Microbiology Compend- True or False Flashcards
(227 cards)
1
Q
Pneumococci are encapsulated when existing in vegetative form.
A
True
2
Q
Lobar pneumonia may be prevented by vaccination with killed cultures of the organisms that cause the disease.
A
False
3
Q
Gonococci can live for long periods of time outside the body of the host.
A
False
4
Q
Skin abscesses are infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
A
True
5
Q
The organisms responsible for tularemia may enter the body through the broken or unbroken skin.
A
True
6
Q
Tetanus is an infection that may be transmitted by droplet spray.
A
False
7
Q
The disease epidemic meningitis is caused by a member of the same genus as the causative agent for the disease gonorrhea.
A
True
8
Q
Most people are carriers of the disease lobar pneumonia at some time during the year.
A
True
9
Q
Gonorrhea is an example of an infection that may be either acute or chronic.
A
True
10
Q
Scarlet fever and rheumatic fever are caused by the same organism.
A
True
11
Q
Infections caused by Salmonella enteritidis may be be transmitted by either direct or indirect contact.
A
False
12
Q
The etiological agents for the disease tuberculosis are capable of forming endospores.
A
False
13
Q
The disease anthrax is caused by a spore-forming bacillus.
A
True
14
Q
Gonorrhea and ophthalmia neonatorum are diseases caused by the same organism.
A
True
15
Q
Asiatic cholera is a disease caused by an organism named Vibrio cholerae.
A
True
16
Q
Myobacterium tuberculosis are encapsulated bacteria.
A
False
17
Q
Naturally acquired active immunity is established by having had a case of the disease.
A
True
18
Q
Bacteria and their products are the only substances that stimulate the body cells of the host to produce antibodies.
A
False
19
Q
A foreign protein which, when introduced into the body excites the body to produce antibodies, is called an immune serum.
A
False
20
Q
All vaccines are antigenic.
A
True
21
Q
Active immunity resulting from the transmission of antibodies through the placenta is a form of natural immunity.
A
True
22
Q
The control of enteric infections depends primarily on the prevention of contamination of food and water.
A
True
23
Q
Active immunization to tetanus can be produced by the inoculation of an immune serum.
A
False
24
Q
Puncture wounds are in danger of producing gas gangrene because they provide anaerobic conditions and dead tissue for the growth of the organisms that cause the infection.
A
True
25
Tetanus and gas gangrene are considered to be non-communicable infections.
True
26
Botulism is a form of food intoxication.
True
27
Clostridium perfringens produces a powerful exotoxin.
True
28
The most common type of plague is the pneumonic variety.
False
29
Syphilis may be transmitted through the placenta to the unborn child.
True
30
Gonorrhea may be transmitted through the placenta to the unborn child.
False
31
Direct contact is the most common mode of transmission for enteric infections.
False
32
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common causative agent for boils.
True
33
The organism causing tuberculosis may live in dried sputum for a considerable length of time.
True
34
Any foreign protein can act as an antigen in the host.
True
35
An antiserum is a blood serum that contains antigens.
False
36
Passive immunization is used as a prophylactic measure in regard to a specific infection.
True
37
Antibacterial serums neutralize exotoxins.
False
38
Agglutinins are specific types of antibodies.
True
39
Precipitins are a specific type of antigen.
False
40
Precipitins are specific types of antibodies.
True
41
Naturally acquired passive immunity is established by actually having had the disease for which the immunity is specific.
False
42
Naturally acquired active immunity is established by actually having had the disease for which the immunity is specific.
True
43
Young infants show a passive immunity to such diseases as measles, chickenpox, and diphtheria due to a transfer of immune bodies from the blood of the mother to the unborn child through the placenta.
True
44
Toxoids are used for the treatment of infectious diseases.
False
45
A highly developed state of resistance to a specific disease is called virulence.
False
46
Lack of resistance to a specific disease is called susceptibility.
True
47
Puerperal fever is an infection that occurs only in females.
True
48
Scarlet fever may be transmitted by contaminated milk.
True
49
A case of any infectious disease produces an immunity to that disease.
