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Term 1 > Medical Terminology (Test 3) > Flashcards

Medical Terminology (Test 3) Flashcards

1
Q

extra-

A

-outside

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2
Q

endo-/intra-

A

-within

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3
Q

peri-

A

-outside

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4
Q

trans-

A

-across

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5
Q

inter-

A

-between

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6
Q

Echogenic

A

-capable of producing echoes

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7
Q

Anechoic

A
  • echo free

- sonolucent

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8
Q

Echopenic

A

-few echoes

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9
Q

Isoechoic

A

-structures compared are of equal echogenicity

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10
Q

Hyperechoic

A

-image echoes are brighter than surrounding tissue or brighter than normal

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11
Q

Attenuation

A

-weakening or diminished echoes

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12
Q

Homogenous

A
  • echoes across a structure are of equal intensity
  • even, uniform or smooth in appearance
  • uniform echoes
  • echo level is the same throughout structure
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13
Q

Hypoechoic

A

-echoes are not as bright as the surrounding tissues or not as bright as normally seen

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14
Q

Heterogenous

A
  • tissue or structure having several different echo characteristics
  • uneven echogenicity
  • non uniform echoes
  • echo level varies in the structure
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15
Q

Acoustic Enhancement

A

-echogenic echoes posteriorly (hyperechoic)

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16
Q

Solid

A
  • internal echoes
  • no posterior enhancement or attenuation
  • no solid components
  • filled with echoes
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17
Q

Complex

A

-has cystic and solid components

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18
Q

Ultrasound Reports

A
  • documentation of exam
  • findings and impressions
  • using accepted terminology improves communication and expedites appropriate patient care
  • report features
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19
Q

Report Features

A
  • echogenicity
  • characteristics
  • texture
  • pattern
  • location
  • size/shape/number
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20
Q

Echo

A
  • ‘brightness’

- directly related to the type and density of the tissue

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21
Q

Hyperechoic

A
  • bright

- echo producing

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22
Q

Hypoechoic

A
  • dark

- poor echo

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23
Q

Anechoic

A
  • black

- non echo producing

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24
Q

Cystic

A
  • no internal echoes
  • rounded, smooth borders
  • good through transmission of sound=posterior enhancement
  • anechoic
  • well defined
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25
Q

Tissue

A

-refers to tissue ‘graininess’

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26
Q

Fine

A

-tissue particles are small and close together

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27
Q

Coarse

A

-tissue particles are large and spaced out

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28
Q

Pattern

A

-refers to uniformity of tissue

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29
Q

Size

A

-measure abnormal masses with callipers

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30
Q

Shape

A

-round, lobulated or irregular

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31
Q

Number

A

-multiple or singular

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32
Q

Cardiovascular System

A
  • heart (the pump)

- vessels (arteries, veins and capillaries)

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33
Q

Cardiologist

A

-a physician specializing in the diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the circulatory system, especially the heart

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34
Q

Hematologist

A

-a physician specializing in diseases of the blood

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35
Q

Phlebotomist/Venipuncturist

A

-a nurse or technician specially trained to draw blood or start IV (intravenous) fluids

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36
Q

ECG Technician

A

-a person who obtains the recording of the hearts electrical activity using an ECG machine (electrocardiogram)

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37
Q

ECG (electrocardiography)

A

-recording of the electrical activity of the heart

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38
Q

Echocardiography

A

-an US imaging of the heart muscle, valves and blood flow

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39
Q

Angiography

A

-radiography of vessels after a radiopaque dye is injected

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40
Q

cardiac

A

-pertaining to the heart

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41
Q

coronary circulation

A

-circulation of blood within a heart muscle

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42
Q

angi/o

A

-vessel

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43
Q

angioplasty

A

-repair of blood vessels

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44
Q

anticoagulant

A

-medicine that prevents blood clots (ex. aspirin)

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45
Q

antibiotic

A

-prescription (Rx) to fight infections

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46
Q

arteri/o

A

-artery

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47
Q

arteriogram

A

-tracing/recording of arteries after dye is injected

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48
Q

ather/o

A

-fatty plaque

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49
Q

atherosclerosis

A

-hardening of arteries due to plaque

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50
Q

hem or hemo

A

-blood

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51
Q

phleb/o

A

-vein

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52
Q

phlebitis

A

-inflammation of a vein

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53
Q

phlebotomy

A

-withdrawing blood from a vein

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54
Q

venogram

A

-xray recording of veins after dye is injected

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55
Q

thromb/o

A

-clot

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56
Q

thrombus

A

-blood clot

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57
Q

thrombophlebitis

A

-inflammation of a vein with a blood clot

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58
Q

Where do the IVC and SVC empty?

