Module 12: Respiratory System Flashcards
(284 cards)
1
Q
What is respiration?
A
the mechanical process of breathing, the exchange of air between the lungs and the external environment
2
Q
external respiration
A
the exchange of air at the lungs, oxygen is inhaled into the air spaces of the lungs and immediately passes into capillaries surrounding the air spaces, simultaneously, CO2 is exhaled
3
Q
internal (cellular) respiration
A
involves an exchange of gases at the level of the cells within all organs of the body
4
Q
nose
A
air enters through two openings called nostrils or nares
5
Q
nasal cavity
A
lined with a mucous membrane and fine hairs (cilia) to help filter out foreign bodies, as well as to warm and moisten the air
6
Q
paranasal sinuses
A
hollow, air-conditioning spaces within the skull that communicate with the nasal cavity
7
Q
pharynx (throat)
A
air reaches this part of the body after the nasal cavity and has 3 divisions
8
Q
What are the 3 divisions of the nasal cavity?
A
- nasopharynx, 2. oropharynx, and 3. laryngopharynx
9
Q
nasopharynx
A
contains the pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) which are collections of lymphatic tissue. More common in children and if enlarged can block air passageways
10
Q
oropharynx
A
close to the mouth with palatine tonsils
11
Q
palatine tonsils
A
two rounded masses of lymphatic tissue
12
Q
larayngopharynx
A
serves as a common passageway for food from the mouth and air from the nose. It divides into the larynx (voice box) and the esophagus
13
Q
esophagus
A
leads into the stomach and carries food to be digested
14
Q
larynx
A
contains the vocal cords and is surrounded by pieces of cartilage for support
15
Q
thyroid cartilage
A
the largest and in men is commonly referred to as the Adam’s apple
16
Q
epiglottis
A
a flap of cartilage attached to the root of the tongue prevents choking or aspiration of food (it acts as a lid over the opening of the larynx)
17
Q
trachea (windpipe)
A
a vertical tube about 4.5 inches long and 1 inch in diameter and kept open by about 16-20 C-shaped rings of cartilage separated by fibrous connective tissue
18
Q
bronchial tubes or bronchi (singular: bronchus)
A
branches into right and left and composed of delicate epithelium surrounded by cartilage rings and a muscular wall each side leads to a lung
19
Q
bronchiols
A
small bronchial branches
20
Q
terminal bronchiole
A
narrows into alveolar ducts, which end in collections of air sacs called alveoli (singular: aveolus)
21
Q
alveoli (singular: aveolus)
A
There are about 300 million present in both lungs, each one is lined with a one-cell-thick layer of epithelium and allows the exchange of gases
22
Q
What type of artery surrounds alveoli?
A
capillaries
23
Q
erythrocytes
A
exist in the blood and carry oxygen away from the lungs to all parts of the body and carbon dioxide back to the lungs for exhalation
24
Q
pleura
A
a double-layered membrane that covers each lung
25
parietal pleura
the outer layer of the pleura that is nearer to the ribs
26
visceral pleura
the inner layer of the pleura that is closer to the lung
27
serous
thing, watery fluid
28
What does serous do in the respiratory system?
the secretion moistens the pleura and facilitates movements of the lungs within the chest (thorax)
29
Are both lungs the same size?
No, the right lung is slightly larger
30
How many lobes is the right and left lung divided into?
the right has 3 lobes and the left has 2 lobes
31
apex of the lung
the uppermost part of the lung
32
base of the lung
the lower area of the lung
33
hilum
is the midline region in which blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic tissue, and bronchial tubes enter and exit
34
Where are the lungs located?
