Microbiology Compend- Multiple Choice Flashcards

1
Q

Vaccines bring about a type of immunity refered to as:

  • Innate
  • Active
  • Passive
  • Naturally acquired
A

Active

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2
Q

The type of immunity which is the result of placental transfer of antibodies is called:

  • Naturally acquired active
  • Naturally acquired passive
  • Artifically acquired active
  • Artifically acquired passive
A

Naturally Acquired Active

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3
Q

The serum derived from an animal that has been immunized to an infectious disease and is used to confer immunity to others, including humans, is called:

  • A vaccine
  • Antitoxin
  • Antiserum
  • An antibiotic
A

Antiserum

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4
Q

A foreign protein, which when introduced into the body, excites the body cells to produce antibodies against itself, is called:

  • Antigen
  • Antibody
  • Immune serum
  • Agglutin
A

Antigen

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5
Q

A type of acquied immunity that results from the inoculation of immune serum.

  • naturally acquired active
  • naturally acquired passive
  • artifically acquired active
  • artificially acquired passive
A

Artificially Acquired Passive

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6
Q

Lack of resistance to a specific disease.

  • Virulence
  • Immunity
  • Susceptibility
  • Attenuation
A

Susceptibility

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7
Q

Substances produced by body cells to combat foreign proteins introduced into the living body.

  • Antigens
  • Antibodies
  • Antibiotics
  • Vaccines
A

Antibodies

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8
Q

Antibodies that inactivate invading bacterial cells by causing the cells to form clumps.

  • Antitoxins
  • Agglutinins
  • Opsonins
  • Precipitins
A

Agglutinins

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9
Q

The type of immunity conferred after birth.

  • Innate
  • Acquired
  • Racial
  • Genetic
A

Acquired

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10
Q

The type of immunity that is inherited is called:

  • Acquired
  • Active
  • Passive
  • Innate
A

Innate

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11
Q

The type of immunity that results from the inoculation of a toxoid:

  • Naturally acquired active
  • Naturally acquired passive
  • Artificially acquired active
  • Artificially acquired passive
A

Artificially Acquired Active

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12
Q

The causative agent of a disease modified in such a manner that it will no longer cause the disease but will still promote the production ofo antibodies:

  • Antiserum
  • Vaccine
  • Antitoxin
  • Antibiotic
A

Vaccine

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13
Q

A highly developed state of resistance to a specific disease:

  • Virulence
  • Pathogenicity
  • Immunity
  • Susceptibility
A

Immunity

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14
Q

The organisms responsible for the infection epidemic meningitis exit from the host by means of:

  • Droplet spray
  • Bile
  • Feces
  • Urine
A

Droplet Spray

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15
Q

Infection caused by members of the genus Salmonella are primarily transmitted by:

  • Ingestion
  • Droplet spray
  • Direct body contact
  • Insect transmission
A

Ingestion

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16
Q

The portal of entry of Salmonella typhi:

  • Skin
  • Mouth
  • Urinary tract
  • Conjunctiva
A

Mouth

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17
Q

Ophthalmia neonatorum is an infection caused by a species of bacteria which is a member of the genus:

  • Mycobacterium
  • Corymebacterium
  • Treponema
  • Nisseria
A

Nisseria

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18
Q

Endospore formation is characteristic of the members of the genus:

  • Cocci
  • Staphylococcus
  • Clostridium
  • Neisseria
A

Clostridium

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19
Q

Lockjaw is the common name for the disease:

  • Tuberculosis
  • Tularemia
  • Pertussis
  • Tetanus
A

Tetanus

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20
Q

Gas gangrene and tissue gas is caused by:

  • Corymebacterium diptheriae
  • Shigella dysenteriae
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Treponema pallidum
A

Clostridium Perfringens

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21
Q

Local skin abscesses are infections usually caused by members of the genus:

  • Streptococcus
  • Corymebacterium
  • Mycobacterium
  • Staphylococcus
A

Staphylococcus

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22
Q

Vibrio cholerae are bacteria responsible for the infection called:

  • Asiatic cholera
  • Infectious jaundice
  • Anthrax
  • Pertussis
A

Asiatic Cholera

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23
Q

Which of the following organisms has a high lipid content of the cell wall?

  • Neisseria gonorrhea
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

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24
Q

Pertussis is a disease that is commonly called:

  • Lockjaw
  • Rabbit fever
  • Whooping cough
  • Mumps
A

Whooping Cough

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25
Rabbit fever is the common name for the disease: * Plague * Tularemia * Rabies * Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Tularemia
26
Puerperal sepsis is commonly referred to as: * Boils * Childbed fever * Whooping cough * Blood Poisoning
Childbed Fever
27
Which of the following organisms is an exotoxin producer? * Neisseria gonorrhea * Staphylococcus aureus * Treponema pallidum * Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium Perfringens
28
The causative agent of the infection called septic sore throat: * Staphylococcus aureus * Streptococcus pyogenes * Clostridium tetani * Corynebacerium diptheriae
Streptococcus Pyogenes
29
Which of the following diseases may be caused by the organisms responsible for infection entering the body through the unbroken skin? * Tularemia * Tetanus * Syphilis * Gonorrhea
Tularemia
30
Endospore formation is a characteristic of: * Hemophilus influenzae * Salmonella enteritidis * Mycobacterium tuberculosis * Bacillus anthracis
Bacillus Anthracis
31
Streptococcus pyogenes is responsible for the infectious disease: * Meningococcemia * Ophthalmia neonatorum * Rheumatic fever * Pertussis
Rheumatic Fever
32
Which of the following organisms is the causative aget for a venereal disease? * Klebsiela pneumoniae * Yersinia pestis * Treponema pallidum * Leptospira interrogans
Treponema Pallidum
33
Weil's disease is another name for: * Asiatic cholera * Tularemia * Diptheria * Infectious jaundice
Infectious Jaundice
34
Silver nitrate prophylaxis was once used for the control of: * typhoid fever * bacillary dysentery * Epidemic meningitis * Ophthalmia neonatorum
Ophthalmia Neonatorum
35
The portal of entry of Streptococcus pneumoniae is the: * nose and mouth * digestive tract * skin * genitourinary tract
Nose and Mouth
36
Antibodies that cause clumping of the antigenic substances are called: * Antitoxins * Cytolysins * Agglutinins * Opsonins
Agglutinins
37
Which of the following organisms is capable of forming capsules when living as parasites? * Neisseria gonorrheae * Mycobacterium tuberculosis * Streptococcus pneumoniae * Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus Pneumoniae
38
Which of the following does NOT play a part in the transmission of salmonellosis? * Food * Flies * Respiratory discharges * Water
Respiratory Discharges
39
Which of the following diseases are caused by a spiral-shaped organism? * Tetanus * Chancroid * Syphilis * Gonorrhea
Syphilis
40
Syphilis is an infection caused by: * Hemophilus ducreyi * Clostridium perfringens * Streptococcus pyogenes * Treponema pallidum
Treponema Pallidum
41
Septic sore throat is caued by a: * coccus * bacillus * spirochete * spirillum
Coccus
42
The disease known as puerperal sepsis occurs in the: * Skin * Digestive tract * Respiratory tract * Female reproductive tract
Female Reproductive Tract
43
Those bateria that perfer to live in the presence of free oxygen but can live in its absence are called: * Strict aerobes * Facultative aerobes * Strict anaerobes * Facultative anaerobes
Facultative Anaerobes
44
The temperature at which a species of bacteria grows best. * Minimum temperature * Optimum temperature * Maximum temperature * Thermal death point
Optimum Temperature
45
An organism that can utilize inorganic matter as food: * Autotrophic * Heterotrophic * Saprophytic * Parasitic
Autotrpohic
46
A bacterium that prefers dead inorganic material, but can also obtain nourishment from living organic material: * Facultative parasite * Strict parasite * Facultative saprophyte * Obligate saprophyte
Facultative Parasite
47
Those spore forming bacteria that currently contain spores. * Vegetative * Sporulating * Flagellates * Autotrophic
Sporulating
48
Those bacteria that grow best at a relatively moderate temperature. * Psychophilic bacteria * Microaerophilic bacteria * Mesophilic bacteria * Thermophilic bacteria
Mesophilic Bacteria
49
The lowest temperature at which growth for a species will take place: * Minimum temperature * Optimum temperature * Maximum temperature * Thermal death point
Minumum Temperature
50
The highest temperature at which growth for a species will take place: * Minimum temperature * Optimum temperature * Maximum temperature * Thermal death point
Maximum Temperature
51
A bacteria that grows and reproduces best in the presence of oxygen, but can also grow and reproduce in its absence. * facultative anaerobe * facultative aerobe * facultative saprophyte * facultative parasite
Facultative Anaerobe
52
pH is a method for measurement of: * colony color * colony growth * alkalinity * colony size
Alkalinity
53
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses? * They develop within the cell * They are obligate parasites * They are the smallest of all living organisms * They are obligate saprophytes
They are Obligate Saprophytes
54
Bacteria usually reproduce by: * Sporulation * Trinary fission * Binary fission * Sexual reproduction
Binary Fission
55
Which organism is acid fast positive? * Neisseria * Corynebacterium * Mycobacterium * Salmonella
Mycobacterium
56
Those bacteria that grow best at relatively high temperatures are: * Psychophilic * Microaerophilic * Mesophilic * Thermophilic
Thermophilic
57
Those bacteria that grow best at a relatively low temperature. * Psychrophilic * Microphilic * Mesophilic * Thermophilic
Psychrophilic
58
Which organisms are known as the "true fungi"? * Chlamydiae * Rickettsiae * Bacteria * Yeasts
Yeasts
59
The study of the smallest microscopic life forms. * Protozoology * Mycology * Bacteriology * Virology
Virology
60
Self digestion of tissue by enzymes of their own formation. * Autolysis * Lipolysis * Hemolysis * Catalysis
Autolysis
61
Which structure functions to protect the organism and to enhance its virulence? * Cell wall * Capsule * Flagella * Cytoplasm
Capsule
62
Which structure contains the material of inheritance? * Cell wall * Cell membrane * Nucleic acid * Ribosomes
Nucleic Acid
63