A

-Rt atrium of the heart

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59
Q

aorta

A
  • large artery that exits the Lt ventricle

- supplies the body with oxygenated blood

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60
Q

Pulmonary Artery

A
  • Lg artery exiting the Rt ventricle

- supplies lungs with deoxygenated blood that needs to be oxygenated

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61
Q

Pulmonary Veins

A

-return oxygenated blood from lungs to the Lt ventricle

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62
Q

Valves (4)

A
  • tricuspid
  • mitral
  • aortic
  • pulmonary

-keep the blood flowing in the proper direction through the heart

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63
Q

Myocardium

A

-muscular walls of the heart

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64
Q

Coronary Arteries

A

-supplies heart muscle

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65
Q

brady-

A
  • slow

- ex. bradycardia (slow heart rate, <60 BPM)

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66
Q

tachy-

A
  • rapid, fast

- ex. tachycardia (fast heart rate, >100BPM)

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67
Q

Dyspnea

A
  • shortness of breath

- ex. tachypnea (abnormal increased respiration rate)

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68
Q

Hypertrophy

A
  • excessive development

- ex. left ventricle hypertrophy (thickened muscular wall)

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69
Q

pathy-

A
  • abnormal condition

- ex. cardiomyopathy (abnormal condition of heart muscle)

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70
Q

BP

A
  • blood pressure

- force exerted by blood on the vessel wall during the cardiac cycle (120/80 is normal)

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71
Q

gram

A
  • tracing, record

- ex. electrocardiogram (record of electrical activity in the heart)

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72
Q

hypertension

A

-high BP

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73
Q

hypotension

A

-low BP

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74
Q

normotension

A

-normal BP

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75
Q

arrythmia

A

-abnormal, irregular heart beat

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76
Q

-emia

A

-blood

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77
Q

anemia

A

-decrease in RBC’s or Hgb/Hb causing a deficiency of oxygen to the cells

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78
Q

-penia

A

-abnormal reduction

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79
Q

-osis

A

-abnormal condition

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80
Q

Leukopenia

A

-decrease in wbc’s

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81
Q

Leukocytosis

A

-increase in wbc’s as seen with infection

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82
Q

Leukemia

A

-excessive uncontrolled increase of immature wbc’s

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83
Q

lymph/o

A

-lymph tissue

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84
Q

cyte

A

-cell

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85
Q

lymphocyte

A

-lymphatic tissue cell

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86
Q

Atherosclerosis

A
  • hardening of the arteries
  • fatty deposits form plaque along the walls (harden the walls)
  • blockages and complete occlusions can occur
  • when blood vessels become less stretchable, blood pressure rises
  • results in heart damage, kidney damage and strokes
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87
Q

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

A
  • blockage of blood flow to the heart muscles
  • death of muscle tissue
  • heart attack
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88
Q

Coronary Artery Bypass Graft

A
  • surgery

- bypassing of stenotic vessel with a superficial vein from the patient’s extremity

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89
Q

Endarterectomy

A

-scraping the plaque from the walls

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90
Q

Mitral Valve

A
  • valve between the Lt atrium and ventricle

- if it is abnormal, the blood flow from the atrium to the ventricle will be impaired

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91
Q

Prolapse

A

-valve tears away and moves forward

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92
Q

Regurgitation

A

-valves don’t close properly causing leakage of blood back into the atrium during systole

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93
Q

Stenosis

A

-narrowing of the heart valve passageway restricting the amount of blood flow

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94
Q

Angio Pectoris

A
  • pain in the chest
  • not enough blood is getting to the heart muscle
  • nitroglycerin tablets relieve the pain by increasing the blood flow to the muscle
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95
Q

Arrythmia

A

-abnormal heart rates and rhythms

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96
Q

Ischemia

A

-heart muscle not getting enough oxygenated blood to sustain it’s function

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97
Q

Angiography

A

-radiography of the vessels after the injection of radiopaque contrast material

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98
Q

BP

A

blood pressure

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99
Q

CHF

A

congestive heart failure

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100
Q

ECG/EKG

A

electrocardiogram

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101
Q

ICU

A

intensive care unit

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102
Q

IV

A

intravenous (fluid in the arm vein)

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103
Q

P

A

pulse (60-100 heart rate)

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104
Q

Pericarditis

A

-inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart

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105
Q

Bradycardia

A

-abnormally slow heart rate

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106
Q

What cells give blood it’s red colour?