They extend from the collarbone to the diaphragm
35
diaphragm
located in the thoracic cavity, is a muscular partition separating the thoracic from the abdominal cavity and aiding in the process of breathing
36
during inhalation (inspiration)
the diaphragm contracts and descends
37
during exhalation (expiration)
the diaphragm relaxes and ascends
38
List the flow of air from start to finish
1. nose (nares)
2. nasal cavities and paranasal sinuses
3. pharynx (adenoids and tonsils)
4. larynx (epiglottis)
5. trachea
6. bronchi
7. bronchioles
8. alveoli
9. lung capillaries (bloodstream)
39
cilia
thin hairs attached to the mucous membrane epithelium lining the respiratory tract. They clear bacteria and foreign substances from the lung
40
glottis
slit-like opening to the larynx (epi = above)
41
hilar
pertaining to the hilum
42
lobe
division of a lung
43
mediastinum
region between the lungs in the chest cavity. It contains the trachea, heart, lymph nodes, aorta, esophagus, and bronchial tubes
44
pulmonary parenchyma
essential parts of the lung, responsible for respiration; bronchioles and alveoli
45
adenoid/o
adenoids
46
alveol/o
alveolus, air sac
47
bronch/o, bronchi/o
bronchial tube, bronchus
48
bronchiol/o
bronchiole, small bronchus
49
capn/o
carbon dioxide
50
coni/o
dust
51
cyan/o
blue
52
epiglott/o
epiglottis
53
laryng/o
larynx, voice box
54
lob/o
lobe of the lung
55
List the different types of pulmonary resections
A. wedge resection
B. segmental resection
C. lobectomy
D. Pneumonectomy
56
mediatin/o
mediastinum
57
nas/o
nose
58
orth/o
straight, upright
59
ox/o
oxygen
60
pectr/o
chest
61
pharyng/o
pharynx, throat
62
phon/o
voice
63
phren/o
diaphragm
64
pleur/o
pleura
65
pleural effusion
is the escape of fluid from blood vessels or lymphatics into a cavity or into tissue spaces
66
pleurodynia
pleura pain
67
phrenic nerve
the motor nerve to the diaphragm
68
dysphonia
condition of abnormal voice sounds
69
pharyngeal
pertaining to the pharynx, throat
70
expectoration
clearing of secretions from the airway by coughing or spitting. This sputum can contain mucus, blood, cellular debris, pus, and microorganisms
71
hypoxia
tissues have decreased amount of oxygen, and cyanosis can result
72
orthopnea
abnormal condition breathing is more comfortable in an upright position
73
nasogastric intubation
placement of a tube through the nose into the stomach
74
paranasal sinuses
sinuses near the nose
75
mediastinoscopy
visual examination of the mediastinum
76
lobectomy
removal of excision of a lobe of the lung
77
laryngitis
inflammation of the larynx
78
laryngospasm
spasm of laryngeal muscles that closes the larynx
79
epiglottitis
inflammation of the epiglottis
80
cyanosis
abnormal condition of bluish coloration of the skin
81
adenoidectomy
removal of the adenoids
82
adenoid hypertrophy
increased development of the adenoids
83
alveolar
pertaining to an aveolus
84
bronchospasm
involuntary muscular contraction in bronchial tubes
85
bronchiectasis
abnormal widening of bronchial tubes
86
bronchodilator
agent that dilates blood vessels and relieves bronchospasm
87
bronchopleural
pertaining to the bronchial tube and pleura
88
bronchiolitis
inflammation of the bronchiole
89
hypercapnia
increased levels of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream
90
pneumoconiosis
abnormal condition of dust in the lungs
91
pneum/o, pneumon/o
air, lung
92
pneumothorax
because of a hole in the lung, air accumulates in the pleural cavity, between the layers of the pleura
93
pneumonectomy
removal of the lung
94
pulmon/o
lung
95
pulmonary
pertaining to the lung
96
rhin/o
nose
97
rhinoplasty
surgical repair of the nose
98
rhinorrhea
discharge from the nose (aka a runny nose)
99
sinus/o
sinus, cavity
100
sinusitis
inflammation of the sinuses
101
spir/o
breathing
102
spirometer
an instrument to measure breathing
103
expiration
breathing out
104
respiration
internal and external respiration
105
What are the two forms of atelectasis?
A. an obstruction prevents air from reaching distal airways and alveoli collapse
B. accumulation of fluid, blood, or air within the pleural cavity collapse the lung
106
tel/o
complete
107
atelectasis
incomplete expansion of a lung
108
thorac/o
chest
109
thoracotomy
incision of the chest
110
thoracic
pertaining to the chest
111
tonsill/o
tonsils
112
tonsillectomy
removal of the tonsils
113
trache/o
trachea, windpipe
114
tracheotomy
incision to the trachea
115
tracheal stenosis
narrowing of the trachea
116
-ema
condition
117
empyema
collection of pus in the pleural cavity
118
-osmia
smell
119
anosmia
loss of sense of smell
120
-pnea
breathing
121
apnea
lack of breathing
122
What does OSA stand for?
Obstructive Sleep Apnea
123
What does CPAP stand for?
