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Biol3 > Lab2: 1-16 except 14 > Flashcards

Lab2: 1-16 except 14 Flashcards

1
Q

factors that affects resolution, shorter the wavelength of light used, ___________.-white light used in compound microscope limits resolution of structures smaller then 0.2mm

A

higher resolution

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2
Q

higher magnification inverse relationship to _________.

A

lower resolution

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3
Q

the objective lens magnifies the specimen to produce ____1_____ that is projected to ocular lens to produce the _____2_____.

A

1.real image2.virtual image

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4
Q

list 4 points regarding proper use and storage of microscopes. “just remember”

A
  1. use both hands when you carry a microscope to your table.2.plug in the lamp cord into electrical outlet, then turn on the main switch of microscope3. before storing microscope back, replace the low objective lens into working position4. always check before change objective lens to avoid slide breakage.
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5
Q

identify at least 4 differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

A

prokarytoes:-non membranous-one circular chromosome-divided by binary fission-made of peptidoglycanEukaryotes:-separated from cytoplasm-both membranous & non-membranous-no peptidoglycan-divided by mitosis

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6
Q

what is the biochemical basis of cheek cell staining process, are the cheek cells prokaryotes or eukaryotes?

A

methylene blue is used to stain animal/human cells to make nuclei more visible under a microscope.-the cheek cell is a eukaryote, because eukaryotic cell contain a nucleus.

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7
Q

Staining:define primary stain

A

mainly stain all cells

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8
Q

Staining:define mordant

A

holds the dye down

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9
Q

Staining:define decolorizing

A

wash of primary stain

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10
Q

Staining:counterstain

A

color to cells that dont retain the primary stain

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11
Q

describe the principle of gram’s staining process, include the role of each chemical reagent used in the staining process.

A

To distinquish between two cell wall gram positive and negative.

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12
Q

advantages of the gram’s staining process

A

advantage:-it’s a relatively rapid and an extremely useful tool-the staining provides suggestive includes during the identification process-it provide valuable information so as to initiate course of antimicrobial treatment

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13
Q

disadvantages of the gram’s staining process

A

disadvantage:-often, disease causing bacteria, does not have distinct stain characteristic -the stain is not specific enough to diagnose the cause of most infection-some bacterial cells stain poorly or not at all

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14
Q

list 3 precaution for the gram’s stain

A

1.fixing2.staining3.timing

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15
Q

identify the 2 bacteria’s which characteristically produce spores. name the bacteria you did for that experiment.

A

1.spore has a thick wall2.is a metabolically inactive structureBacillus anthrasis or Clostridium tetanus

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16
Q

what is 5 features of spores and list spore position inside vegetative cells

A
  1. spore begin to isolate DNA replicate2. plasma membrane surround DNA3. spore septum surrounds isolated portion forming forespore4.peptidoglycan layer forms between membrane5.spore coat forms then endospore freed from cell
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17
Q

what are functions of spore?

A

are reproductive cells that must fuse in pairs in order to give rise to a new individual.

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18
Q

what are differentiate between spore and vegetative cells?

A
  1. endospores is form from vegetative cell2.vegetative cell response to environment signals
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19
Q

what is sporulation and germination?

A

1.sporulation- process of spore formation in a sequential event2.germination - bacterial spore transform into a vegetative cell upon return of favorable conditions by the metabolic process

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20
Q

name 2 bacteria’s which are acid fast positive and the associated disease they cause in humans.

A

Mycobacterium nocardia>Mycobacterium tuberculosis - causes chronic diseasesMycobacterium leprae - hansen’s diseases

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21
Q

describe the composition of the cell wall that is responsible for the acid fast properties of the cell.

A

Acid Fast Bacteria are Gram positve, peptidoglycan contain large amout of lipids (mycolic acid).

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22
Q

What is sterile transfer technique?

A

they incorporate procedures that minimizes chance of other organisms being accidentally introduced.

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23
Q

list 4 factors with regard to importance of the sterile transfer techniques.

A
  1. free from containing you or others2. prevent culture from contaminating you or others3.to isolate pure culture of microbes not considered4.prevents observing features of microbes
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24
Q

name 2 methods for pure culture isolation.