A

-erythrocytes (RBC)

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107
Q

Phlebitis

A

-inflammation of a vein

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108
Q

Myocardial Infarct

A

-permanent damage to the heart due to a blocked artery

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109
Q

Hemangioma

A
  • tumor of abnormal collection of blood vessels

- benign

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110
Q

Respiratory System

A

-takes oxygen in and expels carbon dioxide

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111
Q

Breathing

A
  • works with the circulatory system to provide oxygen and to remove waste products of metabolism
  • regulates pH of the blood
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112
Q

Pulmonologist

A

-a physician specializing in the disease of the lungs

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113
Q

Thoracic Surgeon

A

-specializes in thoracic surgery (organs within the thorax)

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114
Q

Respiratory Therapist

A

-specially trained technologist who administers inhalation therapy to patients with lung disease

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115
Q

bronch/o

A

-lung air passageways

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116
Q

Bronchoscopy

A

-looking into the bronchi

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117
Q

laryng/o

A

-larynx (voice box)

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118
Q

Laryngotomy

A

-cutting into the larynx

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119
Q

-plasty

A

-reconstruction

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120
Q

Rhinoplasty

A

-surgical reconstruction of the nose

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121
Q

pne/u or -pnea

A

-breath, air, lung

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122
Q

Dyspnea

A

-difficulty breathing

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123
Q

Apnea

A

-absense of breathing

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124
Q

pulm/o

A

lung

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125
Q

Pulmonary Artery

A

-artery pertaining to the lungs

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126
Q

-ptysis

A

-spitting, coughing

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127
Q

Hemoptysis

A

-spitting or coughing up blood

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128
Q

Rhin/o

A

nose

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129
Q

Rhinitis

A

-inflammation of the nose

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130
Q

trache/o

A

-trachea (windpipe)

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131
Q

Tracheotomy/Tracheostomy

A

-temporary and permanent openings of the trachea

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132
Q

Atelectasis

A

-a collapsed lung

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133
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A
  • inheritable disease that affects the lungs and other systems
  • produces thick, sluggish mucous
  • patients suffer from lung infections
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3
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134
Q

Emphysema (COPD)

A
  • chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  • destruction of tiny air sacs (alveoli)
  • long term smokers
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135
Q

Epistaxis

A

-nose bleed

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136
Q

Pneumonia

A

-inflammatory condition of the lung

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137
Q

Bronchitis

A

-inflammation of the bronchi

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138
Q

Pulmonary Embolism

A

-blood clot in the lung

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139
Q

Endotracheal Intubation

A

-an air tube is passed into the trachea by a physician or nurse, so oxygen can be directly supplied to the lungs

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140
Q

Bronchoscopy

A

-a device is used to see inside the airways and lungs

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141
Q

Laryngoscopy

A

-visual examination of the larynx

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142
Q

Pulmonary Angiography

A
  • diagnostic procedure

- special xrays of the vessels of the lungs

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143
Q

COPD

A

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

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144
Q

PFT’s

A

Pulmonary Function Tests

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145
Q

SOB

A

shortness of breath

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146
Q

TB

A

tuberculosis

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147
Q

URI

A

upper respiratory infection

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148
Q

Tachypnea

A

-faster than normal respiratory rate

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149
Q

Nervous System

A
  • brain, spinal cord, nerves, ganglia
  • controlling, regulatory, communicating system
  • centre of all mental activity (thought, learning, memory)
  • carries messages to and from brain and spinal cord
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150
Q

neur/o

A

nerve

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151
Q

neuron

A

nerve cell

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152
Q

neuroma

A

nerve tumor

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153
Q

neuritis

A

nerve inflammation

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154
Q

neuropathy

A

disease of the nerves

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155
Q

mening/o

A

membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord

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156
Q

meningitis

A

inflammation of the membranes

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157
Q

myel/o

A

spinal cord

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158
Q

myelogram

A

xray of spinal canal using contrast material

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159
Q

-cele

A
  • hernia

- abnormal protrusion of a structure out of the normal anatomical position

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160
Q

meningomyelocele

A

-protrusion of membranes and spinal cord

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161
Q

cerebell/o

A

cerebellum

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162
Q

cephal/o

A

head

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163
Q

cephalgia

A

headache

164
Q

encephal/o

A

inside the head (brain)

