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Flashcards in Neuroscience Exam 3 Deck (242):
1

____ are divided into lateral and anterior. It begins in the motor strip of the cortex and ends in the spinal cord.

corticospinal tract

2

___ % of the corticospinal tract is called the "Lateral" Corticospinal tract and cross over at the pyramidal decussation/ contralateral spinal cord.

90

3

____ % of the corticospinal tract is called the "Anterior" or "Ventral" corticospinal tract and remains ipsilateral down the spinal cord. They cross over prior to synapse.

10

4

In the lateral corticospinal tract are all the neurons that travel to ____.

muscles of upper and lower extremities

5

In the ventral/anterior corticospinal tract are all the neurons that travel to ____.

muscles of the trunk

6

The corticospinal tract begins in the ___.

precentral gyrus or primary motor strip

7

The axons of the lateral corticospinal tracts begin in the ____, travel through ___, ___, and ___. They travel and synapse in the __ onto ___.

pre-central gyrus; corona radiata; internal capsule and brain stem; ventral horn; LMN cell bodies

8

The axons of the anterior corticospinal tracts begin in the ____, travel through ___, ___, and ___. They travel and synapse in the __ onto ___.

pre-central gyrus; corona radiata; internal capsule, brain stem; ventral horn onto LMN cell bodies

9

The difference between the crossover in lateral and anterior/ventral corticospinal tract is ___.

lateral's cross is at the pyramidal decussation, anterior's cross is just before synapse.

10

The spinal cord is a ____ pathway for axons.It also houses reflex ___.

bidirectional; arcs

11

___ pairs of spinal nerves are in the spinal cord.

31

12

The medial funiculi are the ___

funiculi gracilis

13

The lateral funiculi are the ___.

funiculi cuneatus

14

The ___ are the exit points for sensory nerves.

dorsal roots

15

The ___ part of the spinal cord is for motor systems.

ventral

16

The ___ are exit points for motor nerves (LMN axons)

ventral roots

17

Lateral portion of the spinal cord has ___.

both sensory and motor info

18

The lateral funiculi includes ___ (motor); ___ (sensory) and ___ (sensory).

lateral corticospinal tract; spinocerebellar tract; anterolateral spinothalamic tract

19

___ are an indirect pathway from/in the basal ganglia, brain stem and cerebellum.

Extrapyramidal tracts

20

What are the functions of extrapyramidal tracts? 2

-smooth coordinated movement
-upright balanced posture

21

What are the four extrpyramidal tracts?

1 reticulospinal
2 tectospinal
3 rubrospinal
4 vestibulospinal

22

The reticulospinal tract functions to ___ and ___.

regulate coordinated movement; muscle tone

23

The tectospinal tract function to ___ and __. It begins in the ___.

neck and body twisting; superior colliculus of the midbrain

24

The rubrospinal tract functions to ___ and ___. It begins in the ___.

regulate muscle tone; support body against gravity; begins in the red nucleus of midbrain

25

The vestibulospinal tract function in ___.

reflexive adjustments of head/body (if you trip on a curb

26

The motor control circuits are ____, have _____, and function to ____ & ___.

indirect connection to muscles; multiple synapse in basal ganglia and/or cerebellum; coordinate and refine movement

27

The ____ functions to regulate motor functions, muscle tone, action execution, and cognition.

