Neuroscience Exam 3 Flashcards
(242 cards)
1
Q
____ are divided into lateral and anterior. It begins in the motor strip of the cortex and ends in the spinal cord.
A
corticospinal tract
2
Q
___ % of the corticospinal tract is called the “Lateral” Corticospinal tract and cross over at the pyramidal decussation/ contralateral spinal cord.
A
90
3
Q
____ % of the corticospinal tract is called the “Anterior” or “Ventral” corticospinal tract and remains ipsilateral down the spinal cord. They cross over prior to synapse.
A
10
4
Q
In the lateral corticospinal tract are all the neurons that travel to ____.
A
muscles of upper and lower extremities
5
Q
In the ventral/anterior corticospinal tract are all the neurons that travel to ____.
A
muscles of the trunk
6
Q
The corticospinal tract begins in the ___.
A
precentral gyrus or primary motor strip
7
Q
The axons of the lateral corticospinal tracts begin in the ____, travel through ___, ___, and ___. They travel and synapse in the __ onto ___.
A
pre-central gyrus; corona radiata; internal capsule and brain stem; ventral horn; LMN cell bodies
8
Q
The axons of the anterior corticospinal tracts begin in the ____, travel through ___, ___, and ___. They travel and synapse in the __ onto ___.
A
pre-central gyrus; corona radiata; internal capsule, brain stem; ventral horn onto LMN cell bodies
9
Q
The difference between the crossover in lateral and anterior/ventral corticospinal tract is ___.
A
lateral’s cross is at the pyramidal decussation, anterior’s cross is just before synapse.
10
Q
The spinal cord is a ____ pathway for axons.It also houses reflex ___.
A
bidirectional; arcs
11
Q
___ pairs of spinal nerves are in the spinal cord.
A
31
12
Q
The medial funiculi are the ___
A
funiculi gracilis
13
Q
The lateral funiculi are the ___.
A
funiculi cuneatus
14
Q
The ___ are the exit points for sensory nerves.
A
dorsal roots
15
Q
The ___ part of the spinal cord is for motor systems.
A
ventral
16
Q
The ___ are exit points for motor nerves (LMN axons)
A
ventral roots
17
Q
Lateral portion of the spinal cord has ___.
A
both sensory and motor info
18
Q
The lateral funiculi includes ___ (motor); ___ (sensory) and ___ (sensory).
A
lateral corticospinal tract; spinocerebellar tract; anterolateral spinothalamic tract
19
Q
___ are an indirect pathway from/in the basal ganglia, brain stem and cerebellum.
A
Extrapyramidal tracts
20
Q
What are the functions of extrapyramidal tracts? 2
A
- smooth coordinated movement
- upright balanced posture
21
Q
What are the four extrpyramidal tracts?
A
1 reticulospinal
2 tectospinal
3 rubrospinal
4 vestibulospinal
22
Q
The reticulospinal tract functions to ___ and ___.
A
regulate coordinated movement; muscle tone
23
Q
The tectospinal tract function to ___ and __. It begins in the ___.
A
neck and body twisting; superior colliculus of the midbrain
24
Q
The rubrospinal tract functions to ___ and ___. It begins in the ___.
A
regulate muscle tone; support body against gravity; begins in the red nucleus of midbrain
25
The vestibulospinal tract function in ___.
reflexive adjustments of head/body (if you trip on a curb
26
The motor control circuits are ____, have _____, and function to ____ & ___.
indirect connection to muscles; multiple synapse in basal ganglia and/or cerebellum; coordinate and refine movement
27
The ____ functions to regulate motor functions, muscle tone, action execution, and cognition.