False
50
All cases of pneumonia are caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae.
False
51
Gonorrhea may be prevented by the injection of a vaccine for the disease.
False
52
Susceptibility is the reverse of immunity.
True
53
The "Humoral Immunity Theory" involves the formation of antibodies in the blood.
True
54
Agglutinins are antibodies that cause organisms to adhere to each other and form clumps.
True
55
The immunity resulting from the use of antibodies is more permanent than that resulting from the use of vaccines.
False
56
A vaccine establishes passive immunity.
False
57
An antitoxin establishes passive immunity.
True
58
Antibacterial serums neutralize exotoxins.
False
59
An antibody is a substance which when introduced into the body causes the body to produce antigens.
False
60
An antigen is a substance which when introduced into the body causes the body to produce antibodies.
True
61
The important phagocytic cells contained in the blood are leucocytes, particularly the neutrophils.
True
62
Opsonins are substances in the blood that dissolve bacteria.
False
63
An antiserum serves as a means of defense against a disease if it contains antibodies specific for that disease.
True
64
Coagulases are chemical substances produced by pathogenic agents which prevent blood from clotting.
False
65
Allergy is the natural or spontaneous form of hypersensitivity.
True
66
Normal human blood contains agglutinins.
True
67
The autoclave utilizes steam under pressure.
True
68
Antibodies which act on bacteria or other foreign substances in such a manner as to render them more easily ingested by phagocytes are called opsonins.
True
69
Scarlet fever may be transmitted by mosquitos.
False
70
The genus Staphylococcus contains both pathogenic and non-pathogenic species.
True
71
All members of the genus Neisseria are pathogenic to humans.
False
72
Some streptococci are capable of forming endospores.
False
73
Streptococcus pyogenes may be the causative agent for scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, gonorrhea, and puerperal fever.
False
74
The disease diphtheria may be prevented by producing an artificially acquired active immunity to the disease.
True
75
Tuberculosis may be transmitted by contaminated fomites.
True
76
All members of the genus Clostridium are capable of forming endospores.
True
77
Gonorrhea may be transmitted by contaminated fomites.
False
78
Influenza is caused by a bacillus.
False
79
Epidemic typhus is spread from person to person by the body louse.
True
80
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by a rickettsia.
True
81
The viruses causing acute infections of the respiratory tract are known as dermatropic viruses.
False
82
Viruses whose characteristic lesions appear on the skin are known as penumotropic viruses.
False
83
Rabies is caused by a neurotropic virus.
True
84
Varicella is another name for smallpox.
False (Chickenpox)
85
Smallpox, if still a threat to man, could be transmitted from person to person by droplet infection.
True
86
Rubella is another name for smallpox.
False
87
It is believed that the virus of rubeola enters the body by the mouth and nose.
True
88
German measles is known as rubeola.
False
89
Variola is another name for smallpox.
True
90
Common colds may be transmitted by droplet spray.
True
91
Rabies is caused by a penumotropic virus
False
92
Poliomyelitis is caused by a neurotropic virus.
True
93
Epidemic parotitis is another name for mumps.
True
94
Viral nucleic acid is composed of both RNA and DNA.
False
95
Protozoa are morphologically unicellular organisms and are the lowest form of plant life.
False
96
Amoebiasis is a protozoan infection caused by Entamoeba histolytica.
True
97
The malarial parasite is a protozoan organism which belongs to the genus Plasmodium.
True
98
Malaria is transmitted by the female Anopheles mosquito.
True
99
The science that studies fungi is named Mycology.
True
100
Molds and yeasts are forms of procaryotes.
False
101
Molds are nearly spherical in shape and reproduce by budding.
False
102
Yeasts possess both sexual and asexual means for reproduction.
False
103
The organism causing athlete's foot is a yeast.
False
104
Fungus diseases called dermatomycoses are usually systemic and fatal to the host.
False
105
Thrush is another name for Candida infection of the oral cavity.
True
106
Epidemic parotitis is caused by a Chlamydia.
False
107
Rickettsia is a facultative parasite, therefore it may be grown on artificial media.
