MKSAP: ID Flashcards

(46 cards)

0
Q

A

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
0
Q

5 Ssx of bacterial vaginosis?

A
  1. Homogenous white discharge
  2. Absence of vaginal erythema
  3. Presence of clue cells
  4. Vaginal pH > 4.5
  5. Vaginal discharge with malodorous “fishy” odor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Pt with recurrent GI and resp infections, what disease should you think about? Dx?

A
  • think: common variable immunodeficiency (AKA acquired hypogammaglobulinemia)
  • dx: measure serum IgG levels
  • *recurrent GI infections especially with giardiasis!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Three most common causes of vaginal discharge?

A
  1. Candidal infection
  2. Trichomonias
  3. Bacterial vaginosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

2 Tx options for candida vaginitis?

A
  1. Intravaginal clotrimazole cream

2. Single oral dose of fluconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which two common infections cause cervicitis rather than vaginitis?

A
  1. Chlaymidia

2. Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is drug fever and which commonly cause it?

A
  • a prolonged fever caused by a medication, with no other obvious signs of inflammation
  • antibiotics can cause this, esp beta-lactams
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Definition of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)?

A
  • presence of 2 or more of (in absence of a known cause):
    a) temp > 100F or < 96.8F
    b) heart rate > 90/min
    c) resp rate > 20/min, or PCO2 < 32
    d) leukocyte count > 12,000 or < 4,000 or > 10% bands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Definition of sepsis?

A

-SIRS in response to confirmed infectious process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Definition of severe sepsis?

A

-sepsis with organ dysfunction, hypoperfusion, or hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Septic shock definition?

A
  • sepsis-induced hypotension or hypoperfusion abnormalities despite adequate fluid resuscitation
  • this dx cannot be made until fluid resuscitation has been administered and the response has been evaluated!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What tx has shown to have the most impact on survival in a pt with severe sepsis?

A

-aggressive fluid resuscitation within 6 hrs!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prophylaxtic tx for an immunocomp, nonvaccinated pt exposed to the flu?

A
  1. Zanamivir or oseltamivir

2. Inactivated flu vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What kind of drugs are oseltamivir and zanamivir? What are they used for?

A
  • neuraminidase inhibitors
  • both active against influenza A and B
  • zanamivir can cause bronchospasm –> CONTRAINDICATED IN ASTHMA!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What influenza medication is contraindicated in asthmatic pts? Why?

A
  • zanamivir

- may induce bronchospasm!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name 2 neuraminidase inhibitors that can be used for influenza?

A
  1. Oseltamivir

2. Zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rhinitis medicamentosa? Tx?

A
  • persistent rhinitis sx in a pt with chronic nasal decongestant spray use
  • due to the rebound phenomenon
  • tx: withdraw the decongestant and give nasal corticosteroid spray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

4 Ssx of bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A
  1. Duration of the sx –> greater than 1 week + worsening sx after an initial improvement
  2. Maxillary tenderness
  3. Purulent drainage
  4. Poor response to decongestants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tx for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis?

A
  • 3 - 10 day course of narrow-spectrum antibiotics, such as:
    1) amoxicillin
    2) TMP-SMZ
    3) doxycycline
18
Q

Tx of acute pyelonephritis in a pt who is: compliant, can eat and drink, and not pregnant?

A

-oral levofloxacin

19
Q

What is the Tx for an uncomplicated UTI in a compliant, young, healthy, nonpregnant female?

21
Q

Oral antiviral agent used to tx uncomplicated genital herpes simplex virus?

A

-oral valacyclovir

22
Q

What is the most sensitive test to do in an HIV infection during the acute (early) stage?

A

-HIV viral load

23
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy: what is it? What is it caused by? What dies it lead to? Tx?

A
  • opportunistic infection
  • caused by polyomavirus JC
  • leads to demyelination of the CNS –> causes progressive neurologic deficits
  • tx: HAART tx
24
What is the best solution to use to clean a catheter insertion site?
-chlorhexidine
25
What IV catheter site is associated with a lower risk of infection?
-subclavian
26
Best way to stop the spread of c. Diff from an infected pt?
- put the pt in contact isolation | - ALCOHOL RUBS are NOT effective for killing c. Diff!
27
What contact precautions should a suspected or confirmed TB patient be tx with?
-airborne isolation + personal respirators for the hospital staff
28
What is the best way to decrease the risk of UTIs from catheters?
- remove the catheter | - no other method (prophylactic antibiotics, disinfecting wash, etc) has been useful
29
What helps prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia?
-keeping mechanically ventilated pts at 45* angle
30
3 Cut-offs for induration from TB test? Who is in each group?
1. >5 mm --> highest risk, immunosuppresed, TB contacts, chest xray shows TB 2. >10 mm --> mid risk, immigrants, IV drug users, prisoners, health care workers, pts with chronic disease/malignancy 3. > 15 mm --> lowest risk, "normal" people
31
What PPD cutt-off range are adolescents who are exposed to adults in high-risk category in?
-> 10
32
What is the initial antiTB tx regime?
- 4 antiTB drugs (Rifampin, Isoniazide, Pyraznamide, Ethambutol) - the fourth drug may be stopped when the sensitivity results are back
33
Latent TB tx?
-isoniazid for 9 mnths
34
How does a prior vaccination with bCG affect the interpretation of a PPD?
- it does NOT change it! | - test is read as if the person does not have the vaccine!
35
How does prednisone effect a PPD test?
- can cause a false-negative result! | - so test pt with PPD BEFORE starting prednisone!
36
What is the best antibiotic tx for aspirate pneumonia? What are the common bugs involved?
- use: clindamycin | - bugs: anaerobes
37
Reccomended tx for a pt with CAP who is being hospitalized?
Either: 1) IV beta-lactam plus IV or oral macrolide or doxy 2) IV fluoroquinolones
38
What bug is likely to be the cause if there are extrapulmonary manifestations too?
-legionella
39
What extrapulmonary manifestations are common with legionella pneumonia?
1. Hyponatremia 2. Azotemia 3. Elevated live enzymes 4. Elevated creatine kinase
40
Which heart valve is the most susceptible to an abscess formation?
-the aortic valve and its adjacent ring
41
What should be done first in a pt with a contiguous foot ulcer and possible bone involvement?
-bone bx with cultures before starting antibiotics!
42
What imaging is preferred for the dx of osteomyelitis?
-MRI (best) or CT
43
Tx for orthopedic implant-associated osteomyelitis?
- surgical debridement and removal of infected implant | - plus IV antibiotic
44
What post surgery sx means the pt is more likely to have a periprosthetic infection?
- periosthetic pain | - those who are pain-free aftery surgery are less likely to become infected
45
What could happen if an infected orthopedic implant is not removed?
-a biofilm can form & the bug will escape the hosts defenses!