Those bacteria that may be capable of forming spores: * Bacilli * Vibrio * Spirochetes * Cocci
Bacilli
64
Those bacteria that are spherical in shape. * Bacilli * Vibrio * Spirilla * Cocci
Cocci
65
Rod-shaped bacteria. * Spirilla * Vibrio * Cocci * Bacilli
Bacilli
66
The study of true fungi. * rickettsiology * bacteriology * mycology * myology
Mycology
67
An animal or plant of microscopic size. * Macrophage * Unicelled organism * Microorganism * Metazoa
Microorganism
68
Those eucaryotic, true fungi that reproduce by budding. * Viruses * Bacteria * Protozoa * Yeasts
Yeasts
69
Cocci, bacilli, and spirilla are shapes of: * Protozoa * Molds * Yeasts * Bacteria
Bacteria
70
Molds are: * Multicellular * Unicellular * Spore formers * Procaryotic
Multicellular
71
Living orgamisms that are composed of a single cell are said to be: * Multicellular * Unicellular * Fusiform * Universal
Unicellular
72
Microscopic one-celled animals are called: * protozoa * rickettsia * virus * yeasts
Protozoa
73
A micrometer is equal to approximately: * 1/25 of an inch * 1/2500 of an inch * 1/250 of an inch * 1/25000 of an inch
1/25000 of an Inch
74
Which of the following are classified as a venereal disease? * Lymphogranuoma venereum * Pulmonary tuberculosis * Tularemia * Psittacosis
Lymphogranuoma Venereum
75
The bacteria which contain nuclear bodies. * Procaryotic * Eucaryotic * Involuted * Attenuated
Procaryotic
76
The most common mode of transmission for tuberculosis: * Genitourinary secretions * Soil * Water * Droplet spray
Droplet Spray
77
The cytoplasm of the typical eucaryotic cell is separated from the nucleus by the: * Cytoplasmic membrane * Nuclear membrane * Cell Wall * Endospore
Nuclear Membrane
78
The material of inheritance is contained within the: * Metachromatic ganules * Vacuoles * Nuclear body * Polar body
Nuclear Body
79
The basic unit from which all living organisms are made. * Vacuole * Nuclear membrane * Metachromatic granules * Cell
Cell
80
An association of two organisms that is detrimental to one. * Symbiosis * Metabiosis * Antibiosis * Commensalism
Antibiosis
81
An enzyme that is produced in a bacterial cell but retained inside the cell. * An endoenzyme * An ectoenzyme * An exoenzyme * A heteroenzyme
Endoenzyme
82
A visible mass of bacterial growth resulting from the reproduction of a single cell. * Bacterial population * Mixed culture * Colony * Sarcinae
Colony
83
Spherical shaped bacteria that form grape-like clusters. * Bacilli * Cocci * Staphylococci * Streptococci
Staphylococci
84
Spore formation is characteristic of only a few species of: * cocci * bacilli * Spirilla * Vibrio
Bacilli
85
Spores are most likely to form when: * The bacteria has plentiful food supply * The bacteria is ready to produce * The conditions for reproduction are not favorable * The cell involved is a spirilla
The Conditions for Reproduction are not Favorable
86
The presence of a capsule may affect a bacterium by: * Decreasing virulence * Increasing virulence * Producing motility * Killing the organism
Increasing Virulence
87
The bacterial spore is called an endospore because: * It is formed outside the cell * It is formed inside the nucleus * It is formed outside the nucleus * It is formed within the cell
It is Formed Within the Cell
88
Which of the following is caused by Chlamydia? * Psittacosis * Tuberculosis * Scarlet fever * Herpes Simplex Type II
Psittacosis
89
The size of bacteria is measured in a special unit called: * An inch * A micrometer * A millimeter * A centimeter
Micrometer
90
The smallest unit in which a living organism can survive independently. * Nucleus * Colony * Vacuole * Cell
Cell
91
Spore forming bacteria under unfavorable conditions. * Lophotrichous * Sporulating * Attenuated * Vegetative
Sporulating
92
Spore formation is characterized as: * A protective device * A reproductive device * A locomotive structure * Found in all bacteria
A Protective Device
93
Spore formation occurs in response to: * An internal stimulus * She shape of the organism * Unsuitable living conditions * Reproduction
Unsuitable Living Conditions
94
The respiratory tract is the primary portal of entry for all of the following virus diseases except: * Influenza * Mumps * Smallpox * Rabies
Rabies
95
Monilia is used synonymously with: * Candida * Histoplasma * Actinomyces * Bastomyces
Candida
96
A viral disease primarily of man. * mumps * psittacosis * rabies * rocky mountain spotted fever
Mumps
97
What is the most common mode of transmission for gonorrhea? * Droplet spray * Sexual conduct * Contaminated milk * Houseflies
Sexual Conduct
98
Which is NOT a viral disease? * Epidemic parotitis * Rubella * Poliomyelitis * Typhus fever
Typhus Fever
99
Which is NOT a viral disease? * Smallpox * Chickenpox * Syphilis * Herpes
Syphilis
100
Lymphogranuloma venereum is caused by a: * Bacteria * Spirochete * Chlamydia * Virus
Chlamydia
101
Least likely to be a viral disease is: * Bubonic plague * Mumps * Rabies * Smallpox
Bubonic Plague
102
Antibiotics have thus far been ineffective against most varieties or types of: * Bacteria * Fungi * Spirochetes * Viruses
Viruses
103
The causative agent of typhus fever. * Virus * Bacterium * Rickettisa * Fungus
Rickettisa
104
Which of the following viruses is most likely transmitted from person to person by unsanitary injection procedures? * Measles * Herpes simplex * Poliomyelitis * Serum hepatitis
Serum Hepatitis
105
Mycology is the study of: * Bacilli * Viruses * Fungi * Protozoa
Fungi
106
Ringworm arises from: * Protozoan infection * A bacterial infection * An allergic reaction * A fungal infection
A Fungal Infection
107
Which of the following require living cells for growth? * Fungi * Viruses * Bacteria * Protozoa
Viruses
108
Malaria is caused by: * Molds * Viruses * Helminths * Protozoa
Protozoa
109
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by: * Coxiella burnetii * Rickettsia conorii * Rickettsia rickettsii * Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Rickettsia Rickettsii
110
Serum hepatitis has been attributed to: * A cat scratch * Exposure to blood * A dog bite * Contaminated surfaces