Basal ganglia

28

What are the components of the basal ganglia? 3 or 5

1 caudate nucleus
2 putamen
3 globus pallidus (internal and external)
4 substania nigra (may not be part of b. ganglia)
5 subthalamic nuclues (may not be part of b. ganglia)

29

The caudate and the putamen together are called the ___.

striatum or striate

30

the putamen and the globus pallidus are called the ___.

lenticular nucleus

31

___ is part of the limbic system (in emotion, rage and anger), sometimes it seems like it's connected to the basal ganglia, but it is functionally unrelated.

amygdala

32

____ regulates motor activity; not initiation of movement, but it can ____ and ___.

basal ganglia; suppress competing movements; facilitate associated automatic movements

33

There are UMN and LMNs in basal ganglia. T/F

F

34

The basal ganglia receives inputs from ____ (BA 4,6), thalamus, and other structures.

motor cortex

35

Which parts of the b ganglia direct circuit facilitates movement? 4

1 motor cortex - excitatory
2 caudate & putamen - inhibitatory
3 globus pallidus and substantia nigra -inhibitory does not inhibit if inhibited
4 thalamus - excitatory not inhibited, will excite the motor cortex

36

Which parts of the b ganglia indirect circuit inhibits movement? 6

1 motor cortex - excitatory
2 caudate and putamen - inhibitor
3 globus pallidus external is inhibitory inhibited
4 subthalamic nucleus is not inhibited excitatory
5 globus pallidus internal and substantia nigra is inhibitatory
6 thalamus is excitatory and inhibited; motor cortex does not send more movement

37

___ is what you call the caudate nucleus and putamen together.

striate nucleus

38

___ is what you call the putamen and globus pallidus together.

Lenticular nucleus

39

Pathology of the basal ganglia direct or indirect circuit can result in too much movement or __ or too little movement which can be found in ___.

dystonias; Parkinson's

40

The cerebellum is responsible for ongoing modifications of movement in the form of ____ control, ___ momvements, and motor ___.

error control, rapid movements; motor learning

41

The cerebellum sometimes plays a role in initiation of movement.

F

42

The initiation of movement comes from the ___.

motor cortex/strip

43

___ is when two different movements coordinated by the cerebellum follow in a 1,2,1,2 manner. (patapatapata)

Alternating Movement Rates (AMR)

44

___ is when two different movements coordinated by the cerebellum follow in a 1,2,3,1,2,3 manner. (patakapataka; buttercupbuttercup)

Sequential Movement Rates (SMR)

45

The cerebellum modfies ongoing movement by looking for __ in the ascending and descending feedback loops.

discrepancies

46

The cerebellum can ____, if there is a discrepancy in ascending feedback.

modify movement

47

The cerebellum can ___ if there is a discrepancy in descending feedback.

alter muscle tone/reflexes

48

___ information to the cerebellum enters through middle/infereior cerebellar peduncles.

Afferent

49

___ info enters through the suprior cerebellar peduncle.

Efferent

50

Afferent information to the cerebellum enters through ___.

middle/inferior cerebellar peduncles

51

Efferent info enters through the ___.

superior cerebellar peduncle

52

___ are the main cells of the cerebellum which form vast network via ___ fibers.

Purkinje; parallel

53

___ and ___ are two other types of cells in the cerebellum, which convey info from other parts of the cerebellum or outside.

mossy fibers and climbing fibers

54

In the upper midbrain we find the ___ and ___ which play a role in motor coordination/movement

red nucleus and substantia nigra

55

___ aids in muscle tone and is found in the brainstem.

Reticular formation

56

The reticular formation is _____, which means no external stimulation is needed.

intrinsically excited

57

____ means that the cerebrum has been disconnected, which results in loss of inhibition from upper levels and extensor posturing.

decerebrate rigidity

58

___ is controlled by the descending inhibition from the b ganglia and motor cortex.

extensor posture/reticular formation

59

____ can have contralateral symptoms (spasticity/minimal, discrete muscle control, muscle weakness, and brisk reflexes)

Unilateral UMN syndrome

60

If a pt has unilateral UMN damage, will have ___, ___, ___, and __.

spasticity, loss of discrete muscle control, muscle weakness and hyper/brisk reflexes

61

___ can have hypertonia, loss of discrete motor ctrl, reduced motor control of head/neck, little/no volitional facial expression, spastic dysarthria, and inappropriate laughter/crying

Pseudobulbar palsy

62

Pseudobulbar palsy is a form of ____.