False
108
Lymphogranuloma venereum is a venereal disease caused by Chlamydia.
True
109
Typhus fever diseases are caused by rickettsia and are transmitted by the mosquito.
True
110
Spotted fever diseases are caused by rickettsia and are transmitted by the mosquito.
False
111
Carriers are important in the spread of malaria.
True
112
Amoebic dysentery is most often spread by contaminated food and water.
True
113
The dermatropic virus diseases usually enter the body via the skin.
False
114
Viruses reproduce by a process called binary fission.
False
115
Infectious mononucleosis is a disease caused by a virus.
True
116
The flagellates (protozoa) move by means of pseudopodia (false feet).
False
117
Pathogenic protozoan parasites are microscopic in size.
True
118
There is only one form to the disease poliomyelitis.
False
119
Intermittent chills and fever are apparent in malaria.
True
120
Recovery from rabies is usually rapid.
False
121
Viruses are good antigens.
True
122
Infection with 3 day (Rubella) Measles can cause birth defects in the first three months of pregnancy.
True
123
Living skin may be sterilized.
False
124
Disinfection refers to the killing of all microorganisms present.
False
125
Sterilization kills only pathogenic microbes.
False
126
An antiseptic is bactericidal in its action.
False
127
Direct sunlight is considered to be bactericidal.
True
128
A viricide kills yeasts and molds.
False
129
Bacteriostasis implies retardation of bacterial growth and reproduction.
True
130
A fumigant is a liquid used for disinfection.
False
131
Sedimentation is a chemical means of destroying microbes.
False
132
Dry heat is more practical than moist heat for sterilization.
False
133
Steam under pressure is the most efficient and most widely applicable means of sterilization.
True
134
Boiling kills most vegetative bacteria in 5-10 minutes.
True
135
Boiling kills most bacterial spores in 5-10 minutes.
False
136
Boiling is about as efficient as free-flowing steam.
True
137
Cold temperatures are primarily bactericidial in their action.
False
138
The autoclave utilize free-flowing steam.
False
139
At sea level, boiling occurs at 100 degrees Centigrade.
True
140
The autoclave is usually operated at a temperature of about 100 degrees Centigrade.
False
141
Phenol is not destructive in living tissues.
False
142
The concentration of a disinfectant has no effect on its efficiency.
False
143
An increase in temperature generally causes an increase in efficiency of a disinfectant.
True
144
A good disinfectant should be chemically stable.
True
145
Carbolic acid is used in standardization of disinfectants.
True
146
Bichloride of mercury is a good chemical disinfectant for instruments.
False
147
Lysol is classified as a cresol
True
148
Phenol is corrosive to metal instruments.
False
149
Hexachlorophene is a quaternary ammonium compound.
False
150
Zephiran chloride is highly toxic to living tissues.
False
151
Hexachlorophene is not retarded in its action by combining with soaps.
True
152
Ethylene oxide is normally used as a liquid chemical disinfectant.
False
153
A communicable disease is always infectious.
True
154
An infectious disease is always communicable.
False
155
The pathogen is the organism upon which the host lives.
False
156
Opportunists never cause endogenous infections.
False
157
An organism is said to be attenuated if its virulence is increased.
False
158
Exotoxins are released during the life of the bacterial cells producing them.
True
159
Hyaluronidase is a bacterial product capable of dissolving "cell cement".
True
160
Leucocidin is a bacterial product that attacks red blood cells.
False
161
A passive carrier exhibits symptoms for the disease being transmitted.
False
162
Congenital disease transmission results in transmission of a disease from the fetus to the mother.
False
163
Droplet spray disease transmission is classified as a direct mode of disease transmission.
True
164
Instruments may act as fomites.
True
165
Fomites are animate objects which act in disease transmission.
False
166
Mosquitos usually transmit disease as biological vectors.
True
167
Mechanical vectors transmit disease directly from host to host.
False
168
Congenital disease transmission occurs through the placenta.
True
169
The intact skin is not an effective barrier to most pathogens.