A

1.spreading plating on solid agar medium with a glass spreader.2.streaking plating with a loop

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25
Q

list 3 common errors in colony isolation by the streak process

A

1.label all media, tubes and cultures2.use a loop which is sufficiently cooled3. avoid aerosols4. disinfects work place

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26
Q

why pour plate technique needs to be done at a faster pace compared to the streak plate method

A

pour plate needs to be cooled enough before it solidify while streak plate doesn’t

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27
Q

what is peritrichous arrangement of flagella?

A

peritrichous - Multiple flagella may be randomly distributed over the entire bacterial cell

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28
Q

what is amphitrichous arrangement of flagella?

A

amphitrichous - A single flagellum (or multiple flagella; see below) can extend from both ends of the cell

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29
Q

what are spirochete?

A

are flexible, is a member of the phylum Spirochaetes, which contains distinctive diderm bacteria, most of which have long, helically coiled cells

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30
Q

name the disease that caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferri

A

predominant causative agent of Lyme disease

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31
Q

Acid Fast Positive -

A

Clumped together “cord factor” virulence factor (red in color due to carbolfuschin)

32
Q

Non-Acid Fast (negative) -

A

blue in color due to methylene blue

33
Q

emb plate contain

A

lactose sugar, peptones, sodium deoxycholate, eosin, methylene blue, extracted best yeast

34
Q

Lysozyme is an ezyme found in body’s secretion, such as ___1___,____2____,____3_____ and ____4___.

A
  1. saliva, 2. nasal secretion, 3. tears and
  2. hen’s egg(only the concentratedwhite part)
35
Q

Lysozyme hydrolyzes the glycosidic bond between the ____1____ units of bacterial cell wall. which can cause the bacterial cell to ____2____.

A
  1. NAG-NAM (backbone components)
  2. Osmotic bursting
36
Q

Lysozyme action is more pronounced and clear in Gram ___1____ than Gram ___2_____

A
  1. Gram Positive
  2. Gram Negative
37
Q

Gram _______ cells susceptibility to lysozyme action is due to lack of a Protective barrier to the peptidoglycan layer.

A

Gram positive

38
Q

In Gram ______ cells have an outer membrane which covers the peptidoglycan layer and shields from enzymatic attack of lysozyme

A

Gram Negative

39
Q

__________ and __________, they represent media which routinely used by microbiologist to isolate, identify and confirm presence of specific microorganism from specimen or environment

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Selective and differential media

40
Q

______ have components that inhibit the growth of unwanted bacteria and encourage growth of desired microorganism. Example: Thayer Martin media,Sabouraud’s dextose Agar

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Selective media

41
Q

________ designed for easier detection and isolation of microorganism of interest from other growing on the same plate. Often a particular trait of the microbes is exploited

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Differential media

42
Q

EMB Agar, Mannitol salt Agar and Mc Conkey Agar are both ________ and _______ media

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Selective and differential

43
Q

_______ is a complex carbohydrates (polysaccharide), observed as inclusion bodies in some bacteria.

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Starch

44
Q

______ serves as carbon and energy reserve and can be degraded into individual glucose units and metabolized

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Starch

45
Q

If Bacteria are cultured on media containing starch as sole sugar source, some synthesize and secretes an enzyme called _______

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Amylase

46
Q

_______ belongs to the class of exoenzyme and breaks down starch so individual glucose unit can be transported inside cell easily.

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Amylase

47
Q

The ability to break down starch is examined using ________, it detects presence or absence of intact starch around Bacterial growth area

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Iodine reagent

48
Q

If starch is broken vicinity of bacterial growth, there would be…..

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

No reaction of iodine with starch

49
Q

In starch hydrolysis test, Indication of starch hydrolysis by amylase, is seen as a __________ around bacterial growth

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Clear area (halo)

50
Q

In starchhydrolysis test, If intact starch is observed as ___________ around colony which indicate as non-hydrolysis

A

Starch hydrolysis test:

Blue Color/Dark coloration

51
Q

_______ is an enzyme produced by many microbes to neutralize the toxic effect of hydrogen peroxide.

A

Catalase Test:

Catalase

52
Q

Catalase breaks down hydrogen peroxide to generate ______ and _________.

