Module 13: Blood System Flashcards

(238 cards)

1
Q

What is the primary function of blood?

A

to maintain a constant environment for the other living tissues of the body

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2
Q

What is blood composed of?

A

cells or formed elements suspended in a clear, straw-coloured liquid

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3
Q

plasma

A

a clear straw-coloured liquid solution of water, proteins, sugar, salts, hormones, lipids, and vitamins

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4
Q

What makes up blood volume?

A

45% erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets or thrombocytes. The other 55% is plasma

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5
Q

Where do all blood cells originate from?

A

in the marrow cavity of bones

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6
Q

hematopoietic stem cells

A

cell in the bone marrow that gives rise to all types of blood cells

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7
Q

differentiated

A

a process where the cells change in size and shape to become specialized

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8
Q

large cells are considered what?

A

immature cells

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9
Q

small cells are considered what?

A

mature cells

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10
Q

What does a red blood cell mature from?

A

an erythroblast to an erythrocyte

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11
Q

What does a mature red blood cell look like?

A

it loses its nuclease and assumes the shape of a biconcave disk - a depressed or hollow surface on each side of the cell resembling a cough drop with a thing central portion

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12
Q

what unique protein do red blood cells contain?

A

hemoglobin

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13
Q

What is hemoglobin composed of?

A

hemo (iron-containing pigment) and globin (protein) and this protein allows RBCs to carry oxygen

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14
Q

What is the combination of oxygen and hemoglobin?

A

oxyhemoglobin, which produces the bright red colour of blood

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15
Q

hematopoiesis

A

blood cell development

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16
Q

where are progenitor cells from?

A

derived from hematopoietic stem cells

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17
Q

what do myeloid progenitor cells turn into?

A

give rise to erythrocytes, megakaryoblasts, and myeloblasts

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18
Q

what do lymphoid progenitor cells turn into?

A

give rise to monoblasts and lymphoblasts

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19
Q

-blast

A

immature form of a cell

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20
Q

what are band cells?

A

identical to segmented granulocytes except that the nucleus is U-shaped and its lobes are connected by a band rather than by a thin thread as in segmented forms

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21
Q

which organ secretes erythropoietin?

A

a hormone secreted by the kidneys

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22
Q

-poiesis

A

formation

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23
Q

How long do erythrocytes live in the bloodstream?

A

120 days transporting gases in the bloodstream

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24
Q

What happens to erythrocytes once their lifespan ends?