bilateral lesions to input to the brainstem

63

Bilateral lesions to the UMN can result in ___,___ and ___.

hypertonia, loss of discrete motor ctrl, and spastic dysarhria

64

___ is characterized by poor articulation of phonemes, due to tightness.

Spastic dysarthria

65

Hypertonia, loss of discrete motor ctrl and spastic dysarthria is found in almost all ____.

bilateral UMN lesions

66

____ is tested by passively moving an extremity with noticeable spasticity.

Hypertonia

67

Unilateral UMN lesions will have ___ effect to the speech systems.

minimal

68

LMN lesions will have signs ___ to the damage.

ipsilateral

69

____ is demonstrated by low muscle tone (found in LMN lesions)

flaccid paralysis

70

LMN lesions signs include __, ___, and ___

flaccid paralysis, reduced reflexes, muscle fibrillations and atrophy

71

A muscle fibrillation is similar to a ___.

fasciculation

72

___ is wearing down of muscles.

Muscle atrophy

73

Hyper-reflexia is found in pt's with ___.

UMN lesions

74

Vocal fold paralysis is found in damage to the LMN of the ___ branch of the ____

recurrent; vagus

75

___ is movement like to worms in the muscles under the skin.

Muscle fasciculations

76

___ is furrows in the fiber groups of muscles.

Muscle fibrillations

77

_____ is a characteristic of hypoglossal nerve damage characterized by a hollow quality to speech (which can be confused for hypernasality).

Altered resonance

78

____ can result in damage to the basal ganglia and loss of dopamine from substantia nigra. This results in resting tremors, dysarthria, masked face, and festinating gait.

Parkinson's disease

79

____ is damage to the basal gangia at the cuadate nucleus and symptoms include writhing movements and dysarthria.

Huntington's chorea

80

___ is a motor speech disorder with multiple types.

Dysarthria

81

___ is a disease characterized by tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity.

Parkinson's disease

82

___ are unwanted movements.

Dystonias

83

Cerebellar damage results in ___ damage (side) with ___ ufnction affected. Recovery is ___.

ipsilateral; motor; gradual;

84

Cerebellar damage does/doesn't result in sensory function issues.

doesn't

85

___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by decreased coordination/order of movement.

Ataxia

86

___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by clumsy rapid/alternating movments.

Dysdiadochokinesis

87

___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by incorrect extent of movement (overshooting or undershooting movements)

Dysmetria

88

____ is decreased corrdination/order of movements in speech.

Ataxic dysarthria

89

___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by will be fine until they start to move and then they will shake.

Intention tremor

90

___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by reduced tone (ipsilaterally)

Hypotonia

91

___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by inability to predict, stop, dampen movement.

Rebounding

92

___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by broad based gait in order to maintain balance.

Disequilibrium

93

What does a complete transection of the spinal cord result in?

bilateral loss of all sensory and motor below the lesion

94

What does a spinal hemisection result in?

ipsilateral paralysis, loss of touch sensation and contralateral loss of pain and temperature

95

___ or ___ is damage to 1 side of spinal cord (L or R).

Spinal Hemisection; Brown-Sequard syndrome

96

_____ is a disorder caused by bilateral pontine damage, all of the motor signals are interrupted (quadriplegic); loss of all motor speech functions and vertical eye movment (CN III) is preserved. Patient is awake with good sensation, audition and comprehension.

Locked-in Syndrome

97

What causes Locked-in Syndrome?

bilateral pontine damage

98

____ is a degeneration of motor neurons (UMN & LMN) with presence in both U&LMN including spasticity, hyperreflexia, slowed movements, and flaccidity, atrophy and weakness.