Basal ganglia
28
What are the components of the basal ganglia? 3 or 5
1 caudate nucleus
2 putamen
3 globus pallidus (internal and external)
4 substania nigra (may not be part of b. ganglia)
5 subthalamic nuclues (may not be part of b. ganglia)
29
The caudate and the putamen together are called the ___.
striatum or striate
30
the putamen and the globus pallidus are called the ___.
lenticular nucleus
31
___ is part of the limbic system (in emotion, rage and anger), sometimes it seems like it's connected to the basal ganglia, but it is functionally unrelated.
amygdala
32
____ regulates motor activity; not initiation of movement, but it can ____ and ___.
basal ganglia; suppress competing movements; facilitate associated automatic movements
33
There are UMN and LMNs in basal ganglia. T/F
F
34
The basal ganglia receives inputs from ____ (BA 4,6), thalamus, and other structures.
motor cortex
35
Which parts of the b ganglia direct circuit facilitates movement? 4
1 motor cortex - excitatory
2 caudate & putamen - inhibitatory
3 globus pallidus and substantia nigra -inhibitory does not inhibit if inhibited
4 thalamus - excitatory not inhibited, will excite the motor cortex
36
Which parts of the b ganglia indirect circuit inhibits movement? 6
1 motor cortex - excitatory
2 caudate and putamen - inhibitor
3 globus pallidus external is inhibitory inhibited
4 subthalamic nucleus is not inhibited excitatory
5 globus pallidus internal and substantia nigra is inhibitatory
6 thalamus is excitatory and inhibited; motor cortex does not send more movement
37
___ is what you call the caudate nucleus and putamen together.
striate nucleus
38
___ is what you call the putamen and globus pallidus together.
Lenticular nucleus
39
Pathology of the basal ganglia direct or indirect circuit can result in too much movement or __ or too little movement which can be found in ___.
dystonias; Parkinson's
40
The cerebellum is responsible for ongoing modifications of movement in the form of ____ control, ___ momvements, and motor ___.
error control, rapid movements; motor learning
41
The cerebellum sometimes plays a role in initiation of movement.
F
42
The initiation of movement comes from the ___.
motor cortex/strip
43
___ is when two different movements coordinated by the cerebellum follow in a 1,2,1,2 manner. (patapatapata)
Alternating Movement Rates (AMR)
44
___ is when two different movements coordinated by the cerebellum follow in a 1,2,3,1,2,3 manner. (patakapataka; buttercupbuttercup)
Sequential Movement Rates (SMR)
45
The cerebellum modfies ongoing movement by looking for __ in the ascending and descending feedback loops.
discrepancies
46
The cerebellum can ____, if there is a discrepancy in ascending feedback.
modify movement
47
The cerebellum can ___ if there is a discrepancy in descending feedback.
alter muscle tone/reflexes
48
___ information to the cerebellum enters through middle/infereior cerebellar peduncles.
Afferent
49
___ info enters through the suprior cerebellar peduncle.
Efferent
50
Afferent information to the cerebellum enters through ___.
middle/inferior cerebellar peduncles
51
Efferent info enters through the ___.
superior cerebellar peduncle
52
___ are the main cells of the cerebellum which form vast network via ___ fibers.
Purkinje; parallel
53
___ and ___ are two other types of cells in the cerebellum, which convey info from other parts of the cerebellum or outside.
mossy fibers and climbing fibers
54
In the upper midbrain we find the ___ and ___ which play a role in motor coordination/movement
red nucleus and substantia nigra
55
___ aids in muscle tone and is found in the brainstem.
Reticular formation
56
The reticular formation is _____, which means no external stimulation is needed.
intrinsically excited
57
____ means that the cerebrum has been disconnected, which results in loss of inhibition from upper levels and extensor posturing.
decerebrate rigidity
58
___ is controlled by the descending inhibition from the b ganglia and motor cortex.
extensor posture/reticular formation
59
____ can have contralateral symptoms (spasticity/minimal, discrete muscle control, muscle weakness, and brisk reflexes)
Unilateral UMN syndrome
60
If a pt has unilateral UMN damage, will have ___, ___, ___, and __.
spasticity, loss of discrete muscle control, muscle weakness and hyper/brisk reflexes
61
___ can have hypertonia, loss of discrete motor ctrl, reduced motor control of head/neck, little/no volitional facial expression, spastic dysarthria, and inappropriate laughter/crying
Pseudobulbar palsy
62
Pseudobulbar palsy is a form of ____.