Exposure to Blood
111
A virus which causes fever blisters or cold sores. * Rubella virus * Varicella virus * Herpes zoster virus * Herpes Simplex virus
Herpes Simplex Virus
112
Hemplysins and leucocidins are classfied as: * Vaccines * Immune serums * Antibodies * Bacterial toxins
Bacterial Toxins
113
Which of the following is caused by rickettsia? * Mumps * Rabies * Poliomyelitis * Q fever
Q Fever
114
Which of the following is the least effective in the destruction of microbes? * Cold temperatures * Steam under pressure * Dry heat * Ultraviolet light radiation
Cold Temperatures
115
Protozoa may be classified as: * Multicellular * Unicellular * Acellular * Procaryotic
Unicellular
116
Epidemic typhus fevers are transmitted by: * flies * mosquitos * ticks * lice
Lice
117
Parrot fever is: * Transmitted by insects * A water-borne disease * A placental disease * Transmitted by air
Transmitted by Air
118
Malaria and amoeabiasis are caused by: * Protozoa * Bacteria * Yeast * Virus
Protozoa
119
A virus is a: * Strict parasite * Strict saprophyte * Facultative parasite * Toxin
Strict Parasite
120
The common cold is transmitted by: * Insect bite * Droplet spray * Water * Food
Droplet Spray
121
Rabies are also called: * Parotitis * Hydrophobia * Coryza * Rhinitis
Hydrophobia
122
Rickettsia grow only as: * Autotrophs * Saprophytes * Parasites * Thermophiles
Parasites
123
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by: * Ticks * Rickettsia * Virus * Fungi
Rickettsia
124
Q fever is caused by: * Mites * Rickettsia * Frambesia * Viruses
Rickettsia
125
Histoplasmosis and coccidioidomycosis are caused by: * Bacteria * Fungi * Rickettsia * Chlamydia
Fungi
126
Viruses have been found to be capable of infesting: * Man * Animals * Insects * All of these
All of These
127
Which of the following is caused by a member of the genus Staphylococcus? * Typhus fever * Bubonic plague * Food poisoning * Leprosy
Food Poisoning
128
Ringworm is caused by a: * Bacteria * Fungus * Protozoa * Rickettisa
Fungus
129
Which organism causes the disease known as thrush? * Coccidiodes * Candida * Histoplasma * Plasmodium
Candida
130
Which disease is NOT dermatrophic? * Shingles * Fever blisters * Mumps * Rubella
Mumps
131
Which virus attacks the respiratory tract? * Dermatrophic * Neurotrophic * Pneumotrophic * Adenotrophic
Pneumotrophic
132
Vaccination with cowpox virus will produce an immunity to: * Rubeola * Varicella * Variola * Rabies
Variola
133
Which protozoan parasite does NOT have a method for locomotion? * Sporozoa * Flagellates * Ameoba * Ciliate
Sporozoa
134
The destruction of all microorganisms and their products. * Disinfection * Barteriostasis * Sterilization * Antisepsis
Sterilization
135
The inhibition of bacterial growth and reproduction without necessarily destroying the organisms is the result of: * Disinfectant * Sterilant * Antiseptic * Bactericide
Antiseptic
136
The destruction of all pathogens and their products. * Bacteriostasis * Sterilization * Disinfection * Antisepsis
Disinfection
137
An agent which destroys yeasts and molds. * Fungicide * Bactericide * Viricide * Germicide
Fungicide
138
An agent which liberates gases or fumes for the purpose of destruction of insects and microorganisms. * Sterilant * Disinfectant * Fumigant * Antiseptic
Fumigant
139
Which of the following is most efficient in destruction of microorganisms? * Cold temperatures * Dry heat * Boiling * Steam under pressure
Steam Under Pressure
140
Which of these is primarily bacteriostatic in its action? * Dry heat * Steam under pressure * Free-flowing steam * Cold
Cold
141
The most diagnosed viral infection. * Smallpox * Chickenpox * The Common Cold * Measles
The Common Cold
142
The most widely applicable and effective sterilizing agent. * Fumigation * Filtration * Heat * Chemical
Heat
143
The usual portal for peumotropic viral diseases. * Respiratory tract * Genitourinary tract * Skin * Digestive tract
Respiratory Tract
144
Free-flowing steam is about equal to: * Dry heat * Filtration * Boiling * Steam under pressure
Boiling
145
The autoclave usually generates temperature of about: * 100 degrees C * 121 degrees F * 200 degrees C * 121 degrees C
121 Degrees C
146
The ultraviolet rays contained in direct sunlight: * Are essential for bacterial growth * Are bactericidal * Are ony bacteriostatic * Have no effect on bacteria
Are Bactericidal
147
German measles are more correctly known as: * Rubeola * Rubella * Herpes simplex type 1 * Epidemic parotitis
Rubella
148
What type of virus would have an affinity for the liver? * Dermatropic * Neurotropic * Viscerotropic * Pneumotropic
Viscerotropic
149
Which of the following is NOT a factor in the action of a chemical disinfectant? * Concentration of the disinfectant * Nature of matrial being disinfected * Time of day * Number of microorganisms present
Time of Day
150
Which of the following is used as a standard to measure the efficiency of chemical disinfectants? * Bichloride of mercury * Formalin * Phenol * Alcohol
Phenol
151
Which of the following is a quaternary ammonium compound? * Mercuric chloride * Zephiran chloride * Tincture of iodine * Carbolic acid
Zephiran Chloride
152
Which part of the body is affected by encephalitis? * Kidney * Brain * Liver * Spleen
Brain
153
The same virus that causes chickenpox wil also cause a second infection in some individuals. This second infection is known as: * Shingles * Infuenza * Herpes * Variola
Shingles
154
What type of viral diseases would cause lesions of the skin? * Adenotropic * Viscerotropic * Neurotropic * Dermatropic
Dermatropic
155
Which of the following is NOT a phenolic compound? * Phenol * Carbolic acid * Glutaraldehyde * Hexachlorophene
Glutaraldehyde
156
A term that may be used to describe the presence of true pathogens on inanimate objects. * Infection * Infestation * Contamination * Virulence
Contamination
157
Microorganisms that produce disease only under favorable conditions. * Saprophytes * Obligate aerobes * True pathogens * Opportunists
Opportunists
158