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis or Lou Gherig's disease

99

___ is another name for the limbic system in that it plays a role for emotion, motivation, learning and memory.

"Visceral brain"

100

What are the components of the limbic system? 6

1 Subcallosal gyrus
2 Cingulate gyrus + isthmus (tail end of CG)
3 hippocampus/parahippocampal gyrus
4 olfactory cortex
5 uncus
6 amygdala

101

The subcallosal gyrus is found ___.

inferior to the corpus collosum

102

The cingulate gyrus is found ___

superior to the corpus collosum

103

The limbic system is connected to ___ (emotion, motivation for survival behaviors), ___ (memory, learning), and ____ (agression, mating, stress-mediated responses, memory, feeding and drinking).

frontal cortex/thalamus; prefrontal lobe and hippocampus; amygdala

104

The limbic is also connect to __ (anxiety and altered behaviors - panic attack, OCD beh) and ___ (ANS, motor aspects of emotion, fear, flight, sex).

cingulate gyrus; hypothalamus/reticular formation

105

What are two possible causes to the limbic system?

1 traumatic brain injury
2 dementias/degenerative diseases

106

What are symptoms of damage to the limbic system? 5 (common, not all or none)

1 uninhibited behavior
2 altered sexual behavior
3 excessive fear, agression
4 altered learning/memory
5 altered eating behaviors

107

___ is caused by bilateral amygdala damage and is makred by indiscriminate eating, fearlessness, reduced agression, and hypersexuality.

Kluver-bucy syndrome

108

Kluver-bucy syndrom is caused by ____ and is makred by indiscriminate eating, fearlessness, reduced agression, and hypersexuality.

bilateral amydala damage

109

What are symptoms related to Kluver-bucy syndrome? 4

1 indiscriminate eating
2 fearlessness
3 reduced aggression
4 hypersexuality

110

____ is networks of neurons in brainstem with many afferent connections influencing all nervous system function.

Reticular Formation

111

What are the afferents from the reticular formation?

1 sensory spinal tracts
2 cranial nerves
3 cerebellum
4 thalamus
5 limbic system

112

What are the efferents from the reticular formation? 2 general

1 somatic and autonomic nuclei
2 wide-spread CNS regions and structures

113

The reticular formation can influence as many as ____ brainstem neurons.

30,000

114

What are the 3 main general functions of the reticular formation?

1 cotical arousal
2 sensorimotor elaboration
3 visceral integrated activited

115

The reticular activating system is responds to ___/___ and is insensitive to ___.

intensity/novelty of stimuli; modality

116

Lesions to the midbrain or midbrain-thalamic junction affects the RAS resulting in ____ (varying from ___ to ___ to ___).

altered levels of consciousness; drowsiness; stupor; coma

117

____ is the lack of critical cognitive function and level of consciousness wherein a sufferer is almost entirely unresponsive and only responds to base stimuli such as pain.

stupor

118

____ is a state of unconsciousness lasting more than six hours,[1] in which a person: cannot be awakened; fails to respond normally to painful stimuli, light, or sound; lacks a normal sleep-wake cycle; and, does not initiate voluntary actions.

coma

119

The reticular formation has the ability to ____ or ____ sensory information that gets to the brain.

accentuate or attenuate

120

The reticular formation can modify sensory information like ___, ___, and ___.

general sense (pain touch, temp); special sense (auditory, visual, olfactory), pain monitoring/control system

121

The reticular formation can modify motor function by regulating ___, ___, and ___.

heartbeat, vasomotor, and respiratory cycle

122

____ is the dilation of blood vessels.

Vasomotor

123

Where are the centers for respiratory cycle regulation and what do they control? 3

1 pontine center - duration
2 medullary center - rhythm
3 cortex - conscious control

124

____ is a complex procedure requiring integration of sensory & motor function (trigeminal, facial, glosspharyngeal, vagus, hypoglossal and integration w/ respiratory center) and is a patterned reflex.