bilateral lesions to input to the brainstem
63
Bilateral lesions to the UMN can result in ___,___ and ___.
hypertonia, loss of discrete motor ctrl, and spastic dysarhria
64
___ is characterized by poor articulation of phonemes, due to tightness.
Spastic dysarthria
65
Hypertonia, loss of discrete motor ctrl and spastic dysarthria is found in almost all ____.
bilateral UMN lesions
66
____ is tested by passively moving an extremity with noticeable spasticity.
Hypertonia
67
Unilateral UMN lesions will have ___ effect to the speech systems.
minimal
68
LMN lesions will have signs ___ to the damage.
ipsilateral
69
____ is demonstrated by low muscle tone (found in LMN lesions)
flaccid paralysis
70
LMN lesions signs include __, ___, and ___
flaccid paralysis, reduced reflexes, muscle fibrillations and atrophy
71
A muscle fibrillation is similar to a ___.
fasciculation
72
___ is wearing down of muscles.
Muscle atrophy
73
Hyper-reflexia is found in pt's with ___.
UMN lesions
74
Vocal fold paralysis is found in damage to the LMN of the ___ branch of the ____
recurrent; vagus
75
___ is movement like to worms in the muscles under the skin.
Muscle fasciculations
76
___ is furrows in the fiber groups of muscles.
Muscle fibrillations
77
_____ is a characteristic of hypoglossal nerve damage characterized by a hollow quality to speech (which can be confused for hypernasality).
Altered resonance
78
____ can result in damage to the basal ganglia and loss of dopamine from substantia nigra. This results in resting tremors, dysarthria, masked face, and festinating gait.
Parkinson's disease
79
____ is damage to the basal gangia at the cuadate nucleus and symptoms include writhing movements and dysarthria.
Huntington's chorea
80
___ is a motor speech disorder with multiple types.
Dysarthria
81
___ is a disease characterized by tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity.
Parkinson's disease
82
___ are unwanted movements.
Dystonias
83
Cerebellar damage results in ___ damage (side) with ___ ufnction affected. Recovery is ___.
ipsilateral; motor; gradual;
84
Cerebellar damage does/doesn't result in sensory function issues.
doesn't
85
___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by decreased coordination/order of movement.
Ataxia
86
___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by clumsy rapid/alternating movments.
Dysdiadochokinesis
87
___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by incorrect extent of movement (overshooting or undershooting movements)
Dysmetria
88
____ is decreased corrdination/order of movements in speech.
Ataxic dysarthria
89
___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by will be fine until they start to move and then they will shake.
Intention tremor
90
___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by reduced tone (ipsilaterally)
Hypotonia
91
___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by inability to predict, stop, dampen movement.
Rebounding
92
___ can result from cerebellar damage and is marked by broad based gait in order to maintain balance.
Disequilibrium
93
What does a complete transection of the spinal cord result in?
bilateral loss of all sensory and motor below the lesion
94
What does a spinal hemisection result in?
ipsilateral paralysis, loss of touch sensation and contralateral loss of pain and temperature
95
___ or ___ is damage to 1 side of spinal cord (L or R).
Spinal Hemisection; Brown-Sequard syndrome
96
_____ is a disorder caused by bilateral pontine damage, all of the motor signals are interrupted (quadriplegic); loss of all motor speech functions and vertical eye movment (CN III) is preserved. Patient is awake with good sensation, audition and comprehension.
Locked-in Syndrome
97
What causes Locked-in Syndrome?
bilateral pontine damage
98
____ is a degeneration of motor neurons (UMN & LMN) with presence in both U&LMN including spasticity, hyperreflexia, slowed movements, and flaccidity, atrophy and weakness.