What term refers to the invasion of the body by macroscopic parasites? * Contamination * Infestation * Infection * Virulence
Infestation
159
What term is defined as the degree of the ability of a microorgansim to cause disease? * Infection * Pathogenicity * Virulence * Infestation
Virulence
160
What term is defined as the invasion of the body by living microorgansism with subsequent multiplication and disease production? * Infection * Contamination * Infestation * Infiltration
Infection
161
Attenuation affects a pathogen by: * Killing it * Increasing virulence * Increasing growth rate * Decreasing virulence
Decreasing Virulence
162
What term refers to the preference of a pathogen for a particular part of the body? * Infection * Attenuation * Elective localization * Virulence
Elective Localization
163
An infection which is caused by organisms already present in the body is best described as: * Sporadic * Exogenous * Endemic * Endogenous
Endogenous
164
An infection which has a relatively short and severe course. * Acute * Chronic * Local * Endemic
Acute
165
An infection which remains confined to a particular part of the body. * Endemic * Endogenous * Focal * Local
Local
166
What infection is one in which microorganisms or their products are spread by the blood or lymph throughout the entire body? * Local * Sporadic * Terminal * General
General
167
What infection is one which have a relatively slow onset and long duration? * Mixed * Focal * Chronic * Acute
Chronic
168
What infection spreads from one are of infection to set up other areas of infection in the body? * Local * Acute * Epidemic * Focal
Focal
169
What infection is one in which the causative agents enter the body from the outside by entering through one of the portals of entry? * Focal * Endogenous * Extraneous * Exogenous
Exogenous
170
What infection is one which occurs in an individual who already has an infection of another type? * Exogenous * General * Secondary * Sporadic
Secondary
171
What infection is one caused by two or more different organisms at about the same time? * Local * Focal * Mixed * Terminal
Mixed
172
What is a condition in which bacteria are found in the blood but not multiplying there? * Septicemia * Toxemia * Sapremia * Bacteremia
Bacteremia
173
What infection occurs in an indivdual who has no other active infection? * Local * Primary * General * Secondary
Primary
174
What is an infection of the blood with actual growth and multiplication of pathogens in the blood? * Anemia * Toxemia * Septicemia * Bacteremia
Septicemia
175
What infection occurs as a late complication of another disease and is itself the actual cause of death? * Primary * Endogenous * Terminal * Sporadic
Terminal
176
A communicable disease which is normally present to a greater or lesser degree within a community. * Sporadic * Endemic * Epidemic * Pandemic
Endemic
177
A communicable disease that attacks a large number of persons in a community at about the same time. * Endemic * Sporadic * Epidemic * Pandemic
Epidemic
178
A communicable disease that occurs in a community only as an occasional case. * Pandemic * Endemic * Epiemic * Sporadic
Sporadic
179
A communicable disease that has spread to more than one country. * Pandemic * Endemic * Epidemic * Sproadic
Pandemic
180
\_\_\_\_\_\_ are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released into the surrounding medium by the living cells. * Endospores * Endotoxins * Nucleic acids * Exotoxins
Exotoxins
181
Which of the following substances produced by bacteria will destory white blood cells? * Hemolysins * Fibrinolysins * Coagulates * Leucoidins
Leucoidins
182
Which of the following substances produced by bacterial cells will destroy red blood cells? * Hemolysins * Fibrinolysins * Coagulates * Leucoidins
Hemolysins
183
What are poisonous substances produced by bacteria and released only when the bacterial cells die and disintegrate? * Capsules * Endospores * Exotoxins * Endotoxins
Endotoxins
184
Which of the following is true of a carrier? * May have never had the disease that is being carried. * May have had the disease and recovered * Exhibits no symptoms of the disease * All of these
All of These
185
What carrier harbors and disseminates the causative agents of a disease for along time following recovery from the disease? * Active * Passive * Contact * Convalescent
Active
186
Which of the following is a mode of direct disease transmission? * Contaminated fomites * Biological vectors * Droplet spray * Mechanical vectors
Droplet Spray
187
What is the proper term for smallpox? * Varicella * Variola * Herpes simplex 1 * Rubella
Variola
188
Which of these transmit disease by biting the host? * Mechanical fomites * Mechanical vectors * Biological fomites * Biological vectors
Biological Vectors
189
Which of the following would most likely transmit typhoid fever as a mechanical vector? * Tick * Housefly * Louse * Mosquito
Housefly
190
Congenital disease transmission occurs through: * Broken skin * Placenta * Respiratory tract * Digestive system
Placenta
191
Which of the following are mechanical body defenses? * Intact skin * Mucous membranes * Cilia * All of the above
All of the Above
192
Inflammation is primarily a: * Mechanical body defense * Chemical body defense * Physiological body defense * External body defense
Physiological Body Defense
193
What substances are produced by the body in response to the entry of a foreign substance into the body. * Antigens * Lysozymes * Antibodies * Endotoxins
Antibodies
194
Bacteria are considered: * Procaryotic * Eucaryotic * Inorganic * Fungicidal
Procaryotic
195
Bacteria which prefer inorganic material as their source of nutrition. * Autotrophic * Parasitic * Saprophytic * Heterotropic
Autotropic
196
A toxin which remains inside a bacteria until the bacteria disintegrates. * Endotoxin * Exotoxin * Antitoxins * Atoxin
Endotoxin
197
A bacterium which has a high degree of pathogenicity is said to be very: * Virulent * Attenuated * Susceptible * Viscous
Virulent
198
A bacterium which has had its virulence reduced. * Attenuated * Organic * Hypertonic * Hypotonic
Attenuated
199