Swallowing

125

Swallowing integrates which cranial nerves? 5

1 trigeminal
2 facial
3 glossopharyngeal
4 vagus
5 hypoglossal

126

Reticular formation plays a role in ____ (eating ...) and if it goes wrong ___ and ___.

swallowing, coughing, vomiting

127

Reticular formation can influence ___ (hypothalamus, thalamus, limbic system), ____ (hypothalamus, pineal gland), ___ (superior colliculus - 3d body image), and ____ (thalamus).

autonomic functions; biologic rhythms; self-awareness; consciousness

128

Reticular formation can influence ___ (autonomic functions 3), ____ (biologic rhytms 2), ___ (self-awareness 1 - 3d body image), and ____ (consciouness1).

hypothalamus, thalamus, limbic system; hypothalamus, pineal gland; superior colliculus; thalamus

129

The ____ supplies half of the blood to the brain, from aorata up the side of neck.

internal carotid arteries

130

The ___ also supplies blood to the brain to the brainstem from the aorata up throught the vetebral column.

vertebral arteries

131

The vertebral arteries fuse to the ___, which bifurcates/branches to supply cerebellum,
inferior & posterior surfaces/structures.

basilar artery

132

The ___ is a ring of arteries at the base of the brain.

Circle of Willis

133

There are ___ (#) cerebral arteries which take blood to brain structures. What are they called?

3; anterior, middle and posterior

134

There are ___ (#) communicating arteries (not connecting) and create a circle. What are they called?

2; anterior, posterior

135

The cerebral arteries do/do not supply blood to brain structures.

do

136

The communicating arteries do/do not supply blood to brain structures.

do not

137

What is the purpose of the communicating arteries?

to complete the circle of willis and ensure blood supply in the event of an interruption of blood flow from one of the carotid branches

138

The middle cerebral artery goes laterally and supplies blood to ___.

inferior parietal lobe and superior temporal lobe

139

___ extends ___ feeds the medial surface of the R/L hemispheres.

Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA); anteriorly

140

___ courses laterally through the Sylvian Fissure and feeds the lateral surface of the R/L hemispheres.

Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA)

141

If they have CVA, we will likely see them if they ___ was effected.

MCA (middle cerebral artery)

142

____ runs from vertebral to the basilar and converges near the base of the pons to become the basilar artery. It divides to feed occipital lobe and inferior temporal lobe.

Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA)

143

What does the Basilar Artery feed?

brain stem&cerebellum

144

The ___ connects the R/L Anterior Cerebral Arteries.

Anterior Communicating Artery

145

The ___ connects the MCA to the PCA.

Posterior Communicating Artery

146

___ are very narrow and are likely places to clots to form.

Communicating arteries

147

___ is a brain attack which result from an interruption of blood flow to the brain that results in damage to brain tissues.

Cerebro-Vascular Accident (CVA) or stroke or "brain attack"

148

___ is a temporary, transient, interruption of blood flow to the brain, in symptoms last less than 24 hours.

Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) "mini stroke"

149

If neurons don't have oxygen for ___ minutes there can be irreversible damage.

4-6

150

___ stroke results from inadequate blood flow.

ischemic

151

Ischemic strokes that results from ___ which involves a blood clot develops in the brain.

thrombus

152

Ischemic strokes that results from ____ which involves a blood clot travels to the brain.

embolus

153

___ stroke results from blood vessel bursts.

Hemorrhagic

154

Hemorrhagic stroke are subdivided into ___ (3 types).

Location:
Intracerebral - in the cerebrum
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) - under arachnoid space
Subdural Hemmorrhage (SDH) - under dura mater

155

The Thrombolic stroke ____. The Embolis doesn't ____. (Mneumonic)

TRAVELS; Travel

156

What are the effects of stroke?

MCA - Left peri‐sylvian area (Aphasia, dysarthria
MCA - Right hemisphere (Cognitive‐communication deficits)
PCA - Occipital lobe(s) (Visual field cuts)
Basilar - Cerebellum (Ataxia, balance/coordination deficits)

157

What determines the effect of stroke?