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis or Lou Gherig's disease
99
___ is another name for the limbic system in that it plays a role for emotion, motivation, learning and memory.
"Visceral brain"
100
What are the components of the limbic system? 6
```
1 Subcallosal gyrus
2 Cingulate gyrus + isthmus (tail end of CG)
3 hippocampus/parahippocampal gyrus
4 olfactory cortex
5 uncus
6 amygdala
```
101
The subcallosal gyrus is found ___.
inferior to the corpus collosum
102
The cingulate gyrus is found ___
superior to the corpus collosum
103
The limbic system is connected to ___ (emotion, motivation for survival behaviors), ___ (memory, learning), and ____ (agression, mating, stress-mediated responses, memory, feeding and drinking).
frontal cortex/thalamus; prefrontal lobe and hippocampus; amygdala
104
The limbic is also connect to __ (anxiety and altered behaviors - panic attack, OCD beh) and ___ (ANS, motor aspects of emotion, fear, flight, sex).
cingulate gyrus; hypothalamus/reticular formation
105
What are two possible causes to the limbic system?
1 traumatic brain injury
| 2 dementias/degenerative diseases
106
What are symptoms of damage to the limbic system? 5 (common, not all or none)
```
1 uninhibited behavior
2 altered sexual behavior
3 excessive fear, agression
4 altered learning/memory
5 altered eating behaviors
```
107
___ is caused by bilateral amygdala damage and is makred by indiscriminate eating, fearlessness, reduced agression, and hypersexuality.
Kluver-bucy syndrome
108
Kluver-bucy syndrom is caused by ____ and is makred by indiscriminate eating, fearlessness, reduced agression, and hypersexuality.
bilateral amydala damage
109
What are symptoms related to Kluver-bucy syndrome? 4
1 indiscriminate eating
2 fearlessness
3 reduced aggression
4 hypersexuality
110
____ is networks of neurons in brainstem with many afferent connections influencing all nervous system function.
Reticular Formation
111
What are the afferents from the reticular formation?
```
1 sensory spinal tracts
2 cranial nerves
3 cerebellum
4 thalamus
5 limbic system
```
112
What are the efferents from the reticular formation? 2 general
1 somatic and autonomic nuclei
| 2 wide-spread CNS regions and structures
113
The reticular formation can influence as many as ____ brainstem neurons.
30,000
114
What are the 3 main general functions of the reticular formation?
1 cotical arousal
2 sensorimotor elaboration
3 visceral integrated activited
115
The reticular activating system is responds to ___/___ and is insensitive to ___.
intensity/novelty of stimuli; modality
116
Lesions to the midbrain or midbrain-thalamic junction affects the RAS resulting in ____ (varying from ___ to ___ to ___).
altered levels of consciousness; drowsiness; stupor; coma
117
____ is the lack of critical cognitive function and level of consciousness wherein a sufferer is almost entirely unresponsive and only responds to base stimuli such as pain.
stupor
118
____ is a state of unconsciousness lasting more than six hours,[1] in which a person: cannot be awakened; fails to respond normally to painful stimuli, light, or sound; lacks a normal sleep-wake cycle; and, does not initiate voluntary actions.
coma
119
The reticular formation has the ability to ____ or ____ sensory information that gets to the brain.
accentuate or attenuate
120
The reticular formation can modify sensory information like ___, ___, and ___.
general sense (pain touch, temp); special sense (auditory, visual, olfactory), pain monitoring/control system
121
The reticular formation can modify motor function by regulating ___, ___, and ___.
heartbeat, vasomotor, and respiratory cycle
122
____ is the dilation of blood vessels.
Vasomotor
123
Where are the centers for respiratory cycle regulation and what do they control? 3
1 pontine center - duration
2 medullary center - rhythm
3 cortex - conscious control
124
____ is a complex procedure requiring integration of sensory & motor function (trigeminal, facial, glosspharyngeal, vagus, hypoglossal and integration w/ respiratory center) and is a patterned reflex.
