemia
122
Dx of hookworm
finding | eggs on microscopy of faeces
123
Tx of hookworm
• A single dose of mebendazole 100 mg bd for 3 | days or 400 mg single dose pyrantel
124
These are tiny parasites (2 mm or so) and have a worldwide distribution. Infestation can cause symptoms such as recurrent abdominal pain and swelling and diarrhoea, skin and respiratory symptoms, with blood eosinophilia
Human threadworm | (Strongyloides
125
Strongyloides The problem is aggravated by ______ therapy and may present with a severe infection, such as septicaemia
corticosteroid
126
Strongyloides Tx
• Ivermectin 200 mcg/kg (o) two doses 2 weeks apart (not in children < 5 years) or albendazole 200 mg bd for 3 days
127
___________should be suspected in any pruritic, erythematous lesion with a serpiginous eruption on the skin, especially the hands, legs and feet of a person from a subtropical or tropical area
Cutaneous larva migrans (creeping eruption)
128
Dx of CLM
Clinical (characteristic appearance), eosinophilia | biopsy usually not indicated
129
Tx of CLM
Ivermectin (single dose) or Albendazole Antihistamines for pruritus
130
T or F CLM is self-limitinf
T
131
This nematode infection has two main forms which are spread by mosquitoes and biting black flies respectively
Filariasis
132
________ causes acute adenolymphangitis and chronic lymphoedema with obstruction of lymph flow. The latter can manifest as a____, ______, _________ especially of the extremities, genitals and breasts. Diagnosis is by_____ and _____
Lymphatic filariasis hydrocele, scrotal oedema or elephantiasis blood film and serology
133
__________starts as a nodule at the bite site followed by chronic skin disease and eye lesions such as uveitis and optic atrophy
Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
134
It is the second leading cause of | blindness worldwide.
Onchocerciasis (river blindness)
135
Onchocerciasis (river blindness) Dx and Tx
Diagnosis is by PCR testing, | treatment by ivermectin
136
Hydatid disease is acquired by ingesting eggs of the dog parasite __________ which is found in sheep farming areas here and in several countries in Asia.
Echinococcus granulosus,
137
Sx of echinococcus: There may be no symptoms although the patient may complain of abdominal discomfort or cystic lesions on the skin and other sites. Rupture of a cyst (usually hepatic) can cause severe ______ with possible death
anaphylaxis
138
Tx of echinococcus
Treatment • Usually surgical removal of a cyst and albendazole
139
This is the longest nematode. It is transmitted by tiny | crustaceans in water
``` Dracunculus medinensis (Guinea worm) ```