A

macrophages destroy them in a process called hemolysis

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25
What is the process called that destroys worn-out red blood cells?
hemolysis
26
what is heme?
a protein that releases iron and decomposed into a yellow-orange pigment called bilirubin
27
bilirubin
a yellow-orange pigment excreted into bile by the liver then enters the small intestine via the common bile duct. Finally excreted in the stool where its colour changes to brown
28
How many different types of mature leukocytes are there?
5
29
list the 5 different types of mature leukocytes
1. neutrophil 2. eosinophil 3. basophil 4. lymphocyte 5. monocyte
30
granulocytes or polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
the most numerous (about 60%) type of leukocyte
31
basophils
contain granules that stain dark blue with a basic (alkaline) dye
32
heparin
an anticlotting substance
33
histamine
a chemical released in allergic responses
34
eosinophils
contain granules that stain with eosin, a red acidic dye
35
when do eosinophils increase in the bloodstream?
when there is an allergic response to engulf the substances that triggered the allergies
36
neutrophils
contain granules that are neutral - they do not stain intensely and show only a pale colour
37
what do neutrophils (aka phagocytes) do?
they accumulate at sites of infection where they ingest and destroy bacteria
38
phag/o
to eat or swallow
39
what does CSFs stand for?
Colony-Stimulating Factors
40
colony-stimulating factors
promote growth of granulocytes in bone marrow
41
what does G-CSF stand for?
Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factors
42
what does GM-CSF stand for?
Granulocyte-Macrophage Colony-Stimulating Factors
43
What are G-CSF and GM-CSF given?
to restore granulocyte production in cancer patients
44
erythropoietin
like CSFs, can be produced by recombinant DNA techniques and stimulates red blood cell production
45
polymorphonuclear
have multilobed nuclei and polymorphonuclear granulocytes often describe the neutrophil which is the most numerous of the granulocytes
46
mononuclear
containing one large nucleus, leukocytes do not have large numbers of granules in their cytoplasm but they may have a few granules
47
lymphocytes
play an important role in the immune response that protects the body against infection. They can directly attack foreign matter and make antibodies
48
antibodies
cells that neutralize and can lead to the destruction of foreign antigens
49
antigens
bacteria and viruses
50
monocytes
are phagocytic cells that also fight disease
51
macrophages
move from the bloodstream into tissues and dispose of dead and dying cells and other tissue debris by phagocytosis
52
where are platelets formed?
they are actually blood cell fragments and are formed in bone marrow from giant cells with multilobed nuclei called megakaryocytes
53
what is the main function of platelets?
to help blood to clot
54
what are the 4 major proteins of plasma?
1. albumin 2. globulins 3. fibrinogen 4. prothrombin
55
albumin
maintains the proper proportion (and concentration) of water in the blood
56
edema
swelling that results when too much fluid from blood leaks out into tissues
57
what is a mild and severe form of edema?
mild form is when a person ingests too much salt and water is retained in the blood vs. a severe form is when a person is burned in a fire
58
What are the 3 types of globulins?
1. alpha 2. beta 3. gamma
59
gamma globulins are immunoglobulins which are what?
which are antibodies that bind to and sometimes destroy antigens
60
What are examples of immunoglobulins?
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE
61
Where is IgG found?
found in high concentrations of plasma
62
where is IgA found?
found in breast milk, saliva, tears, and respiratory mucus
63
electrophoresis
method of seaparting serum proteins by electrical charge
64
plasmapheresis
the process of separating plasma from cells and then removing the plasma from the patient
65
-apheresis
to remove
66
What does a centrifuge do?
spins entire samples of blood and the plasma, being lighter in weight than the cells, moves to the top of the sample to be able to review the composition of the blood sample
67
What is a transfusion?
whole blood (cells and plasma) are used to replace blood lost after injury, during surgery, or in severe shock
68
what type of transfusion foes a patient who is severely anemic require?
they need only red blood cells and will receive a transfusion of packed red cells (whole blood with most of the plasma removed)
69
What are the 4 main blood types?
1. A 2. B 3. AB 4. O
70
Can you transfuse blood to people with different blood types?
NO, there are harmful effects that occur when two different blood types are transfused
71
What does DIC stand for?
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
72
What is disseminated intravascular coagulation?
a life-threatening condition that involves excessive clotting in blood vessels
73
Rh factor
named because it was first found in the blood of a rhesus monkey
74
What does Rh positive (Rh+) refer to?
a person who is born with the Rh antigen on his or her blood cells
75
What does Rh negative (Rh-) refer to?
a person who does not have the Rh antigen
76
What does it mean when a woman has an A+ (A positive) blood type?
it means that she was born with both A antigen and Eh antigen on her red blood cells
77
What does it mean when a man has B- (B negative) blood type?
this means he was born with the B antigen on his red blood cells but not Rh antigen
78
coagulation
blood clotting, is a complicated process involving many different substances and chemical reactions
79
fibrin clot
is the result of coagulation after about 15 minutes from the plasma protein fibrinogen
80
-gen
giving rise to
81
serum
a clear fluid that is left behind when the fibrin clot retracts into a tight ball
82
what do anticoagulant substances do?
in the blood they inhibit blood clotting, so clots do not form