165
Q

encephalitis

A

inflammation of the brain

166
Q

anencephalic

A

born without a brain/skull

167
Q

dys-

A
  • difficult
  • painful
  • abnormal
168
Q

dyslexia

A

-difficulty reading

169
Q

-pathy

A

-disease or abnormality

170
Q

encephalopathy

A

-disease of the brain

171
Q

neuropathy

A

disease of the nerves

172
Q

-plasia

A

-development, formation, growth

173
Q

aplasia

A

no development

174
Q

hyperplasia

A

overdevelopment/growth

175
Q

hypoplasia

A

underdevelopment/growth

176
Q

-plegia

A

paralysis

177
Q

hemiplegia

A

-paralysis of one side of the body

178
Q

quadriplegia

A

paralysis of all 4 limbs

179
Q

paraplegia

A

paralysis of both legs

180
Q

aphasia

A

loss of speech

181
Q

Where is the speech centre in the brain?

A

left side

182
Q

Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)

A

-stroke
-blood vessel in the brain burst, causing internal bleeding
OR
-a clot (thrombus)

183
Q

If someone suffers a stroke or a traumatic brain injury of the left side of the brain, what is usually affected?

A
  • may be complete loss of speech
  • problems finding the right word
  • slow speech
  • difficulty speaking
  • paralysis
  • loss of vision
184
Q

TIA

A

Transient Ischemic Attack

  • ischemia
  • not enough blood (short period of insufficient blood supply to the brain)
  • same signs/symptoms as a stroke
  • resolves in 24 hours
  • people who suffer from TIA’s are at risk for a stroke
185
Q

MS

A

Multiple Sclerosis

  • many hardenings
  • unknown cause
  • multiple hard plaques of degeneration of the insulating layer of nerve fibres in the CNS
  • loss of insulation results in ‘short circuiting’ of nerve impulses
  • patients may suffer paralysis, sensory disturbances or blindness
186
Q

Neurologist

A

-a physician specializing in disease of the brain, spinal cord and nerves

187
Q

Neurosurgeon

A

-specialist who performs surgery on the brain and spinal cord

188
Q

MRI Brain Scan

A
  • magnetic resonance imaging

- uses magnetic field and pulses of radio wave energy to produce images of the brain

189
Q

EEG

A
  • electroencephalogram

- produces a written recording of the brains electrical activity

190
Q

What is EEG used to diagnose?

A
  • cause of seizures

- disorders such a epilepsy, brain tumors and sleep research

191
Q

PET Brain Scan

A

Position Emission Tomography

-uses trace amounts of radioactive material to map functional processes of the brain

192
Q

Digestive System

A
  • alimentary or GI tract
  • mouth to anus
  • liver, gallbladder and pancreas are accessory organs
  • digestion, absorption and elimination
193
Q

gastr/o

A

stomach

194
Q

gastritis

A

inflammation of the stomach

195
Q

gastroscope

A

instrument to look in the stomach

196
Q

hepat/o

A

liver

197
Q

hepatitis

A

inflammation of the liver

198
Q

hepatoma

A

tumor of the liver

199
Q

chol/e

A

gall, bile

200
Q

cyst/o

A

bladder, sac

201
Q

cholecyst/o

A

gallbladder

202
Q

cholecystitis

A

inflammation of the GB

203
Q

cholecystectomy

A

removal of GB

204
Q

emes/o

A

vomit

205
Q

emesis

A

vomitting

206
Q

hyperemesis

A

excessive vomitting

207
Q

lith/o

A

stone

208
Q

cholelithiasis

A

gallstones

209
Q

lapar/o

A

abdominal wall

210
Q

laparotomy

A

cutting into the abdominal wall

211
Q

col

A

colon (lg bowel)

212
Q

colonoscopy

A

visual exam of the inside of the colon

213
Q

enter

A

sm intestine

214
Q

esophag/o

A

esophagus

215
Q

pancreat/o

A

pancreas

216
Q

duoden/o

A

duodenum

217
Q

append/o

A

appendix

218
Q

ile/o

A

ileum

219
Q

rect/o

A

rectum

220
Q

sigmoid/o

A

sigmoid colon

221
Q

dysphagia

A
  • difficulty swallowing

- may be related to GERD or tumor

222
Q

diverticulosis

A

small pouches protruding from the wall of colon

223
Q

diverticulitis

A

inflammation of a diverticulum due to trapped feces

224
Q

esophageal varcies

A

-engorged veins in the walls of esophagus (cirrhosis complication)