A

Catalase Test:

water and oxygen

53
Q

In catalase test, oxygen release from the peroxide molecule is abserved as ________. immediate ______ is indicative of positive catalase test

A

Catalase Test:

Bubble

bubbling

54
Q

Bacterial cells growth is influenced by many ______ and ________ factors

A

Anaerobic bacterial growth/Gas Chamber:

physical and chemical

55
Q

______ and chemical factors are required at specifc levels; any deviations from their normal levels and conditions compromises severely bacterial growth

A

Anaerobic bacterial growth/gas chamber:

Physical and chemical

56
Q

In anaerobic chamber, available oxygen is depleted due to chemical reactions which are initiated by ________.

A

Anaerobic bacterial growth/gas chamber:

adding water

57
Q

The bacteria Clostridium sporogenes is a aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Anaerobic bacterial growth/gas chamber:

Anaerobic

58
Q

the bacteria Bacillus subtiles a aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Anaerobic bacterial growth/gas chamber:

aerobic

59
Q

The bacteria staphylococcus epidermidis is aerobic or anaerobic?

A

Anaerobic bacterial growth/gas chamber:

aerobic

60
Q

________ is primarily used to differentiate enterics from nonenterics gram negative bacilli.

A

TSI agar (triple sugar iron)

61
Q

_____ a complex, enriched medium with 3 sugars (glucose, sucrose and lactose).

A

TSI agar (triple sugar iron)

62
Q

In TSI agar (triple sugar iron), _______ is supplemented at the low range concentration (0.1%) compared to the other 2 sugars.

A

Glucose

63
Q

TSI agar (triple sugar iron) Medium differentiates bacteria on the basis of ______ Fermentation and ______ Reduction.

A

Sugar fermentation and sulfur reduction

64
Q

TSI agar (triple sugar iron) media that has a deep butt is ________.

A

anaerobic condition

65
Q

TSI agar (triple sugar iron) media that has a shallow slant is ______. due to Na2S2O3–>H2S

A

aerobic condition

66
Q

In TSI agar (triple sugar iron) media yellow slant/butt, ______, _______, and/or _______ fermentation with acid accumulation in slat and butt.

This detects bacteria E.coi and Enterobacter aerogenes which also contain gas production due to cracks and lifting agar.

A

Glucose and lactose and/or sucrose

67
Q

In TSI agar (triple sugar iron) media Red slant/ Red Butt, No Fermentation. _______ catabolized aerobically and anerobically with alkaline products. if its a Red Butt, is most likely a Obligate aerobe.

This detects bacteria Pseudomonas aeroginosa

A

Peptone

68
Q

In TSI agar (triple sugar iron) media Black precipitate in the gar, _____ reduction. Hydrogen sulfide (H2S) maybe produced by the reduction of _________ in the medium.

This detects bacteria Proteus mirabilis, also have a red slant which due to glucose.

A

Sulfer Reduction

thiosulfate

69
Q

______ physical factor is used extensively for microbial growth control. most vegatative cells of microbes exhibit differences in their _____ tolerance. _______ can be in the form of moist _____ or dry ________.

A

Control of microorganisms:

Heart

70
Q

______ is used in, pasteurization process (milk and juices), autoclaving of surgical materials and sterilization of baby’s feeding bottles.

A

Control of microorganisms:

Moist heart

71
Q

________ can be used to kill microbes, sterilization of microbiological inoculating loop in lab.

A

Control of microorganisms:

Dry Heart

72
Q

________ form of cells get killed by moist heart.

A

Control of microorganisms:

Vegetative

73
Q

During control of microorganisms Moist Heart lab, the bacteria ___1____ did not grow, but ____2____ and _____3__ have grown from 5-25min.

A
  1. E.coli
  2. staphylococcus epidermidis
  3. bacills cereus
74
Q

____1_____ is a method that incorporates mechanical removal of microorganisms from samples. the method involves passage of a liquid through a screen like material of ___2_____.

A
  1. Filter sterilization
  2. high tensile strength
75
Q

In filter sterilization, the filter paper is inert; is made of _________ or ________.

A

Nitrocellulose or PVDF

76
Q

In filter sterilization, Heat sensitive preparations of antibiotic, glucose, vaccines, ophthalmic soulution and enzymes are made ___1____. the pore size of the membrane is variable; we will use membrane with pore size of ___2___.

A
  1. free of microbes (sterilized)
  2. 0.45um
77
Q

In filter sterilization, uses filter water sample to evaluate presence of coliforms, it yields accurates results if the colony count is in range of ______ organisms per filter disces. filtration can be used on emb plate or agar plate

A

30-300

Biol3 (26 decks)

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