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure
124
sleep apnea
the sudden cessation of breathing during sleep as a result of hypoxia
125
-ptysis
spitting
126
hemoptysis
spitting blood
127
-sphyxia
pulse
128
asphyxia
lack of pulse
129
-thorax
pleural cavity, chest
130
hemothorax
blood in the pleural cavity, chest
131
pyothroax
pus in the chest cavity
132
auscultation
listing to sounds within the body
133
percussion
tapping on a surface to determine the difference in the density of the underlying structure
134
pleural rub (aka friction rub)
scratchy sound produced by pleural surfaces rubbing against each other
135
rales (crackles)
fine crackling sounds heard on auscultation (during inhalation) when there is fluid in the alveoli
136
rhonchi (singular: rhonchus)
loud rumbling sounds heard on auscultation of bronchi obstructed by sputum
137
sputum
material expelled from the bronchi, lungs, or upper respiratory tract by spitting
138
purulent
containing pus
139
what is blood-tinged sputum suggestive of?
tuberculosis or malignancy
140
sputum culture
the specimen is maintained in a nutrient medium to promote growth of a pathogen
141
culture and sensitivity (C&S)
studies identify the sputum pathogen an determine which antibiotic will be effective in destroying or reducing its growth
142
stridor
strained, high-pitched sound heard on inspiration caused by obstruction in the pharynx or larynx
143
wheezes
continuous high-pitched whistling sounds produced during breathing
144
croup
acute viral infection of infants and children with obstruction of the larynx, accompanied by barking cough and stridor
145
what does RSV stand for?
Respiratory Syncytial Virus
146
diphtheria
acute infection of the throat and upper respiratory tract caused by the diphtheria bacterium (corynebacterium)
147
epistaxis
nosebleed
148
pertussis
whooping cough; highly contagious bacterial infection of the pharynx, larynx, and trachea caused by Bordetella pertussis
149
paroxysmal
violent, sudden
150
asthma
chronic bronchial inflammatory disorder with airway obstruction due to bronchial edema and constriction and increased mucus production
151
bronchodilator
asthma inhaler device
152
bronchiectasis
chronic dilation of a bronchus secondary to infection
153
palliative
noncurative
154
chronic bronchitis
inflammation of bronchi persisting over a long time; type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
155
What does COPD stand for?
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
156
cystic fibrosis
inherited disorder of exocrine glands resulting in thick mucinous secretions in the respiratory tract that do not drain normally
157
atelectasis
collapsed lung; incomplete expansion of alveoli
158
emphysema
hyperinflation of air sacs with destruction of alveolar walls
159
cor pulmonale
failure of the right side of the heart to pump a sufficient amount of blood to the lungs because of underlying lung disease
160
lung cancer
malignant tumor arising from the lungs and bronchi
161
What does NSCLC stand for?
Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer
162
What does SCLC stand for?
Small Cell Lung Cancer
163
pneumoconiosis
abnormal condition caused by dust in the lungs, with chronic inflammation, infection, and bronchitis
164
anthracosis (aka black lung disease)
inhaling coal dust
165
anthrac/o
coal
166
asbestosis
inhaling asbestos particles, typical in shipbuilding and construction trades
167
asbest/o
asbestos
168
silicosis
inhaling silica or glass particles
169
silic/o
rocks
170
pneumonia
acute inflammation and infection of alveoli, which fill with pus or products of the inflammatory reaction
171
lobar pneumonia
involves the entire lobe of a lung
172
bronchopneumonia
a limited form of infection that produces patchy consolidation (abscesses) in the lung parenchyma
173
community-acquired pneumonia
results from a contagious respiratory infection caused by a variety of viruses and bacteria
174
hospital-acquired pneumonia or nosocomial pneumonia
acquired during hospitalization via mechanical ventilation or as a hospital-acquired infection
175
aspiration pneumonia
caused by material, such as food or vomitus, lodging in bronchi or lungs
176
pulmonary abscess
large collection of pus (bacterial infection) in the lungs
177
pulmonary edema
fluid in the air sacs and bronchioles
178
pulmonary embolism (PE)
clot or other material lodges in vessels of the lung
179
pulmonary infarction
occlusion can produce an area of dead (necrotic) tissue
180
pulmonary fibrosis
formation of scar tissue in the connective tissue of the lungs
181
sarcoidosis
chronic inflammatory disease in which small nodules (granulomas) develop in lungs, lymph nodes, and other organs
182
tuberculosis (TB)
infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis; lungs usually are involved, but any organ in the body may be affected
183
bacilli (singular: bacillus)
rod-shaped bacteria invade the lungs producing small tubercles of infection in TB
184
mesothelioma
rare malignant tumor arising in the pleura
185
pleural effusion
abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space (cavity)
186
exudates
fluid from tumors and infections
187
transudates
fluid from congestive heart failure, pulmonary embolism, or cirrhosis)
188
Whare are the two types of pleural effusions?