83
heparin
is a substance produced by tissue cells (especially in the liver), is an example of an anticoagulant
84
What is Warfarin (Coumadin)?
a drug given to patients with thromboembolic diseases to prevent the formation of clots
85
fibrin
a protein that forms the basis of a blood clot
86
fibrinogen
a plasma protein that is converted to fibrin in the clotting process
87
reticulocyte
immature erythrocyte. A network of strands (reticulin) is seen after staining the cell with special dyes
88
stem cell
an unspecialized cell that gives rise to mature, specialized forms. A hematopoietic stem cell is the progenitor for all different types of blood cells
89
bas/o
base (alkaline, the opposite of acid)
90
chrom/o
colour
91
coagul/o
clotting
92
cyt/o
cell
93
eosin/o
red, dawn, rosy
94
erythr/o
red
95
granul/o
granules
96
hem/o
blood
97
hemat/o
blood
98
hemoglobin/o
hemoglobin
99
is/o
same, equal
100
kary/o
nucleus
101
leuk/o
white
102
mon/o
one, single
103
morph/o
shape, form
104
myel/o
bone marrow
105
neutr/o
neutral (neither base nor acid)
106
nucle/o
nucleus
107
phag/o
eat, or swallow
108
poikil/o
varied, irregular
109
sider/o
iron
110
spher/o
globe, round
111
thromb/o
clot
112
-apheresis
removal, a carrying away
113
-blast
immature cell, embryonic
114
-cytosis
abnormal condition of cells (increase in cells)
115
-emia
blood condition
116
-gen
giving rise to; producing
117
-globin
protein
118
-globulin
protein
119
-lytic
pertaining to destruction
120
-oid
derived or originating from
121
-osis
abnormal condition
122
-penia
deficiency
123
-phage
eat, swallow
124
-philia
attraction for (an increase in cell numbers)
125
-phoresis
carrying, transmission
126
-poiesis
formation
127
-stasis
stop, control
128
anisocytosis
cells are unequal in size
129
hypochromia
cells have reduced colour (less hemoglobin)
130
macrocytosis
cells are large
131
microcytosis
cells are small
132
poikilocytosis
cells are irregularly shaped
133
sphereocytosis
cells are rounded
134
dyscrasia
any abnormal or pathologic condition of the blood (disease)
135
anemia
deficiency in erythrocytes or hemoglobin
136
what is the most common type of anemia?
iron deficiency anemia
137
what are 5 types of anemia?
1. aplastic 2. hemolytic 3. pernicious 4. sickle cell 5. thalassemia
138
aplastic anemia
failure of blood cell production in the bone marrow
139
idiopathic
unknown cause of disease
140
pancytopenia
occurs when stem cells fail to produce leukocytes, platelets, and erythrocytes
141
hemolytic anemia
reduction in red cells due to excessive destruction
142
What is one example of hemolytic anemia?
congenital spherocytic anemia (hereditary spherocytosis)
143
pernicious anemia
lack of mature erythrocytes caused by inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the bloodstream
144
intrinsic factor
a special substance that aids blood absorption that can normally be found in gastric juices
145
sickle cell anemia
hereditary disorder of abnormal hemoglobin producing sickle-shaped erythrocytes and hemolysis
146
thalassemia
inherited defect in ability to produce hemoglobin, leading to hypochromia
147
hemochromatosis
excess iron deposits throughout the body
148
polycythemia vera
general increase in red blood cells (erythremia)
149
hemophilia
excessive bleeding caused by hereditary lack of blood clotting factors (factor VIII or IX) necessary of blood clotting
150
purpura
multiple pinpoint hemorrhages and accumulation of blood under the skin
151
petechiae
tiny purple or red spots appearing on the skin as a result of hemorrages
152
ecchymoses
larger blue or purplish patches on the skin (bruises)
153
What might cause pupura?
caused by having too few platelets (thrombocytopenia)
154
autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
a condition in which a patient makes an antibody that destroys platelets
155
leukemia
increase in cancerous white blood cells (leukocytes)
156
List the 4 different types of leukemia
1. acute myelogenous (myelocytic) leukemia (AML) 2. acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) 3. chronic myelogenous (myelocytic) leukemia (CML) 4. chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
157
acute myelogenous (myelocytic) leukemia (AML)
immature granulocytes (myeloblasts) predominate and platelets and erythrocytes are diminished because of infiltration and replacement of the bone marrow by large numbers of myeloblasts
158
acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)
immature lymphocytes (lymphoblasts) predominate, this form is seen most often in children and adolescents (onset is sudden)
159
chronic myelogenous (myelocytic) leukemia (CML)
both mature and immature granulocytes are present in large numbers in the marrow and blood
160
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
abnormal numbers of relatively mature lymphocytes predominate in the marrow, lymph nodes, and spleen
161
what is the most common form of leukemia that occurs in the elderly?
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
162
granulocytosis
abnormal increase in granulocytes in the blood
163
eosinophilia
an increase in eosinophilic granulocytes - seen in certain allergic conditions
164
basophilia
an increase in basophilic granulocytes seen in certain types of leukemia
165
mononculeosis
infectious disease marked by increased numbers of mononuclear leukocytes and enlarged cervical lymph nodes
166
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
a virus that is used to transmit the mononucleosis disease
167
multiple myeloma
malignant neoplasm of bone marrow
168
Bence Jones protein
an immunoglobulin fragment found in urine
169
palliative
relieving symptoms
170
example of palliative drugs
thalidomide and velcade
171
autologous bone marrow transplantation (ABMT)
in which the patient serves as their own donor for stem cells, may lead to prolonged remission
172
What is there an increase of in acute myeloid leukemia?
malignant immature leukocytes
173
antiglobulin test (Coombs test)