Location

158

A ___ comes from a hemorrhagic stroke.

Hematoma

159

What is a common cause of hemorrhagic stokes? (a weakened blood vessel)

aneurysm

160

What is the ventricular system?

set of cavities & canals filled with cerebrospinal fluid: 4 ventricles (2 lateral, 3rd and 4th inferior)

161

Where and what are the lateral ventricles?

1 in each lobe; have 3 horns (anterior - frontal lobe, posterior - parietal/occipital, and inferior- temporal); c-shaped, lined with epedymal cells

162

___ are cells in the ventricles which generate CSF.

choroid plexus

163

___ are cells which line the ventricles and keep the CSF from entering cells.

Ependymal cells

164

____ connects the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle (inferior).

Foramen of Monroe

165

___ fills the area between the L/R thalami.

Third ventricle

166

What connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles?

Cerebral aqueduct

167

___ is in the brainstem region between the pons and cerebellum and continues through the spinal cord as the spinal canal.

Fourth ventricle

168

CSF is found surrounding the brain and spinal cord and where else?

centrally in the ventricles and spinal canal

169

____ and ___ are the lateral and medial exit points from the 4th ventricle.

Foramen of Lushka (lateral) and Foramen of Magendie (medial)

170

What is the purpose of the meninges?

protective membranes surrounding the CNS which covers the brain & spinal cord and creates a space to hold CSF

171

What are the 3 layers listed superficial to deep of the meninges?

1 dura mater
2 arachnoid membrane
3 pia mater

172

___ is a dense, fibrous tissue, which is double layered.

Dura Mater

173

What are the two layers of the dura mater?

- Periosteal surface (attaches to bone)
- Meningeal layer (attaches to arachnoid membrane)

174

The Periosteal surface and meningeal layer can be separated to form the __.

epidural space

175

____ is connected to the inner sruface of the cranium and vertebral collum and creates the epidural space.

periosteal surface

176

___ connects to the arachnoid layer and creates the subdural space.

meningeal layer

177

There are spaces in the dura mater called ___ and ___, and ___.

superior sagittal sinus
inferior sagittal sinus
transverse sinus

178

What is the purpose of the dura mater sinuses?

to hold veins

179

What do the dural mater enfoldings do?

hold the space between the portions of the brain.

180

What are the names/functions of the dural extensions? 3

1 falx cerebri - btw R/L cerebral hemispheres
2 falx cerebelli - btw R/L cerebellar hemispheres
3 tentorium cerebelli - divides the occipital lobe from the cerebellum

181

What are the subdivisions of the tentorium cerebelli used in TBI?

supratentorial space - holds the cerebrum
infratentorial space - holds cerebellum & brain stem

182

What is the arachnoid membrane?

a spider-web appearance created by the arachnoid trebeculae which creates the sub-arachnoid space which is filled with CSF and lies along deep surface of dura mater

183

What is the pia mater?

a very thin transparent sheet of connective tissue which adheres directly to the CNS (brain, blood vessels and spinal cord).

184

___ is an infection of the meninges, which usually affects the pia and arachnoid together.

meningitis

185

The pia + arachnoid together are called __.

leptomeninges

186

___ are responsible for CSF reabsorption.

Arachnoid vili

187

___ is a blockage in the ventricular system which results in a build up of CSF and increased intracranial pressure.

hydrocephalus

188

CSF is created by choroid plexus in ____ and flows down the ventricles (Foramen of Monroe & Cerebral aqueduct) and into either ___ (via foramen of Magendie and Lushka) or ____.

lateral ventricles; subarachnoid space or spinal cord/canal

189

What does hydrocephalus result in? 2

1 build up of CSF
2 increased intracranial pressure. (ICP)