1. exudates
2. transudates
189
pneumothorax
collection of air in the pleural space
190
pleurodesis
the artificial production of adhesions between the parietal and visceral pleura for treatment of persistent pneumothorax and severe pleural effusion
191
-desis
to bind
192
hydrothorax
collection of fluid in the pleural cavity
193
palliative
relieving symptoms but not curing the disease
194
chest x-ray (CXR)
radiographic image of the thoracic cavity (chest film)
195
computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest
computer-generated series of x-ray images show thoracic structures in cross section and other planes
196
What does CTPA stand for?
CT Pulmonary Angiography
197
CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
is the combination of CT scanning and angiography. It is useful to examine the pulmonary circulation in the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism
198
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the chest
magnetic waves create detailed images of the chest in frontal, lateral (sagittal), and cross-sectional (axial) planes
199
positron emission tomography (PET) scan of the lung
Radioactive glucose is injected and images reveal metabolic activity in the lungs
200
ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan
detection device records radioactivity in the lung after injection of a radioisotope or inhalation of small amount of radioactive gas (xenon)
201
bronchoscopy
fiberoptic endoscope examination of the bronchial tubes
202
bronchoalveolar lavage (bronchial washing)
fluid is injected and withdrawn
203
bronchial brushing
a brush is inserted through the bronchoscope and is used to scrape off tissue
204
endobronchial ultrasound (EBUS)
is performed during bronchoscopy to diagnose and stage lung cancer. An EBUS-guided forceps biospy allows for sampling of small peripheral lesions endoscopically
205
endotracheal intubation
placement of a tube through the mouth into the pharynx, larynx, and trachea to establish an airway
206
ventilator
an apparatus that moves air into and out of the lungs
207
laryngoscopy
visual examination of the voice box
208
lung bopsy
removal of lung tissue followed by microscopic examination
209
mediastinoscopy
endoscopic visual examination of the mediastinum
210
pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
tests that measure the ventilation mechanics of the lungs: airway function, lung volume, and the capacity of the lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide efficiently
211
spirometer
measures the volume and rate of air passing into and out of the lung
212
What are 4 reasons why PFTs are used?
1. to evaluate patients with shortness of breath (SOB)
2. to monitor lung function in patients with known respiratory disease
3. to evaluate disability
4. to assess lung function before surgery
213
What does SOB stand for?
Shortness Of Breath
214
obstructive lung disease
airways are narrowed which results in resistance to air flow during breathing. A hallmark of this disease is decreased expiratory flow rate or FEV
215
What does FEV stand for?
Forced Expiratory Volume
216
restrictive lung disease
expansion of the lung is limited by disease that affects the chest wall, pleura, or lung tissue itself. A hallmark of this lung disease is decreased total lung capacity (TLC)
217
What does TLC stand for?
Total Lung Capacity
218
thoracentesis
surgical puncture to remove fluid from the pleural space
219
thoracotomy
large surgical incision of the chest
220
thoracoscopy (thorascopy)
visual examination of the chest via small incisions and use of an endoscope
221
Video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS)
allows the surgeon to view the chest from a video monitor
222
What does VATS stand for?
Video-Assisted Thoracic Surgery
223
tracheostomy
surgical creation of an opening into the trachea through the neck
224
trachotomy
is the incision necessary to create a tracheostomy
225
tuberculin test
determines past or present tuberculous infection based on a positive skin reaction
226
Heaf test and tine test
using purified protein derivative (PPD) applied with multiple punctures of the skin
227
What does PPD stand for?
Purified Protein Derivative
228
mantoux test
using PPD given by intradermal injection
229
tube thoracostomy
a flexible, plastic chest tube is passed into the pleural space through an opening in the chest
230
What does ABGs stand for?
Arterial Blood Gases
231
What does AFB stand for?
Acid-Fast Bacillus (the type of organism that causes tuberculosis)
232
What does ARDS stand for?
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (severe, sudden lung injury caused by acute illness)
233
What does BAL stand for?
Bronchoalveolar Lavage
234
What does Bronch stand for?
Bronchoscopy
235
What does CF stand for?
Cystic Fibrosis
236
What does CPAP stand for?
Continuous Positive Airway Pressure
237
What does CPR stand for?