225
Q

Chrone’s Disease

A

chronic inflammatory disease primarily of the sm intestine

226
Q

Cirrhosis

A
  • degenerative disease of the liver
  • seen in long term alcoholics
  • named for gross appearance of the liver
  • jaundice (due to bile metabolic by products)
  • obstructive disease of biliary system
227
Q

Jaundice

A

yellow

228
Q

Portal Hypertension

A

-liver damage affecting blood flow of liver

229
Q

GERD

A
  • gastroesophageal reflux disease
  • malfunction of the valve between the esophagus and the stomach allows stomach acid to regurgitate upward
  • irritates esophagus lining
230
Q

Peritonitis

A

inflammation of the lining of the abdominal cavity (peritoneum)

231
Q

What happens if an inflamed appendix bursts?

A

can inflame the peritoneum with pus

232
Q

Guaiac Test (Hemoccult)

A

-chemical test to identify blood in stool (feces)

233
Q

Endoscopy

A

-procedure using a flexible fiberoptic instrument attached to a camera that can directly visualize the inside of the esophagus, stomach and intestines

234
Q

Colonoscope

A

instrument used to visualize the inside of the colon

235
Q

Upper GI Series

A
  • series of xrays of the esophagus, stomach and sm intestine
  • patient drinks a radiopaque barium solution that lines the gut lumen
  • identify problems with swallowing, stomach ulcers, tumors
236
Q

Low Series-Barium Enema

A
  • series of xrays using an enema of barium, mixed with air that is introduced into the colon through a tube in the rectum
  • mixture outlines the lumen and abnormalities
  • used to identify tumors and diverticulosis of the colon
237
Q

Radiologist

A
  • specializes in xray images

- performs and interprets the GI series using a fluoroscope

238
Q

Gastroenterologist

A
  • specializes in disease of the digestive system

- these physicians do not do surgery but can refer a patient to a general surgeon if necessary

239
Q

Proctologist

A
  • specializes in diseases of the rectum and anus

- proctology is a surgical subspecialty

240
Q

Endocrine System

A
  • pineal gland
  • pituitary gland
  • hypothalamus
  • thymus
  • parathyroid gland
  • thyroid gland
  • adrenal glands
  • pancreas
  • kidneys
  • ovaries
  • testes
241
Q

adreno-

A

combining form relating to the adrenal gland

242
Q

pancreat-

A

combining form relating to the pancreas

243
Q

pituitary

A

pertaining to the pituitary gland

244
Q

thymo

A

combining form denoting the thymus gland

245
Q

thyr-/thyro-

A

thyroid gland

246
Q

Diabetes

A

-pancreas body does not produce enough of the hormone insulin or the body does not effectively use the insulin it produces

247
Q

Gigantism and Acromegaly

A

-the body produces too much of the GH

248
Q

GHD (growth hormone deficiency)

A

-too little of GH is produced

249
Q

Osteoporosis

A
  • fragile bones
  • occurs in men and women
  • 4x more common in women
  • decrease in estrogen at menopause can cause it
  • decrease in testosterone in men (as they age) can cause
250
Q

PCOS

A
  • polycystic ovary syndrome
  • most common female endocrine disorder
  • infrequent or irregular menstruation
  • male hormone excess causes symptoms such as hirsutism (increased/unwanted hair growth)
  • acne
  • difficulty conceiving
251
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

too much thyroid hormone

252
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

too little thyroid hormone

253
Q

hyperparathyroidism

A

excess production of parathyroid hormone (PTH)

254
Q

thyroiditis

A

inflammation of the thyroid gland

255
Q

Endocrinologists

A
  • physicians who diagnose diseases of glands

- treat conditions that are complex and involve many systems

256
Q

Components of Lymphatic/Circulatory System

A
  • lymph
  • lymphatic vessels
  • lymph nodes
  • tonsils
  • thymus
  • spleen
  • bone marrow
257
Q

What does the lymphatic system do?