test for the presence of antibodies that coat and damage erythrocytes
174
bleeding time
time required for blood to stop flowing from a tiny puncture wound
175
What is the normal bleeding time for a tiny puncture wound?
8 minutes or less
176
coagulation time
time required for venous blood to clot in a test tube
177
What is the normal coagulation time?
less than 15 minutes
178
complete blood count (CBC)
determination of numbers of blood cells, hemoglobin concentration, hematocrit, and red cell values - MCH, MCV, MCHC
179
erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
speed at which erythrocytes settle out of plasma
180
hematocrit (Hct)
percentage of erythrocytes in a volume of blood
181
hemoglobin test (H, Hg, HGB)
total amount of hemoglobin in a sample of peripheral blood
182
platelet count
number of platelets per cubic millimeter (mm3) or microliter (μL) of blood
183
prothrombin time (PT)
test of the ability of blood to clot
184
what is the average platelet count?
150,000 and 350,000 per mm3
185
partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
a blood clotting test that measures other clotting factors which is often done at the same time of a PT test
186
red blood cell count (RBC)
number of erythrocytes per cubic millimeter (mm3) or microliter (μL) of blood
187
what is a normal number of a red blood count?
4-6 per mm3 (or μL)
188
red blood cell morphology
microscopic examination of a stained blood smear to determine the shape of individual red cells
189
white blood cell count (WBC)
number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter (mm3) or microliter (μL) of blood
190
what is a normal amount of leukocytes?
5000 - 10,000 per mm3 (or μL)whit
191
e blood cell differential [count]
percentages of different types of leukocytes in the blood
192
what does the term "shift to the left" mean?
it describes an increase in immature neutrophiles in the blood
193
apheresis
separation of blood into counterpart and removal of a select portion from the blood
194
plasma exchange
plasma is removed from the patient and fresh plasma is given
195
blood transfusion
whole blood or cells are taken from a donor and infused into a patient
196
autologous transfusion
the collection and later reinfusion of a patient's own blood or blood components
197
packed cells
a presentation of red blood cells separated from liquid plasma and administered in severe anemia to restore levels of hemoglobin and red blood cells without over diluting the blood with excess fluids
198
bone marrow biopsy
microscopic examination of a core of bone marrow removed with a needle
199
bone marrow aspiration
the procedure where bone marrow is removed by brief suction produced by a syringe
200
hematopoietic stem cells transplantation
peripheral stem cells from a compatible donor are administered to a recipient
201
autologous stem cell transplantation
the patient's own stem cells are collected, stored, and reinfused after potent chemotherapy
202
leukapheresis
separation of blood cells that removes large numbers of white blood cells and returns red cells. platelets, and plasma to the patient
203
bone marrow transplantation
bone marrow cells are used instead of peripheral stem cells in a similar procedure to autologous stem cell transplantation
204
graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)
the immunocompetent cells in the donor's tissue recognize the recipient's tissues as foreign and attack them
205
immunosuppressive drugs
preventative drugs standard for patient's undergoing allogenic transplants
206
examples of immunosuppressive drugs
cyclosporine and methotrexate
207
bands
immature white blood cells (granulocytes)
208
What does BMT stand for?
Bone Marrow Transplantation
209
What does CBC stand for?
Complete Blood Count
210
What does DIC stand for?
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
211
disseminated intravascular coagulation
a bleeding disorder marked by reduction in blood clotting factors due to their use and depletion for intravascular clotting
212
diff
differential count (white blood cells)
213
What does EBV stand for?
Epstein-Barr Virus
214
What does ESR stand for?
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
215
What does G-CSF stand for?
Granulocyte Colony-Stimulating Factor
216
What does GM-CSF stand for?
Granulocyte- Macrophage Colony
217
what is g/dL?
gram per deciliter (1 deciliter = one tenth of a liter; 1 liter = 1.057 quarts)
218
What does GVHD stand for?
Graft-Versus-Host Disease
219
What does HCL stand for?
Hairy Cell Leukemia
220
hairy cell leukemia
abnormal lymphocytes accumulate in bone marrow, leading to anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, and infection
221
What does Hct stand for?
Hematocrit
222
What does Hgb (or HGB) stand for?
Hemoglobin
223
What does H and H stand for?
Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
224
What does HLA stand for?
Human Leukocyte Antigen
225
What does IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM stand for?
Immunoglobulins
226
lymphs
lymphocytes
227
What does MCH stand for?
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
228
What does MCHC stand for?
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration
229
What does MCV stand for?
Mean Coruscular Volume
230
What does MDS stand for?
Myelodysplastic Syndrome
231
What does polys, PMNs, and PMNLs stand for?
Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes; neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
232
What does PT and pro time stand for?
Prothrombin Time
233
What does PTT stand for?
Partial Thromboplastin Time
234
What does sed rate stand for?
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
235
What does segs stand for?
Segmented, Mature White Blood Cells (neutrophils)
236
What does SMAC stand for?
Sequential Multiple Analyzer Computer
237
sequential multiple analyzer computer
an automated chemistry system that determines substances in serum
238
What does WNL stand for?
Within Normal Limits