Swallowing
125
Swallowing integrates which cranial nerves? 5
```
1 trigeminal
2 facial
3 glossopharyngeal
4 vagus
5 hypoglossal
```
126
Reticular formation plays a role in ____ (eating ...) and if it goes wrong ___ and ___.
swallowing, coughing, vomiting
127
Reticular formation can influence ___ (hypothalamus, thalamus, limbic system), ____ (hypothalamus, pineal gland), ___ (superior colliculus - 3d body image), and ____ (thalamus).
autonomic functions; biologic rhythms; self-awareness; consciousness
128
Reticular formation can influence ___ (autonomic functions 3), ____ (biologic rhytms 2), ___ (self-awareness 1 - 3d body image), and ____ (consciouness1).
hypothalamus, thalamus, limbic system; hypothalamus, pineal gland; superior colliculus; thalamus
129
The ____ supplies half of the blood to the brain, from aorata up the side of neck.
internal carotid arteries
130
The ___ also supplies blood to the brain to the brainstem from the aorata up throught the vetebral column.
vertebral arteries
131
The vertebral arteries fuse to the ___, which bifurcates/branches to supply cerebellum,
inferior & posterior surfaces/structures.
basilar artery
132
The ___ is a ring of arteries at the base of the brain.
Circle of Willis
133
There are ___ (#) cerebral arteries which take blood to brain structures. What are they called?
3; anterior, middle and posterior
134
There are ___ (#) communicating arteries (not connecting) and create a circle. What are they called?
2; anterior, posterior
135
The cerebral arteries do/do not supply blood to brain structures.
do
136
The communicating arteries do/do not supply blood to brain structures.
do not
137
What is the purpose of the communicating arteries?
to complete the circle of willis and ensure blood supply in the event of an interruption of blood flow from one of the carotid branches
138
The middle cerebral artery goes laterally and supplies blood to ___.
inferior parietal lobe and superior temporal lobe
139
___ extends ___ feeds the medial surface of the R/L hemispheres.
Anterior Cerebral Artery (ACA); anteriorly
140
___ courses laterally through the Sylvian Fissure and feeds the lateral surface of the R/L hemispheres.
Middle Cerebral Artery (MCA)
141
If they have CVA, we will likely see them if they ___ was effected.
MCA (middle cerebral artery)
142
____ runs from vertebral to the basilar and converges near the base of the pons to become the basilar artery. It divides to feed occipital lobe and inferior temporal lobe.
Posterior Cerebral Artery (PCA)
143
What does the Basilar Artery feed?
brain stem&cerebellum
144
The ___ connects the R/L Anterior Cerebral Arteries.
Anterior Communicating Artery
145
The ___ connects the MCA to the PCA.
Posterior Communicating Artery
146
___ are very narrow and are likely places to clots to form.
Communicating arteries
147
___ is a brain attack which result from an interruption of blood flow to the brain that results in damage to brain tissues.
Cerebro-Vascular Accident (CVA) or stroke or "brain attack"
148
___ is a temporary, transient, interruption of blood flow to the brain, in symptoms last less than 24 hours.
Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) "mini stroke"
149
If neurons don't have oxygen for ___ minutes there can be irreversible damage.
4-6
150
___ stroke results from inadequate blood flow.
ischemic
151
Ischemic strokes that results from ___ which involves a blood clot develops in the brain.
thrombus
152
Ischemic strokes that results from ____ which involves a blood clot travels to the brain.
embolus
153
___ stroke results from blood vessel bursts.
Hemorrhagic
154
Hemorrhagic stroke are subdivided into ___ (3 types).
Location:
Intracerebral - in the cerebrum
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) - under arachnoid space
Subdural Hemmorrhage (SDH) - under dura mater
155
The Thrombolic stroke ____. The Embolis doesn't ____. (Mneumonic)
TRAVELS; Travel
156
What are the effects of stroke?
MCA - Left peri‐sylvian area (Aphasia, dysarthria
MCA - Right hemisphere (Cognitive‐communication deficits)
PCA - Occipital lobe(s) (Visual field cuts)
Basilar - Cerebellum (Ataxia, balance/coordination deficits)
157
What determines the effect of stroke?