A
  • transports fluid to the general circulation
  • produces and stores cells that fight infection and disease
  • channels that carry lymph are also part of this system
258
Q

Thymus

A
  • sm organ located behind breast bone

- T cells mature here

259
Q

Lymph Nodes

A
  • small
  • bean shaped
  • produce and store cells that fight infection and disease
  • swell and feel sore when you have an infection
260
Q

Bone Marrow

A
  • yellow tissue in the centre of bones
  • makes WBC’s
  • becomes lymphocytes
261
Q

Spleen

A
  • largest lymphatic organ
  • LUQ
  • WBC’s that fight infection
262
Q

lymph/aden/o/pathy

A
  • disease/condition of the lymph glands
  • increase in size of lymph node(s)
  • usually result in a nearby infection
  • can occur with cancer cell filtration
263
Q

Can lymph nodes be felt?

A

-not unless they are swollen or enlarged

264
Q

If lymph nodes are felt in the neck, what is that a sign of?

A
  • sore throat

- throat infection

265
Q

What is a possibility if lymphadenopathy is present in several areas of the body?

A

systemic disease

266
Q

Lymphadenitis or Adenitis

A
  • inflammation of the lymph node (infection in the node)
  • bacterial
  • swelling, tenderness, warmth and redness of overlying skin
267
Q

Lymphoma

A
  • group of cancers that arise from lymph nodes
  • lymphocytes undergo changes and multiply out of control
  • lymph node enlarges as cancer cells crowd out healthy cells and form tumors
268
Q

splenomegaly

A

enlarged spleen

269
Q

Infectious Mononucleosis (Epstein Barr Virus/EBV)

A
  • viral infection

- associated with splenomegaly

270
Q

Why should children and teens with an enlarged spleen avoid sports?

A

-if their spleen ruptures, they could experience life threatening blood loss

271
Q

tonsilitis

A

inflammation of the tonsils

272
Q

tonsils

A

collection of lymphoid tissue at the top of the throat

273
Q

What causes tonsils to swell?

A

bacterial or viral infection

274
Q

What do the tonsils do?

A
  • filter bacteria and other microorganisms

- help the body fight infection

275
Q

pharyngitis

A
  • inflammation of the pharynx (throat)

- can spread to surrounding areas, causing pain and inflammation

276
Q

Allergists/Immunologists

A

-physician trained to diagnose, treat and manage allergies, asthma and immunological disorders

277
Q

Immunity

A

-the bodies ability to resist disease or threatening substances

278
Q

Sensory Systems

A
  • ears
  • eyes
  • skin
279
Q

oculo-

A

combining form meaning the eye

280
Q

Ocular

A

pertaining to the eye

281
Q

-opia

A

vision

282
Q

opthalmo-

A

combining form indicating relationship to the eye

283
Q

Ophthalmology

A

study of the eye

284
Q

Mascular Degeneration

A
  • associated with aging

- damages sharp and central vision

285
Q

Cataract

A

clouding of the eye’s lens

286
Q

AMD

A

age related muscular degeneration

287
Q

Diabetic Retinopathy

A
  • common complication of diabetes

- progressive damage to blood vessels of retina

288
Q

Glaucoma

A
  • damage to optic nerve (rising pressure inside eye)

- vision loss/blindness

289
Q

Ophthalmologist

A
  • medical specialist in ophthalmology

- treats disease of the eye medically and surgically

290
Q

acou-

A

hearing

291
Q

audi-

A

hearing

292
Q

audio-

A

hearing

293
Q

aur-

A

ear

294
Q

auri-

A

ear

295
Q

auro-

A

ear

296
Q

auricular

A

pertaining to the ear

297
Q

oto-

A

combining form denoting the ear

298
Q

Ruptured Eardrum

A
  • eardrum can be torn by loud noises, changes in air pressure or foreign substances (cotton swabs)
  • sm hole usually heals in a few weeks
299
Q

Mastoiditis

A

infection of the mastoid bone (behind ear)

300
Q

Earache

A
  • pain in the ear

- can have many causes (serious or not)