Hydrophobia is a condition often associated with: * Rabies * Actue coryza * Poliomyelitis * German measles
Rabies
200
The presence of bacteria in the blood with no noticeable growth or reproduction. * Bacteremia * Aseptic * Antiseptic * Bacteriocidal
Bacteremia
201
A person who harbors a pathogenic microbe but does not exhibit any symptoms of the disease which it is known to cause. * A carrier * A port of entry * A cause of disease * A vector of the disease
Carrier
202
Tuberculosis is an example of a: * Bacterial disease * Viral disease * Rickettsial disease * Fungal disease
Bacterial Disease
203
In the name Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the first name is the: * Species * Order * Class * Genus
Genus
204
The prefix "staphylo" refers to an organism's tendency to: * Occur in grape-like clusters * Have a spherical shape * Form pus * Remain localized in infections
Occur in Grape-Like Clusters
205
Which of the following structures interfere most with phagocytosis? * Flagella * Granules * Capsules * Vacuoles
Capsules
206
Many bacteria possess a thick colorless gelatinous outer covering called a: * Capsule * Spore * Nucleus * Inclusion body
Capsule
207
What is the classification for the disease poliomyelitis? * Adermotropic * Dermatropic * Viscerotropic * Neurotropic
Neurotropic
208
Which of the following organisms requires living cells for growth and reproduction? * Viruses * Fungi * Spirilla * Protozoa
Viruses
209
Which of the following is NOT a factor influencing the occurrence of an infection? * The gram stain reaction of the microbe * The number of microbes present * The portal of entry of the microbe * The resistance of the host
The Gram Stain Reaction of the Microbe
210
The type of lesion most closely associated with tuberculosis. * A pseudo membrane * An abscess * A tubercle * A boil
A Tubercle
211
A highly communicable disease which is usually spread directly from person to person is considered: * Exogenous * Endogenous * Contagious * A general infection
Contagious
212
Racial immunity is an example of: * Innate immunity * Artificially acquired active immunity * Naturally acquired passive immunity * Artificially acquired passive immunity
Innate Immunity
213
What type of substance is secreted by a living cell that can bring about chemical changes in another substance without undergoing any substantive change themselves? * Endotoxins * Exotoxins * Enzymes * Antibodies
Enzymes
214
The invasion, multiplication and spreading of microorganisms causing harm to the host. * Antiseptic * Disinfection * Contamination * Infection
Infection
215
What type of pathogen cause disease under most conditions? * True pathogens * False pathogens * Opportunistic pathogens * Indigenous flora
True Pathogens
216
For disinfection, alcohol is most effective in a: * Seventy percent solution * One hundred percent solution * Twenty percent solution * Ten percent solution
Seventy Percent Solution
217
Which of these is an example of a physiological defense mechanism of the body against infection? * Gastric juices * Boney encasement * Inflammation * Intact mucous membranes
Inflammation
218
The process of passing a liquid through a material with pores so small that bacteria cannot pass through is: * Sterilization * Sedimentation * Filtration * Disinfection
Filtration
219
Which of these chemical agents is a member of the quaternary ammonium compound family? * Mercuric chloride * Calcium hydroxide * Benzalkonium chloride * Sodium hypochlorite
Benzalkonium Chloride
220
Which of the following viruses is most likely transmitted from host to host by unsanitary injection procedures? * Herpes simplex 1 * Measles * Poliomyelitis * Serum hepatitis
Serum Hepatitis
221
Oral and vaginal thrush are caused by: * Aspergillis negri * Treponema pallidum * Candida albicans * Sterptococcus aureus
Candida Albicans
222
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is caused by: * Rickettsia * Ticks * A virus * Fungi
Rickettsia
223
Q fever is caused by: * A virus * Bacteria * Rickettsia * Chlamydia
Rickettsia
224
The spread of microorganisms from host to host by food, milk and water is what mode of transmission? * Direct contact * Indirect contact * Insect vector-mechanical transmission * Insect vector-biological transmission
Indirect Contact
225
A disease that is not transmitted from one host to another is: * Contamination * Infestation * Attenuated * Non-communicable
Non-Communicable
226
Those microorganisms that do not normally invade the body of the host to produce disease. * Normal flora * True pathogens * Infectious microorganisms * Toxigenic microorganisms
Normal Flora
227
Which of these is least effective in achieving a sterile environment? * Boiling * Free-flowing steam * Steam under pressure * Dry Heat
Boiling
228
Which mechanical method of sanitation is likely to be used in the practice of mortuary hygiene? * Scrubbing * Sedimentation * Heat * Filtration
Scrubbing
229
Which of the following is capable of producing an enterotoxin that will cause food poisoning? * Staphylococcus * Streptococcus * Treponema * Mycobacterium
Staphylococcus
230
The common cold can be transmitted by: * An insect bite * Droplet spray * Congenital transmission * Contaminated food
Droplet Spray
231
The structures that produce motility for bacterial cells are the: * Spores * Capsules * Flagella * Pili
Flagella
232
Which of these is NOT typical of a bacterial spore? * They are the most resistant form of life known * They are formed inside the microbial cell * They are susceptible to small amounts of heat or light. * They are formed by bacilli microorganisms
They are Susceptible to Small Amounts of Heat or Light
233
Which of these chemical agents is described as a coal-tar derivative? * Formaldehyde * Ammonia * Mercuric chloride * Phenol
Phenol
234
Which of these is an example of a pathogenic protozoa? * Entamoeba histolytica * Staphylococcus aureus * Treponema pallidum * Vibrio cholerae
Entamoeba histolytica
235