190

____ is when a blood vessel bursts.

Hemorrhage

191

___ is the blood left behind when a blood vesel bursts.

Hematoma

192

What are the language functional areas of the frontal lobe? 3

1 pre-frontal - executive function - goal-directed behavior
2 posterior frontal - motor functions, motor strip, pre- & supplementary motor areas
3 inferior/posterior frontal - language and speech (Broca's area on the left)

193

What are the language functional areas of the parietal lobe? 2

1 anterior - post-central gyrus (primary sensory area and association areas)
2 inferior pareital (association areas - integrate comprehension with vision)

194

What are the language functional areas of the temporal lobe? 2

1 superior/posterior (Heschel’s gyrus & Wernicke’s area)
2 medial (deep) (hippocampus - memory)

195

What are the language functional areas of the occipital lobe? 1

• visual processing
• Objectrecognition (what) = ventral pathway
• Occipitaltemporal
• Spatialrecognition (where) = dorsal pathway
• Occipitalparietal
• Shape, color,form, location processing = separate areas

196

What are the generalizations about the left brain? 5

analytic; linear, sequential, temporal, language and auditory

197

What are the generalizations about the right brain? 5

holistic (Gestalt), nonlinear, parallel, music appreciation-emotional content, and visual processing

198

Centers and pathways in the hemisphere is important in the left hemisphere are important for ___

language

199

The LH lanugae centers are are found in the ____.

perisylvian areas

200

What are the Brodmann's areas for LH lanuguage?

BA 44 Broca's area
BA 41-42 Wernicke's area
BA 39‐40 angular&supramarginal gyri

201

__ is a disorder of expressive language. Not a speech problem!

Broca's aphasia

202

Broca's areas are also related to ___

motor speech

203

___ is an auditory association area, problems with this area affects receptive language.

Wernicke's area

204

___ is located to integrates visual and language processes located at the temporal parietal junction.

Angular and supramarginal gyri

205

The ___ connects broca's and Wernicke's areas. It is an important language pathway, which allows us to form responses to requests to repeat a stimulus. It connects Wernicke's to Broca's areas.

Arcuate fasciculus

206

What are the heard repetition pathway? 5

1 Auditory cortex
2 Wernicke's area
3 angular gryus
4 Broca's area
5 Motor cortex

207

What is the reading aloud pathway?

1 primary visual cortex
2 angular gyrus
3 wernicke's area
4 Broca's area
5 Motor cortex

208

Broca’s aphasia; non‐fluent aphasia is the result of a ___ lesion.

anterior

209

Wernicke's aphasia; fluent aphaisa is the result of a ___ lesion.

posterior

210

What is the reading aloud pathway?

1 primary visual cortex
2 angular gyrus
3 wernicke's area
4 Broca's area
5 Motor cortex

211

Broca’s aphasia; non‐fluent aphasia is the result of a ___ lesion.

anterior

212

Wernicke's aphasia; fluent aphaisa is the result of a ___ lesion.

posterior

213

_____ is the major language area of the brain (general area).

Perisylvian area

214

Multiple language learning is easist before age __ and there is minimal confusion btw languages.

5

215

What are the benefits to bilingual brain? 2

1 improves attention and working memory (inhibits distractors)
2 (slight) delays onset of dementia/Alzheimr's disease (cognitive reserve)

216

___ is when the better your brain is before something happens to it, the longer it will take before you see symptoms of a pathology (functional problems).

Cognitive reserve

217

Languages are stored ______.

together in the left hemisphere

218

What does the storing of two languages in the left hemisphere result in?

increased neuronal density in the left inferior parietal cortex;

219

What other part of the is affected by bilingualism and why?

right dorsolateral pre-frontal cortex - aids in attention/working membory efficiency; rapid switching btw languages

220

Aphasia in bilingual adults can affect ___.

either/both languages; often effects are unequal

221

What are the treatment options for people with aphasia with bilingual patients? 3

1 earliest learned
2 most commonly used
3 most fluent
(gains may transfer to the untreated language)

222

In the last 40 years, we have realized that ___ has a role in language. What caused this?