False
170
The term virulence is defined as the ability of the pathogen to overcome the defensive powers of the host.
True
171
Chronic infections usually have a swift onset and a severe course.
False
172
A focal infection usually remains confined to a particular part of a body.
False
173
Communicable infections can only be transmitted directly from host to host.
False
174
A primary infection is one which occurs in an individual who already has an infection of another type.
False
175
Bacteremia is a condition in which bacteria are found multiplying in the blood.
False
176
Bacteremia is the same as bacteriostasis.
False
177
Virulence is defined as the ability of the host to overcome the defensive powers of the pathogen.
False
178
Pandemic diseases are confined to a single community.
False
179
An epidemic disease may spread to become pandemic.
True
180
An endemic disease is always present to a degree within a community.
True
181
Sporadic diseases occur only as occasional cases within a community.
True
182
Inflammation is a pathological disease process.
False
183
Antibodies are substances which, when introduced into the body, stimulate the body to produce specific antigens.
False
184
Attenuation implies an increase in virulence.
False
185
All bacteria contain an organized nucleus.
False
186
The flagella of bacteria functions to produce motility.
True
187
Putrefaction is the organic decomposition of carbohydrates with the formation of water and carbon dioxide.
False
188
The study of molds is mycology.
True
189
Rickettsiology is the study of the "true fungi."
False
190
That division of microbiology that studies one-celled true plants is protozoology.
False
191
Molds and bacteria are unicellular microorganisms.
False
192
The micrometer is equal to approximately 1/1000 of a millimeter.
True
193
A visible mass of bacteria growing on a solid surface is a colony.
True
194
Organisms that grow in the presence of free oxygen is known as aerobes.
True
195
Moisture is necessary for bacterial growth.
True
196
Those bacteria in which endospores are forming are known as sporulating bacteria.
True
197
The temperature at which a species of bacteria grows best is its maximum temperature.
False
198
Thermophilic bacteria grow best at low temperatures.
False
199
A facultative parasite must obtain its nourishment from living organic matter.
False
200
A facultative aerobe can live as an anaerobe, but prefers living as an aerobe.
False
201
An endoenzyme is produced inside the cell and then is retained within the cell.
True
202
All saprophytic bacteria are heterotrophic.
True
203
Sarcinae are bacteria that exist in packets of four.
False
204
Most pathogenic bacteria grown best in acidic pH.
False
205
An association of two bacteria that is advantageous to one and does not injure the other is commensalism.
True
206
Synergism is an association of two organisms with a result that neither species could produce by itself.
True
207
Symbiosis is an association of two organisms that is mutually advantageous to them both.
True
208
All spirilla, spirochetes, and vibrio are gram-negative.
True
209
The hanging drop preparation is used in the examination of unstained microorganisms.
True
210
Spore forming bacilli are gram positive.
True
211
In an acid fast stain, those organisms that are gram negative would be red in color.
False
212
The minimum temperature for a species corresponds to the average temperature of its usual habitat.
False
213
Bacteria that parasitize the human body grow optimally at 37 degrees F.
False
214
A colony containing only one kind of bacteria is known as a mixed culture.
False
215
Saprophytic bacteria that produce infection only under especially favorable conditions are known as opportunists.
True
216
Some types of bacilli are able to form a number of endospores within a single parent cell.
False
217
A spore that is found near the end of the bacterial cell is called subterminal.
True
218
Direct sunlight acts as a germicidial agent.
True
219
A limited number of spirilla, spirochetes, and vibrio are capable of forming spores.
False
220
Endospores are easily stained using simple staining methods.
False
221
Bacteria that exhibit flagella are termed atrichous.
False
222
Those bacteria in which endospores are not found are called vegetative bacteria.
True
223
An enzyme that is retained within the living cell is called an endoenzyme.
True
224
Most non-pathogenic bacteria grow best in an alkaline pH.
False
225
That division of biology that studies protozoa is mycololy.
False
226
A spore that is formed near but not at the end of a bacilli is classified as a terminal spore.
False
227
Those bacteria that exhibit flagella are termed flagellates.
True