Which of these statements is descriptive of spirochetes? * They are spiral-shaped microbes which move with a twisting axis. * They are spiral-shaped microbes which move with a fixed axis * They are rod-shaped microbes which have no motility * They are spherical-shaped microbes which have pseudopods for motility.
They are Spiral-Shaped Microbes Which Move With a Twisting Axis
236
A gelatinous envelope that surrounds a bacilli. * Spore * Capsule * Flagella * Cell membrane
Capsule
237
Where are spores formed? * Outside the cell wall * Between the cell wall and the cell membrane * Within the cell cytoplasm * Within the cell nucleoplasm
Within the Cell Cytoplasm
238
A thin whip-like organelle of bacterial motility. * Spore * Cilia * Flagellum * Capsule
Flagellum
239
Diplococci appear: * In long chain-like formations * In pairs * In groups of eight * In a cluster
In Pairs
240
The optimum pH for most pathogenic bacteria. * 7.0 * 6.6 * 8.0 * 7.4
7.4
241
A bacterium that produces infection only when specific conditions arise. * A parasitic pathogen * An opportunistic pathogen * A host bacteria * A true pathogen
An Opportunistic Pathogen
242
The degree of the ability of a microbe to produce disease is measured as: * Attenuation * Toxicity * Virulence * Infectiousness
Virulence
243
A poisonous substance produced by a microorganism is: * A toxin * An activator * An antibody * A toxoid
Toxin
244
Normal flora bacteria will cause which of the following types of infection? * Exogenous * Acute * Chronic * Endogeneous
Endogeneous
245
The process of ingestion of bacteria by leukocytes is: * Diapedesis * Phagocytosis * Antibiosis * Symbiosis
Phagocytosis
246
The humoral theory of immunity involves: * Macrophages * Mast cells * Antibodies * Thrombocytes
Antibodies
247
The word "streptococcus" describes: * Spherical cells arranged in chains * Spherical cells arranged in clusters * Rod-shaped cells arranged in chains * Rod-shaped cells arranged in clusters
Spherical Cells Arranged in Chains
248
Which of the following is NOT an effective disinfectant? * Quaternary ammonium compounds * Iodophores * Soap * Formaldehyde
Soap
249
What body cell is known to perform the process of phagocytosis? * An antibody * A leukocyte * An erythrocyte * A thrombocyte
Leukocyte
250
Staphlycoccus aureus causes: * A nosocomial infection * Diphtheria * Anthrax * Syphilis
A Nosocomial Infection
251
Yersinia pestis causes: * Hydrocele * Hydrophobia * Plague * Gonorrhea
Plague
252
Chlamydia psittaci causes: * Yellow fever * Scarlet fever * Rabbit fever * Parrot fever
Parrot Fever
253
With what disease is Varicella Zoster identified? * Measles * Mumps * Shingles * Fever blisters
Shingles
254
With what disease is rubella identified? * Fever blisters * Chancres * Mumps * German measles
German Measles
255
What disease is identified with the condition called hydrophobia? * Chickenpox * Mumps * Mononucleosis * Rabies
Rabies
256
Clostridium perfringens causes: * Chickenpox * Plague * Leprosy * Tissue Gas
Tissue Gas
257
What disease is caused by Francisella tularensis? * Rabbit fever * Scarlet fever * Puerperal fever * Parrot fever
Rabbit Fever
258
What disease is caused by Bacillus anthracis? * Rabbit fever * Cholera * Anthrax * Bubonic plague
Anthrax
259
Which of the following is most likely to enter the body through the genitourinary tract? * Pneumonic plague * Bubonic plague * Syphilis * Tularemia
Syphilis
260
Which of the following is classified as pneumotropic? * Influenza * Chickenpox * Shingles * Rabies
Influenza
261
Which of the following is classified as viscerotropic? * Measles * Smallpox * Hepatitis * Chickenpox
Hepatitis
262
Which of these is a chemical agent capable of killing viral organisms? * Disinfectant * Fungicide * Viricide * Insecticide
Viricide
263
Which of these chemical agents is capable of killing molds? * Fumigant * Disinfectant * Insecticide * Fungicide
Fungicide
264
What type of immunity is based solely on the genus and species of the host? * Active immunity * Passive immunity * Natural immunity * Artificial immunity
Natural Immunity
265
What control process is used to destroy something of no value? * Direct sunlight * Incineration * Boiling * Freezing
Incineration
266
What condition is most desired by mesophilic bacteria? * Hot temperatures * Moderate temperatures * Cold temperatures * Direct sunlight
Moderate Temperatures
267
What agent destroys yeasts and molds? * Bacteriocide * Fungicide * Viricide * Sporicide
Fungicide
268
An agent that liberates gases for the purpose of destroying macroscopic life: * Fungicide * Fumigant * Germicide * Disinfectant
Fumigant
269
What type of bacteria grows best between temperatures of 30 degrees celsius and 40 degrees celsius? * Psychrophilic * Cryophilic * Mesophilic * Thermophilic
Mesophilic
270
Bacteria that require organic chemical compounds for nourishment: * Autotrophic * Heterotrophic * Phototrophic * Mesophilic
Heterotrophic
271
The structure providing a bacterial cell with rigidity and outlining the shape of the cell. * Cell membrane * Cell wall * Cytoplasm * Nuclear membrane
Cell Wall
272
Which of these statements best describes a pathogen? * An organism capable of producing disease in a susceptible host * An organism which utilizes inorganic compounds for nutrition * An organism which carries Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever * An organism which is used as an inoculant.
An Organism Capable of Producing Disease in a Susceptible Host
273
An infection that occurs after another infection is already present. * An acute infection * A chronic infection * A secondary infection * A primary infection
A Secondary Infection
274
Which of these infections occurs with rapid onset and short duration? * Primary infection * Mixed infection * Chronic infection * Acute infection
Acute Infection
275
The first infection that a person has at any given time. * A specific infection * A chronic infection * A primary infection * A mixed infection
Primary Infection
276
An infection that is caused by two or more different organisms: * Mixed infection * Secondary infection * Chronic infection * Local infection
Mixed Infection
277
Which of the following is an example of a fomite? * Housefly * Mosquito * Droplet spray * Coffee cup