Location
158
A ___ comes from a hemorrhagic stroke.
Hematoma
159
What is a common cause of hemorrhagic stokes? (a weakened blood vessel)
aneurysm
160
What is the ventricular system?
set of cavities & canals filled with cerebrospinal fluid: 4 ventricles (2 lateral, 3rd and 4th inferior)
161
Where and what are the lateral ventricles?
1 in each lobe; have 3 horns (anterior - frontal lobe, posterior - parietal/occipital, and inferior- temporal); c-shaped, lined with epedymal cells
162
___ are cells in the ventricles which generate CSF.
choroid plexus
163
___ are cells which line the ventricles and keep the CSF from entering cells.
Ependymal cells
164
____ connects the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle (inferior).
Foramen of Monroe
165
___ fills the area between the L/R thalami.
Third ventricle
166
What connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles?
Cerebral aqueduct
167
___ is in the brainstem region between the pons and cerebellum and continues through the spinal cord as the spinal canal.
Fourth ventricle
168
CSF is found surrounding the brain and spinal cord and where else?
centrally in the ventricles and spinal canal
169
____ and ___ are the lateral and medial exit points from the 4th ventricle.
Foramen of Lushka (lateral) and Foramen of Magendie (medial)
170
What is the purpose of the meninges?
protective membranes surrounding the CNS which covers the brain & spinal cord and creates a space to hold CSF
171
What are the 3 layers listed superficial to deep of the meninges?
1 dura mater
2 arachnoid membrane
3 pia mater
172
___ is a dense, fibrous tissue, which is double layered.
Dura Mater
173
What are the two layers of the dura mater?
- Periosteal surface (attaches to bone)
| - Meningeal layer (attaches to arachnoid membrane)
174
The Periosteal surface and meningeal layer can be separated to form the __.
epidural space
175
____ is connected to the inner sruface of the cranium and vertebral collum and creates the epidural space.
periosteal surface
176
___ connects to the arachnoid layer and creates the subdural space.
meningeal layer
177
There are spaces in the dura mater called ___ and ___, and ___.
superior sagittal sinus
inferior sagittal sinus
transverse sinus
178
What is the purpose of the dura mater sinuses?
to hold veins
179
What do the dural mater enfoldings do?
hold the space between the portions of the brain.
180
What are the names/functions of the dural extensions? 3
1 falx cerebri - btw R/L cerebral hemispheres
2 falx cerebelli - btw R/L cerebellar hemispheres
3 tentorium cerebelli - divides the occipital lobe from the cerebellum
181
What are the subdivisions of the tentorium cerebelli used in TBI?
supratentorial space - holds the cerebrum
| infratentorial space - holds cerebellum & brain stem
182
What is the arachnoid membrane?
a spider-web appearance created by the arachnoid trebeculae which creates the sub-arachnoid space which is filled with CSF and lies along deep surface of dura mater
183
What is the pia mater?
a very thin transparent sheet of connective tissue which adheres directly to the CNS (brain, blood vessels and spinal cord).
184
___ is an infection of the meninges, which usually affects the pia and arachnoid together.
meningitis
185
The pia + arachnoid together are called __.
leptomeninges
186
___ are responsible for CSF reabsorption.
Arachnoid vili
187
___ is a blockage in the ventricular system which results in a build up of CSF and increased intracranial pressure.
hydrocephalus
188
CSF is created by choroid plexus in ____ and flows down the ventricles (Foramen of Monroe & Cerebral aqueduct) and into either ___ (via foramen of Magendie and Lushka) or ____.