301
Q

Middle Ear Inflammation

A
  • infection of portion behind the eardrum

- otitis media

302
Q

Swimmer’s Ear

A
  • infection of outer ear

- otitis externa

303
Q

Tinnitus

A
  • age or noise exposure

- ringing in one or both ears

304
Q

Auditory Test

A

-examine the ear using sounds of varying volume and frequency

305
Q

Ear Test

A
  • first test of ear infection

- physician uses an otoscope to look into the ear canal to visualize the eardrum

306
Q

Audiologist

A

-specialist in hearing and balance

307
Q

Integumentary System

A
  • skin, hair, nails, sweat glands and sebaceous glands
  • natural ‘coat’
  • protection
308
Q

derm-

A

skin

309
Q

derma-

A

skin

310
Q

dermat-

A

skin

311
Q

dermo-

A

skin

312
Q

dermatitis

A

inflammation of skin

313
Q

onych-/onycho-

A

fingernail

314
Q

Dermatologist

A

takes care of diseases and cosmetic problems of skin, scalp, hair and nails

315
Q

Cellulitis

A

bacterial skin infection

316
Q

Eczema

A

-group of skin disorders that cause inflammation

317
Q

Documenting Findings

A
  • echogenicity
  • texture and pattern
  • position/location
  • size, shape and number
  • WNL check box
318
Q

Echogenicity

A
  • hyper
  • hypo
  • iso
319
Q

Characteristics

A
  • anaechoic
  • simple
  • solid
  • complex
  • acoustic enhancement
320
Q

Texture/Pattern

A
  • homo

- hetero/inhomo

321
Q

Location

A
  • infra
  • inter
  • endo/intra
  • supra
  • sub
  • peri
  • trans
  • extra
322
Q

Size/Shape/Number

A
  • smooth
  • irregular
  • lobulated contour
323
Q

Male Reproductive System

A
  • testes
  • epididymis
  • seminal vesicle
  • ejaculatory ducts
  • prostate gland
  • penis
  • urethra
324
Q

andr/o

A

male

325
Q

androgenic

A

stimulating maleness as in hormones (testosterone)

326
Q

androgynous

A

characteristics of male and female appearance

327
Q

orchid/otes/o

A

teste or testicle (male gonad)

328
Q

orchitis

A

inflammation of teste

329
Q

orchidectomy

A

removal of teste

330
Q

testosterone

A

male sex hormone

331
Q

prostat/o

A

prostate gland

332
Q

prostatitis

A

inflammation of prostate gland

333
Q

prostatectomy

A

removal of prostate gland

334
Q

vas/o

A

vessel or duct

335
Q

vas deferens

A

duct carrying semen from testes

336
Q

vasectomy

A

cutting the vas deferens

337
Q

-rrhaphy

A

to suture

338
Q

herniorrhaphy

A

surgical correction of inguinal hernia

339
Q

PSA

A
  • prostate specific antigen
  • protein for prostate cell secretion
  • detected with lab test
340
Q

What can a rising PSA be a sign of?

A
  • prostate cancer

- BPH

341
Q

What is performed to r/o prostate cancer?

A

prostate biopsy

342
Q

What does ‘testis’ mean in latin?

A

witness

343
Q

What is BPH?

A
  • swelling and increase of cells in prostate gland

- difficulty urinating

344
Q

What does BPH stand for?

A

benign prostatic hypertrophy/hyperplasia

345
Q

When is BPH most common?

A

men after age 60 (50%)

346
Q

Cryptorchidism

A
  • means hidden testicle

- testicles don’t descend into scrotum

347
Q

What can cryptochidism lead to if not corrected with surgery before puberty?

A
  • sterility

- increased risk of testicular cancer

348
Q

Hydrocele

A
  • fluid filled sac partially or completely surrounding the testis
  • swelling in scrotum
  • causes discomfort
  • can be surgically corrected
349
Q

Varicocele

A
  • dilated and twisted veins of the testis
  • swelling on one side of the testis
  • feels like a ‘bag of worms’
  • can be surgically corrected
  • reduces sperm count
350
Q

TURP

A

Transurethral Resection of the Prostate Gland

  • surgical cure for BPH
  • instrument inserted into penile urethra to cut away enlarged prostate that is in the way of urinary flow
351
Q

Female Reproductive System

A
  • ovaries
  • uterus
  • fallopian tubes
  • cervix
  • vagina
  • external genitalia
352
Q

men/o

A

menstruation

353
Q

menarche

A

first

354
Q

dysmenorrhea

A

painful menstration

355
Q

-rrhea

A

flow, discharge

356
Q

amenorrhea

A

without menstruation

357
Q

-rrhagia

A

excessive menstrual flow

358
Q

menorrhagia

A

heavy menstruation

359
Q

oophor/o

A

ovary

360
Q

ooph

A

egg

361
Q

oophorectomy

A

removal of ovary

362
Q

hyster/o

A

uterus

363
Q

hysterectomy

A

removal of uterus

364
Q

salping/o

salpinx

A

uterine/fallopian tube

365
Q

salpingitis

A

inflammation of the fallopian tube

366
Q

hematosalpinx

A

blood in uterine tube

367
Q

cerv

A

neck

368
Q

cervix

A

neck of the uterus

369
Q
  • pareunia

- coitus

A

intercourse

370
Q

dyspareunia

A

painful intercourse

371
Q

precoital, postcoital

A

before and after intercourse

372
Q

mamm/o

mast/o

A

breast

373
Q

mammogram

A

breast imaging (xray)