right hemisphere; aphasia researchers found RHD group were not normal

223

What are typical deficits for RHD? 5 (communication, attention/perception, and cognition)

1 communication discourse
2 communication writing
3 attention/perception - general attentional abilities
4 attention/perception - visuospatial neglect
5 cognition - organization, planning, sequencing, problem-solving, reasoning, judgment

224

Examples of RHD for communication include what? 2

1 communication discourse (multiple sentences together, intention)
2 communication writing (letter perseverations - yellowowow)

225

Examples of RHD for attention/perception include what? 2

1 attention/perception - general attentional abilities - focus, switching
2 attention/perception - visuospatial neglect - can't cross lines on a page, missing parts of the field; clock drawing

226

Examples of RHD for cognition include what? 5

1 organization
2 planning
3 problem solving
4 reasoning
5 judgement

227

The most common type of TBI injury to the brain is __, which is tearing and stretching of axons widely distributed throught out the brain.

diffuse axonal injury

228

If there is twisting in a TBI rubbing may not be terrible, but if it's broken it will ___.

die

229

In TBI besides diffuse axonal injury, you may also have ___.

focal axonal injury (focal lesions, often in frontal and temporal lobe, especially at the poles - scraping against internal crainial protrusions)

230

Common effect of focal injuries in TBI are ___, ___, and __.

1 executive function deficits
2 limbic system dysfunction
3 generalized slowing, processing inefficiencies (axons no longer connected that had been)

231

What are 4 uncontrollable risk factors for stroke?

1 family history
2 race (Afro-amer 2x morelikely than whites, Mexicans also)
3 age (risk doubles every decade after 55)
4 gender (males 57% > females 43%); females more likely to die

232

What are 6 controllable risk factors for stroke?

1 hypertension (high blood pressure)
2 heart disease
3 diabetes
4 high cholesterol
5 obesity
6 smoking, drug use, excessive alcohol use

233

What are 4 extra risk factors for stroke for females?

1 migraines (males too!)
2 the Pill (especially combined w/smoking)
3 pregnancy & post‐partum
4 Hormone Replacement Therapy (not good for menopause!)

234

What are the typical warning signs for stroke? 5

1 weakness/numbnessin face, arm, leg unilaterally
2 dizziness, loss of balance/coordination
3 loss of vision (one or both eyes)
4 sudden,severe, unexplained headache
5 difficulty speaking and/or understanding speech
ALL OCCUR SUDDENLY

235

What are the atypical warning signs for stroke? 7

1 face/limb pain
2 hiccups
3 nausea
4 general weakness
5 chest pain
6 shortness of breath
7 palpitations

236

How do we recognize a stroke? (acronym?)

Face - smile, look for droopng on one side
Arms - raise both arms - one arm drift down
Speech - speak or repeat a sentence (imprecise artic, does it make sense, coherent, correct repetition)
Time - call 911 immediately if any problems are noted

237

What does FAST pick up?

most Middle Cerebral Artery strokes (strokes affecting the perisylvian area)

238

Most of the TBI who go to the hospital have ___ TBI.

mild (we see moderate to severe)

239

Does TBI cost a lot to the US taxpayer?

yes!

240

What are the largest causes of TBIs?

1 falls
2 motor vehicle
3 struck by/against
4 assualt
5 blast injuries

241

What are the risk factors for TBI? 7

1 sex
2 alcohol/drug use
3 previous TBI (judgement/reasoning)
4 sporting activities
5 personality type
6 school adjustment/social history
7 socioeconomic status (assults)

242

What goes into TBI prevention? 6 (4 gen, 1 elderly, 1 children)

1 seat belts
2 carseats/booster seats
3 don't drink & dribve
4 helmets (bikes, motorcycles, etc.)
5 safe living area (geriatric) - tripping hazards, lighting, non-slip mats, handrails
6 safe living areas (children) - window guards, gates on stairs