lateral ventricles; subarachnoid space or spinal cord/canal
189
What does hydrocephalus result in? 2
1 build up of CSF
| 2 increased intracranial pressure. (ICP)
190
____ is when a blood vessel bursts.
Hemorrhage
191
___ is the blood left behind when a blood vesel bursts.
Hematoma
192
What are the language functional areas of the frontal lobe? 3
1 pre-frontal - executive function - goal-directed behavior
2 posterior frontal - motor functions, motor strip, pre- & supplementary motor areas
3 inferior/posterior frontal - language and speech (Broca's area on the left)
193
What are the language functional areas of the parietal lobe? 2
1 anterior - post-central gyrus (primary sensory area and association areas)
2 inferior pareital (association areas - integrate comprehension with vision)
194
What are the language functional areas of the temporal lobe? 2
```
1 superior/posterior (Heschel’s gyrus & Wernicke’s area)
2 medial (deep) (hippocampus - memory)
```
195
What are the language functional areas of the occipital lobe? 1
* visual processing
* Objectrecognition (what) = ventral pathway
* Occipitaltemporal
* Spatialrecognition (where) = dorsal pathway
* Occipitalparietal
* Shape, color,form, location processing = separate areas
196
What are the generalizations about the left brain? 5
analytic; linear, sequential, temporal, language and auditory
197
What are the generalizations about the right brain? 5
holistic (Gestalt), nonlinear, parallel, music appreciation-emotional content, and visual processing
198
Centers and pathways in the hemisphere is important in the left hemisphere are important for ___
language
199
The LH lanugae centers are are found in the ____.
perisylvian areas
200
What are the Brodmann's areas for LH lanuguage?
BA 44 Broca's area
BA 41-42 Wernicke's area
BA 39‐40 angular&supramarginal gyri
201
__ is a disorder of expressive language. Not a speech problem!
Broca's aphasia
202
Broca's areas are also related to ___
motor speech
203
___ is an auditory association area, problems with this area affects receptive language.
Wernicke's area
204
___ is located to integrates visual and language processes located at the temporal parietal junction.
Angular and supramarginal gyri
205
The ___ connects broca's and Wernicke's areas. It is an important language pathway, which allows us to form responses to requests to repeat a stimulus. It connects Wernicke's to Broca's areas.
Arcuate fasciculus
206
What are the heard repetition pathway? 5
```
1 Auditory cortex
2 Wernicke's area
3 angular gryus
4 Broca's area
5 Motor cortex
```
207
What is the reading aloud pathway?
```
1 primary visual cortex
2 angular gyrus
3 wernicke's area
4 Broca's area
5 Motor cortex
```
208
Broca’s aphasia; non‐fluent aphasia is the result of a ___ lesion.
anterior
209
Wernicke's aphasia; fluent aphaisa is the result of a ___ lesion.
posterior
210
What is the reading aloud pathway?
```
1 primary visual cortex
2 angular gyrus
3 wernicke's area
4 Broca's area
5 Motor cortex
```
211
Broca’s aphasia; non‐fluent aphasia is the result of a ___ lesion.
anterior
212
Wernicke's aphasia; fluent aphaisa is the result of a ___ lesion.
posterior
213
_____ is the major language area of the brain (general area).
Perisylvian area
214
Multiple language learning is easist before age __ and there is minimal confusion btw languages.
5
215
What are the benefits to bilingual brain? 2
1 improves attention and working memory (inhibits distractors)
2 (slight) delays onset of dementia/Alzheimr's disease (cognitive reserve)
216
___ is when the better your brain is before something happens to it, the longer it will take before you see symptoms of a pathology (functional problems).
Cognitive reserve
217
Languages are stored ______.
together in the left hemisphere
218
What does the storing of two languages in the left hemisphere result in?
increased neuronal density in the left inferior parietal cortex;
219
What other part of the is affected by bilingualism and why?
right dorsolateral pre-frontal cortex - aids in attention/working membory efficiency; rapid switching btw languages
220
Aphasia in bilingual adults can affect ___.
either/both languages; often effects are unequal
221
What are the treatment options for people with aphasia with bilingual patients? 3
1 earliest learned
2 most commonly used
3 most fluent
(gains may transfer to the untreated language)
222
In the last 40 years, we have realized that ___ has a role in language. What caused this?