Coffee Cup
278
Which of these is an enzyme that dissolves fibrin? * Hemolysin * Leucocidin * Coagulase * Fibrinolysin
Fibrinolysin
279
Which of the following enzymes is often referred to as "the spreading factor"? * Hemolysin * Hyaluronidase * Ptyalin * Coagulase
Hyaluronidase
280
Which of these enzymes destroys red blood cells? * Leucocidin * Fibrinolysin * Coagulase * Hemolysin
Hemolysin
281
Which of the following enzymes causes blood plasma to clot? * Fibrinolysin * Coagulase * Leucocidin * Hemolysin
Coagulase
282
An organism upon which a pathogen lives. * Vector * Fomite * Host * Parasite
Host
283
Which of these is a characteristic of rickettsial organisms? * They are spiral-shaped * They are non-pathogenic * They are arthropod-borne * They are smaller than viruses
They are Arthropod Borne
284
Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of viruses? * They are non-pathogenic * They are visible under a light microscope * They reproduce by binary fission * They are intracellular parasites
They are Intracellular Parasites
285
What disease is also known as epidemic parotitis? * Measles * Hepatitis * Cold sore * Mumps
Mumps
286
Which of the following diseases is caused by contact with contaminated blood serum? * Hepatitis type A * Hepatitis type B * Mumps * Smallpox
Hepatitis Type B
287
Which of these describes the virulence of a pathogen? * The degree of pathogenicity * The toxigenicity of a pathogen * The formation of antibodies against a pathogen * The ability of a microbe to cause disease
The Degree of Pathogenicity
288
Dermatomycosis is caused by: * Rickettsia * Entameoba histolytica * Epidermophyton * Chlamydia psittaci
Epidermophyton
289
Which of these is a causative agent of dysentery? * Rickettsia rickettsii * Chlamydia trachoma * Entamoeba histolytica * Bacillus anthracis
Entamoeba histolytica
290
What disease is caused by the Varicella virus? * Smallpox * Chickenpox * Measles * Herpes
Chickenpox
291
Which of the following is NOT applicable to viruses? * They are autotrophic organisms * They are sub-microscopic organisms * They are intracellular parasites * They contain either DNA or RNA but not both.
They are Autotrophic Organisms
292
Which of these describes the movement of bacteria through a medium? * Attenuation * Virulence * Pathogenicity * Motility
Motility
293
The relationship between two organisms in which neither can survive independent of the other. * Symbiotic * Antagonistic * Commensalistic * Ammensalistic
Symbiotic
294
A relationship between two organisms in which one is detrimental to the other. * Mutualistic * Commensalistic * Antagonistic * Synergistic
Antagonistic
295
Which of these microbes is known to produce an endotoxin? * Salmonella typhi * Mycobacterium tuberculosis * Streptococcus pneumoniae * Neisseria meningitidis
Salmonella typhi
296
The study of all microscopic life forms. * Botany * Anatomy * Microbiology * Cytology
Microbiology
297
Which of these microbes is described as being "comma" shaped? * Vibrio cholera * Bacillus anthracis * Treponema pallidum * Neisseria meningitidis
Vibrio Cholera
298
Which of these is a disease caused by a protozoan parasite? * Typhus fever * Typhoid fever * Ameobic dysentery * Syphilis
Ameobic Dysentery
299
Those organisms that reproduce by budding. * Bacteria * Viruses * Fungi * Protozoa
Fungi
300
Molds are: * Acellular * Unicellular * Multicellular * Motile
Multicellular
301
Rod-shaped bacteria that form chain-like arrangements. * Streptobacilli * Staphylococci * Staphlyobacilli * tetrads
Streptobacilli
302
Which of the following substances is most specific to antimicrobial action? * Antibiotics * Antigens * Antibodies * Antiseptics
Antibodies
303
A mutually advantageous symbiotic relationship between two organisms. * Commensalism * Antagonism * Mutualism * Parasitism
Mutualism
304
What type of condition is produced by the application of an antiseptic? * Aseptic * Bacteriostatic * Bacteriocidal * Sterile
Bacteriostatic
305
Which of these terms is synonymous with bacteriostatic? * Germicidial * Disinfected * Antiseptic * Bactericidal
Antiseptic
306
Ultraviolet rays of sunlight * Are bactericidal * Are bacteriostatic * Are essential for bacterial reproduction * Are essential for bacterial metabolism
Bactericidal
307
Congenital disease transmission occurs through: * The placenta * Broken skin * The conjunctiva * The respiratory tract
The Placenta
308
Why are ultraviolet light rays lethal to bacteria? * They cause the ionization of the hydroxyl agents * They damage the DNA and RNA of the microbe * They cause the deamination of the protein * They cause the decarboxylation of the amino acids.
They Damage the DNA and RNA of the Microbe
309
Another name for the disease "lockjaw" is: * Tularemia * Syphilis * Psittacosis * Tetanus
Tetanus
310
Acne, boils, and pus formation on the skin is most commonly caused by: * Streptococcus pyogenes * Streptococcus pneumoniae * Staphylococcus aureus * Treponema pallidum
Staphylococcus aureus
311
What is the implication of sterilization? * The render an object free of all living organisms * The render an object free of all living pathogens * To prevent the reproduction of all living organisms on an object * To render an object free of all vegetative forms of living organisms
To Render an Object Free of All Living Organisms
312
An inflammation of the middle ear caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. * Otitis media * Ophthalmia neonatorum * Conjunctivitis * Meningococcemia
Otitis Media
313
The entrance into a host by means of a deep puncture wound may cause: * Pneumonia * Tetanus * Gonorrhea * Septic sore throat
Tetanus
314
A synonymous term for rabbit fever is: * Tularemia * Rheumatic fever * Tetanus * Lockjaw
Tularemia
315
Which of the following is caused by a spirochete? * Tetanus * Syphilis * Gas gangrene * Tissue gas
Syphilis
316
What organism causes the condition of lobar penumonia? * Neisseria gonorrheae * Treponema pallidum * Streptococcus aureus * Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae