Lecture 28: Pasteurella, Mannheimia, Histophilus, Haemophilus and Respiratory Infections Flashcards

1
Q

Pasteurella, Mannheimia, Hameophilus and Histophilus are all small gram __ rods and facultative ___

A

Negative, anaerobes

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2
Q

Pasteurella, Mannheimia, Hameophilus and Histophilus are generally oxidase ___ except ___

A

Positive, except P. Dogmatis

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3
Q

Pasteurella, Mannheimia, Hameophilus and Histophilus are all catalase __ except __

A

Positive, except P. Caballi

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4
Q

Pasteurella, Mannheimia, Hameophilus and Histophilus are all non-hemolytic except ___

A

M. Haemolytica

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5
Q

What is habitat for Pasteurella, Mannheimia, Hameophilus and Histophilus

A

Oral, respiratory and intestinal tracts

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6
Q

What type of infections are caused by Pasteurella and Mannheimia species

A
  1. Endogenous
  2. Exogenous
  3. SQ infections from bite wounds
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7
Q

What is portal of entry for Pasteurella and Mannheimia spp

A

Respiratory

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8
Q

What are some gross lesions associated with P. Multocida

A

Petechiae, pulmonary edema, enteritis, lymphadenopathy

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9
Q

What pathogens are involved in BRD

A
  1. Pasteurella Multocida
  2. Mannheimia haemolytica
  3. Histophilus somni
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10
Q

Where does BRD affect

A
  1. Lower respiratory tract- pneumonia
  2. Upper respiratory tract- rhinitis, tracheitis, bronchitis
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11
Q

What are some clinical signs of BRD

A

Rapid, shallowing breathing, difficulty breathing, depression, coughing, nasal discharge, inappetence, fever, lethargy

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12
Q

What antibiotics are used to tx BRD

A
  1. Zactran (gamithromycin)
  2. Oxytetracycline
  3. Ampicillin
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13
Q

How do you control BRD

A
  1. Decrease stress
  2. Vaccinate 3 weeks before transport
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14
Q

What vaccine is available for BRD

A

MH- modified leukotoxin and surface antigens

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15
Q

What causes Fowl Cholera

A

P. Multocida

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16
Q

Fowl cholera is associated with septicemia with morbidity and morality rate up to __%

A

70&

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17
Q

What are some signs of Fowl Cholera

A

Anorexia, ruffled feathers, oral or nasal discharge, cyanosis, diarrhea, swollen wattles, joints filled with fibro purulent exudates

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18
Q

What are some postmortem lesions associated with fowl cholera

A

Hemorrhages- serous surfaces
Accumulation of fluid in body cavities

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19
Q

How do you dx fowl cholera

A
  1. Microbes from blood smear
  2. Microbes from bone marrow, spleen or liver
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20
Q

What is tx for fowl cholera

A
  1. Medicated feed and water with long acting tetracycline
  2. Eradication- depopulation and disinfection
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21
Q

How do you control fowl cholera

A
  1. Polyvalent adjuvant bacterins
  2. Autogenous vaccines
  3. Modified live vaccines
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22
Q

What causes atrophic rhinitis in pigs

A

P. Multocida and B. Bronchiseptica

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23
Q

What are some signs of Atrophic rhinitis

A

Excessive lacrimation, sneezing, epistaxis, wrinkled and shortened snouts, laterally deviated snout, underweight

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24
Q

How do you dx atrophic rhinitis

A
  1. Severely affected facial deformity
  2. Isolation and identification of P. Multocida
  3. ELISA or PCR
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25
What is tx for atrophic rhinitis
1. Isolate and susceptibility tests 2. Sulfonamides, oxytetracyline, tylosin, trimpethoprim
26
What vaccine is available for atrophic rhinitis
Bacterin and P Multocida toxoid
27
What does P. Multocida cause in rabbits
Snuffles
28
How do rabbits get snuffles
Healthy carriers of commensal P. Multocida then stressful event causes disease
29
What are some signs of snuffles in rabbits
Purulent nasal discharge, sneezing coughing
30
What are some sequela to snuffles
Conjunctivitis and otitis media
31
Young rabbits with snuffles can get __
Bronchopneumonia
32
What is tx for snuffles
Enrofloxacin
33
How do you control snuffles
1. Eliminate stress 2. Culling
34
What are some risk factors for P. Multocida
Stress- drastic changes in weather, poor nutrition, overcrowding, asymptomatic or symptomatic carriers
35
Wha are some virulence factors for P. Multocida
1. Capsular polysaccharide 2. Hemagluttins and fimbrae subunits 3. PMT toxins 4. Iron uptake
36
What do hemaggluttinins and fimbrae subunits do
Adhesion to host and chemotaxis
37
What do PMT toxins do
Cytotoxic protein that stimulates cytoskeleton rearrangements
38
All strains of Mannheimia ferment ___
Mannitol
39
How can you differentiate Mannheimia species from Pasteurella species
Mannheimia species fail to ferment D. Mannose
40
Mannheimia species are classified into stereotypes based on ___
Capsular antigens
41
Mannheimia is divided into two bio types (A and T) based on ability or lack of to ferment ___ or ___
L-arabinose or Trehalose
42
T Biotype for Mannheimia is known as __
Pasteurella trehalose
43
What clinical infection does Mannheimia cause
BRD
44
What are some virulence factors for Mannheimia haemolytica
1. LPS 2. Leukotoxin 3. Fimbrae 4. Siderophore 4. Metallo-endopeptidase 5. Superoxide dismutase 6. Capsule
45
What does leukotoxin do
Cytotoxic activity, very potent effect on neutrophils, pore forming
46
What does metallic-endopeptidase do
Cleavage of sialoglycoprotein on surface of epithelial cells
47
What does superoxide dismutase do
Detoxification of free radicals
48
H. Somi, J. Parasuis and A. Paragllinarium are all small motile gram __bacteria and facultative ___
Negative, anaerobes
49
H. Somni. H. Parasuis, and A. Paragllinarium are fastidious and may require X and V factors. What are those 2 factors
X= hemin V= NAD in chocolate agar
50
What is habitat for H. Somni
Respiratory and genital tract of cattle and sheep
51
How is H. Somni transmitted
Direct contact or aerosol
52
What does H. Somni cause in cattle
1. Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis 2. Pneumonia 3. Endometritis and abortion
53
What is thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
Septicemia with infarcts in cerebellum
54
What does H. Somni cause in sheep
1. Epididymitis and orchitis in Rams 2. Pneumonia 3. Mastitis 4. Polyarthritis 5. Meningitis 6. Septicemia
55
What are clinical manifestations for H. Somni
Septicemia
56
How do you dx H. Somi
1. Neurological signs 2. Hemorrhagic necrosis in brain 3. CSF
57
What is tx for H. Somni
1. Isolate 2. Oxytetracycline, penicillin, erythromycin, potentiated sulfonamide
58
What causes glasser disease in pigs
H. Parasuis
59
What are some signs for H. Parasuis
Wasting, dyspnea, polyserositis, leptomeningitis, polyarthritis
60
How do piglets acquire H. Parasuis
From sow shortly after brith
61
Piglets are protected from H. Parasuis for first few weeks because of maternal antibodies but then __generates disease in ___old piglets
Stress, 2-4weeks
62
What are some signs of glassers disease
Anorexia, pyrexia, lameness, recumbent, convulsions, cyanosis, thickening of pinna Or no signs and sudden death
63
How do you dx glassers disease/ H. Parasuis
1. Isolate from joint fluid, heart blood, CSF 2. Postmortem- Fibrinous polyserositis, polyarthritis, or meningitis
64
What is tx for glassers disease
Tetracyclines, penicillins, potentiated sulfonamides
65
How do you control H. Parasuis
1. Eliminate stress 2. Bacterins and autogenous bacterins
66
What is coryza
Common cold- inflammation and discharge from mucous membranes of URT, sinuses and eyes
67
What are the reservoirs for Avibacterium Paragllinarium
Chronically ill or clinically normal carriers
68
How is A. Paragllinarium transmitted
Direct contact, aerosols, contaminated drinking water
69
Who is most susceptible to A. Paragllinarium
4 weeks after hatching, increases with age
70
What are some clinical signs of A. Paragllinarium
Depression, serous nasal discharge, swelling of infraorbital sinuses, marked edema, decrease productivity
71
What are some necropsy findings for A. Paragllinarium
1. Tenacious exudate infraorbital sinuses 2. Tracheitis, bronchitis, air sacculitis
72
How do you dx A. Paragllinarium
1. Facial swelling 2. Serology for antibodies 3. Immunoperoxidase staining of tissues
73
What is tx for A. Paragllinarium
1. Oxytetracycline and sulfonamides 2. All in/ all out approach
74
Is there a vaccine for A. Paragllinarium and if so when vaccinate
Bacterins- vaccinate 3 weeks before anticipated outbreak
75
What do you submit to lab to dx septicemia in dead animal
Pieces of liver, spleen, kidney and lymph nodes
76
What is point of care testing
Medical diagnostic testing at or near point of care to provide instant availability of results to make immediate and informed decisions about patient care