374
Q

mastectomy

A

removal of breast

375
Q

mastitis

A

inflammation of breast

376
Q

Endometriosis

A
  • colonization of uterine lining
  • blood exits through the fallopian tubes and into peritoneal cavity
  • clots of endometrial tissue attach to ovaries, bowel, bladder, etc.
  • bleeding into peritoneum causes abdominal pain
377
Q

PID

A
  • pelvic inflammatory disease
  • bacteria can enter through vagina to uterus and fallopian tubes
  • abdominal pain
  • can be caused from STI
  • can lead to infertility or ectopic pregnancy
378
Q

Prolapsed Uterus

A
  • uterus falls into vagina
  • in severe cases, the uterus can protrude out of vaginal opening (weakened CT)
  • surgical repair is required
379
Q

What are the risk factors of a prolapsed uterus?

A
  • difficult births
  • lg babies
  • obesity
  • chronic coughs/constipation
  • low estrogen after menopause
380
Q

Colposcopy

A

-using a magnifying instrument to visually inside the vagina and uterus

381
Q

D and C

A
  • dilatation and curettage
  • dilating the cervix and passing instruments that enable scraping of superficial layers of endometrium
  • may be an early abortion
  • may follow a normal pregnancy/birth to remove residual tissue
  • can be performed on patients with constant heavy bleeding
382
Q

Episiotomy

A

-cutting between vagina and anus to prevent tearing during childbirth

383
Q

Hysterectomy/o/salping/o/gram

A
  • xray of uterus and tubes
  • dye is introduced via catheter (through vagina and cervix)
  • test for openness (patency) of tubes
  • blocked tubes will not fill with dye, due to scarring (infertility)
384
Q

Saline Infusion sono/hystero/salpingo/graphy

A

-US test to show patency of fallopian tubes using saline fluid

385
Q

Obstetrician

A
  • midwife

- physician specializing in the diagnosis and management of pregnancy and delivering babies

386
Q

Gynecologist

A
  • physician specializing in diseases of the female reproductive system and related surgeries
  • OB/GYN
387
Q

gravida

A

pregnancy

388
Q

nulligravida

A

never pregnant

389
Q

primigravida

A

first time pregnant

390
Q

multigravida

A

many pregnancies

391
Q

para

A

live births

392
Q

nullipara

A

no live births

393
Q

multipara

A

many live births

394
Q

fetal

A

developing baby

395
Q

What does ‘G3P2’ mean?

A
  • 3 pregnancies, 2 live births

- 3 gravida, 2 para

396
Q

part/o

toc/o

A

labor/birth/delivery

397
Q

prepatrum

A

before birth

398
Q

postpartum

A

after birth

399
Q

dystocia

A

difficult delivery

400
Q

natal

A

birth

401
Q

neonatal

A

new birth (first 4 weeks)

402
Q

postnatal

A

after birth

403
Q

placenta previa

A

-complication of pregnancy
-latin for ‘leading the way’
-placenta implanted over the cervical region of the uterus
-blocks birth canal
occurs in less than 1% of pregnancies
-lots of bleeding

404
Q

abrupt placenta

A
  • complication of pregnancy
  • latin for ‘breaking off’
  • premature separation of normal implanted placenta before full term
  • occurs in 1% of pregnancies
  • has 20 to 40% fetal mortality rate and contributes to maternal mortality
405
Q

Eclampsia

A
  • toxemia of pregnancy
  • serious/life threatening
  • hypertension (high BP), convulsions and coma
406
Q

Preeclampsia

A
  • less severe form of eclampsia

- can be managed if treated early

407
Q

Ectopic Pregnancy

A
  • greek for ‘out of place’
  • pregnancy anywhere outside the uterus
  • tubal pregnancy (fallopian tube) is most common
  • abd cavity is least common
  • 2% of pregnancies
  • surgical emergency
  • tube may rupture
  • can cause infertility

Term 1 (17 decks)

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