right hemisphere; aphasia researchers found RHD group were not normal
223
What are typical deficits for RHD? 5 (communication, attention/perception, and cognition)
1 communication discourse
2 communication writing
3 attention/perception - general attentional abilities
4 attention/perception - visuospatial neglect
5 cognition - organization, planning, sequencing, problem-solving, reasoning, judgment
224
Examples of RHD for communication include what? 2
1 communication discourse (multiple sentences together, intention)
2 communication writing (letter perseverations - yellowowow)
225
Examples of RHD for attention/perception include what? 2
1 attention/perception - general attentional abilities - focus, switching
2 attention/perception - visuospatial neglect - can't cross lines on a page, missing parts of the field; clock drawing
226
Examples of RHD for cognition include what? 5
```
1 organization
2 planning
3 problem solving
4 reasoning
5 judgement
```
227
The most common type of TBI injury to the brain is __, which is tearing and stretching of axons widely distributed throught out the brain.
diffuse axonal injury
228
If there is twisting in a TBI rubbing may not be terrible, but if it's broken it will ___.
die
229
In TBI besides diffuse axonal injury, you may also have ___.
focal axonal injury (focal lesions, often in frontal and temporal lobe, especially at the poles - scraping against internal crainial protrusions)
230
Common effect of focal injuries in TBI are ___, ___, and __.
1 executive function deficits
2 limbic system dysfunction
3 generalized slowing, processing inefficiencies (axons no longer connected that had been)
231
What are 4 uncontrollable risk factors for stroke?
```
1 family history
2 race (Afro-amer 2x morelikely than whites, Mexicans also)
3 age (risk doubles every decade after 55)
4 gender (males 57% > females 43%); females more likely to die
```
232
What are 6 controllable risk factors for stroke?
```
1 hypertension (high blood pressure)
2 heart disease
3 diabetes
4 high cholesterol
5 obesity
6 smoking, drug use, excessive alcohol use
```
233
What are 4 extra risk factors for stroke for females?
1 migraines (males too!)
2 the Pill (especially combined w/smoking)
3 pregnancy & post‐partum
4 Hormone Replacement Therapy (not good for menopause!)
234
What are the typical warning signs for stroke? 5
1 weakness/numbnessin face, arm, leg unilaterally
2 dizziness, loss of balance/coordination
3 loss of vision (one or both eyes)
4 sudden,severe, unexplained headache
5 difficulty speaking and/or understanding speech
ALL OCCUR SUDDENLY
235
What are the atypical warning signs for stroke? 7
```
1 face/limb pain
2 hiccups
3 nausea
4 general weakness
5 chest pain
6 shortness of breath
7 palpitations
```
236
How do we recognize a stroke? (acronym?)
Face - smile, look for droopng on one side
Arms - raise both arms - one arm drift down
Speech - speak or repeat a sentence (imprecise artic, does it make sense, coherent, correct repetition)
Time - call 911 immediately if any problems are noted
237
What does FAST pick up?
most Middle Cerebral Artery strokes (strokes affecting the perisylvian area)
238
Most of the TBI who go to the hospital have ___ TBI.
mild (we see moderate to severe)
239
Does TBI cost a lot to the US taxpayer?
yes!
240
What are the largest causes of TBIs?
```
1 falls
2 motor vehicle
3 struck by/against
4 assualt
5 blast injuries
```
241
What are the risk factors for TBI? 7
```
1 sex
2 alcohol/drug use
3 previous TBI (judgement/reasoning)
4 sporting activities
5 personality type
6 school adjustment/social history
7 socioeconomic status (assults)
```
242
What goes into TBI prevention? 6 (4 gen, 1 elderly, 1 children)
1 seat belts
2 carseats/booster seats
3 don't drink & dribve
4 helmets (bikes, motorcycles, etc.)
5 safe living area (geriatric) - tripping hazards, lighting, non-slip mats, handrails
6 safe living areas (children) - window guards, gates on stairs