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
238
What are the 3 basic steps of CPR?
CAB =
Circulation restored by external cardiac compression
Airway opened by tilting the head
Breathing restored by mouth-to-mouth breathing
239
What does C&S stand for?
Culture and Sensitivity testing (of sputum)
240
What does DLco stand for?
Diffusion Capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide
241
What does DOE stand for?
Dyspnea on Exertion
242
What does DPT stand for?
Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus (toxoids for vaccination of infants, to provide immunity to these diseases)
243
What does FVC stand for?
Forced Vital Capacity (amount of gas that can be forcibly and rapidly exhaled after a full inspiration)
244
What does ICU stand for?
Intensive Care Unit
245
What does LLL stand for?
Left Lower Lobe (of the lung)
246
What does LUL stand for?
Left Upper Lobe (of the lung)
247
What does MDI stand for?
Metered-Dose Inhaler (used to deliver aerosolized medications to patients)
248
What does OSA stand for?
Obstructive Sleep Apnea
249
What does PaCO2 stand for?
Carbon Dioxide Partial Pressure (measure of the amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood)
250
What does PaO2 stand for?
Oxygen Partial Pressure (a measure of the amount of oxygen in arterial blood)
251
What does PCP stand for?
Pneumocystis Pneumonia (a type of pneumonia seen in patients with AIDS or other immunosuppresion)
252
What does PE stand for?
Pulmonary Embolism
253
What does PEP stand for?
Positive Expiratory Pressure (mechanical ventilator strategy in which the patient takes a deep breath and then exhales through a device that resists air flow - helps refill underventilated areas of the lung)
254
What does PEEP stand for?
Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (common mechanical ventilator setting in which airway pressure is maintained above atmospheric pressure)
255
What does PFTs stand for?
Pulmonary Function Tests
256
What does PND stand for?
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea
257
What does PPD stand for?
Purified Protein Derivative (substance used in a tuberculosis test)
258
What does RDS stand for?
Respiratory Distress Syndrome (in the newborn infant, a condition marked by dyspnea and cyanosis and related to the absence of surfactant, a substance that permits normal expansion of lungs; also called hyaline membrane disease)
259
What does RLL stand for?
Right Lower Lobe (of the lung)
260
What does RSV stand for?
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (a common cause of bronchiolitis, bronchopneumonia, and the common cold, especially in children)
261
What does RUL stand for?
Right Upper Lobe (of the lung)
262
What does RV stand for?
Residual Volume (amount of air remaining in lungs at the end of maximal expiration)
263
What does SABA stand for?
Short-Acting Beta Agonist (for relief of asthma symptoms)
264
What does SCLC stand for?
Small Cell Lung Cancer
265
What does TB stand for?
Tuberculosis
266
What does TLC stand for?
Total Lung Capacity (amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal ventilation)
267
What does VC stand for?
Vital Capacity (equals inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume)
268
What does V/Q scan stand for?
Ventilation-Perfusion scan (radioactive test of lung ventilation and blood perfusion throughout the lung capillaries - lung scan)
269
V/Q scan
a radioactive test of lung ventilation and blood perfusion throughout the lung capillaries (lung scan)
270
What test measures the ability of gases to cross the alveolar-capillary membrane?
DLco - Diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide
271
What is a type of organism that causes tuberculosis?
AFB - Acid-fast bacillus
272
Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
the amount of gas that can be forcibly and rapidly exhaled after a full inspiration
273
What is an MDI used for?
A metered-dose inhaler is used to deliver aerosolized medications to patients for asthma disease
274
What does PaCO2 measure?
Carbon dioxide partial pressure measures the amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood
275
What does PaO2 measure?
Oxygen partial pressure measures the amount of oxygen in arterial blood
276
What is a type of pneumonia seen in patients with AIDS or other immunosuppression?
PCP - Pneumocystis pneumonia
277
What is a common mechanical ventilator setting in which airway pressure is maintained above atmospheric pressure?
PEEP - Positive end-expiratory pressure
278
What is a purified protein derivative?
a substance used in a tuberculosis test
279
What is residual volume?
the amount of air remaining in lungs at the end of maximal expiration
280
What is short-acting beta agonist?
used for relief of asthma symptoms
281
What is total lung capacity?
the volume of gas in the lungs at the end of maximal inspiration; equals VC plus RV (vital capacity + residual volume = TLC)
282
What is Vt?
Tidal volume is the amount of air inhaled and exhaled during a normal ventilation
283
vital capacity
equals inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
284
