Neuroscience Exam 2 Flashcards
(284 cards)
1
Q
The somato- from somatosensory means ____
A
body
2
Q
Somatosensation exlcudes ____, ____, ___, & ___, which are called ____
A
hearing, sight, taste, olfaction; special senses
3
Q
The senses of somatosensation are 2Ps and 2 Ts, they are ___, ___, ___, & ___.
A
pain, temperature, touch, and proprioception
4
Q
The pathways that the somatosensation include sensors in the ____, ___, ___ & ___
A
skin, muscles, joints, and blood vessels
5
Q
What is the spinal nerve a mix of?
A
afferent and efferent fibers
6
Q
What is the dorsal root ganglion?
A
a collection of cell bodies in the dorsal side of the spinal nerve
7
Q
The ____ horn is the sensory horn of the spinal cord.
A
dorsal
8
Q
The _____ fibers carry pain, touch, temperature and proprioception info to the brain.
A
ascending or afferent
9
Q
When the afferent fibers arrive at the brain, their messages are relayed to ____ & ___.
A
primary sensory area (parietal lobe) and association areas
10
Q
Why does all the sensory info go to the parietal lob first?
A
to allow for conscious perception of sensation
11
Q
Why does all the sensory info go to association areas?
A
to allow for analysis and integration of the sensation
12
Q
How can sensory receptors be classified (2 methods)?
A
1 modality
2 adaptability
13
Q
What are the two classifications of adaptability of sensory receptors?
A
quick adapting (initial response fades away the longer the sense is experienced) nonadapting (provides the same response over time - as long as the signal is present).
14
Q
What are the modalities of sensation? 3 big (2 sub types)
A
1 Mechanoreceptive (tactile-touchpressurevibration, kinesthetic-movement) 2 Thermoreception (temperature) 3 Nociception (pain)
15
Q
What are the two subtypes of tactile sensation?
A
1 fine discriminative
2 diffuse/gross
16
Q
____ ____ pathway is a sensory pathway carrying non-localizable touch and pain and temperature.
A
anterolateral spinothalamic
17
Q
The anterior portion of the anterolateral spinothalamic pathway carries ____.
A
non-localizable touch
18
Q
The lateral portion of the anterolateral spinothalamic pathway carries ____.
A
pain and temperature
19
Q
The ____ ___ (region of the spinal cord) carries info from the lower extremities.
A
fasciulus gracilis
20
Q
The ____ ___ (region of the spinal cord) carries info from the upper extremities.
A
fasciulus cuneatus
21
Q
___ (1st, 2nd, 3rd) has dendrites in the periphery, cell bodies in the DRG and synapse in ipsilateral spinal cord or medulla.
A
1st
22
Q
___ (1st, 2nd, 3rd) has cell bodies in the spinal cord or medulla, axons cross over and ascend in contralateral spinal cord or brain stem.
A
2nd
23
Q
___ (1st, 2nd, 3rd) has cell bodies in the thalamus, and axons which ascend to the parietal lobe (primary sensory area).
A
3rd
24
Q
What is the DRG?
A
dorsal root ganglion are the sensory axon tracts
25
What is the ipsilateral pathway?
the DCML (dorsal column medial lemniscus) an axon tract that is late developing with discriminative touch, and a decussation in the medulla
26
What is the contralateral pathway?
the anterolateral pathway is early developing and works with pain, temperature, and diffuse/crud touch; it decussates in the spinal cord.
27
What are two characteristic of the DCML system?
the dorsal column-medial lemniscal system is:
1 a large myelinated fiber tract
2 sent to precise maps of the body system (lesions that occur accompany predictable losses in sensation)
28
What is carried in the DCML system? functions 3
1 fine discriminative touch (graphesthesia; stereognosis)
2 vibration sense
3 proprioception, kinesthesia
29
What is graphesthesia?
ability to ID letters draw on skin
30
What is stereognosis?
ability to ID shapes based on touch
31
In the post-central gyrus, the information is represented _____. This is where ____ begins to happen.
somatotopically; conscious awareness
32
A lesion to the post-central gyrus can result in _____.
reduced perception of touch and localization
33
The somasthetic association cortex is found in BA __ & ___. Which is in the _____
5 &7; the superior, posterior parietal lobe
34
A lesion to the somasthetic association cortex results in reduced _____, _____, and reduced ___
touch perception, tactile agnosia (loss of touch recognition-can describe object but can't name it), sensory discrimination
35
First order neurons in the DCML system are ____ (shape)
unipolar
36
_____ in the DCML system have cell bodies in the nucleus gracilis or nucleus cuneatus in the medulla.
second order neurons (depending on if they are LE or UE neurons)
37
Second order neurons in the DCML cross the midline in the ___ and continue through the contralateral brainstem in the ___ ___.
medulla; medial lemniscus
38
The dorsal column after the cross over in the medulla is called the ___ ___ ___.
medial lemniscus system
39
1st order neurons in the DCML and anterolateral systems cell bodies are in the ____
dorsal root ganglia
40
2nd order neuron in the DCML cell bodies are in the ___
nucleus gracilis or nucleus cuneatus
41
2nd order neuron's axons in the DCML and anterolateral systems decussate and end in ___
ventral posterior lateral nucleus in thalamus
42
3rd order neuron cell bodies in the DCML and anterolateral systems are in the ___
ventral posterior lateral nucleus in the thalamus
43
What does the anterolateral system carry?
lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature
| -
44
The lateral spinothalamic tract branches to ____ and ___
VPL and the intralaminar nuclei (connx to the limbic system)
45
The lateral spinothalamic tract is influenced by _____ ____ ___
descending reticular projections
46
Descending reticular projections influence the lateral spinothalamic tract are ____, and _____ _____ ____ and ___ ____ ____
PAIN: periaqueductal gray matter; modulate pain perception; and visceral response to pain
47
A feature of pain in the Lateral spinal tract is ___.
phantom limb pain (receives signals from scar tissue; hypersensitive neuroma)
48
What is referred pain?
when someone is having a heart attack, feel it in their left arm; the visceral organs don't have a good sensory system; so senses are combined with sense neurons coming from the left arm
49
3 neuron system in the lateral spinothalamic tract is the same as the DCML system, except; in the ___ order, where the ___ cross the midline in the ____.
2nd; axons, spinal cord
50
2nd order axons in the lateral spinothalamic tract and ascend ____.
in the contralateral spinothalamic tract
51
In both the lateral spinothalamic tract and the DCML it is the ______ ____ axons which cross over.
2nd order
52
A ___ involves bilateral loss of all sensory & motor below the lesion.
complete transection of the spinal cord
53
A ____ involves damage to 1 side of the spinal cord (R or L); including ipsilateral paralysis, ipsilateral loss of touch sensation, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature.
spinal hemisection
54
What is another name for spinal hemisection?
Brown-Sequard syndrome
55
A ___ is a signal received in a sensory nerve which synapses in the DRG of spinal cord and sends a excitatory signal to an agonist and an inhibitory signal to an antagonist.
reflex arc
56
A ___ sends a inhibitory signal to the antogonist in the reflex arc.
interneuron
57
Each pair of spinal nerves innervates a specific ___
body region
58
A ___ is a sensory region which is innervated by a spinal nerve.
dermatome
59
A ___ is a motor region which is innervated by a spinal nerve.
myotome
60
Visual perception involves the refraction of light through ___ and ___.
lens and cornea
61
Photoreceptors receive light in the ____
retina
62
Axon tracts in the visual system travel to ___then ____.
thalamus; occipital lobe
63
The retina is composed of three layers of cells, they are ___, ___, and ___.
photoreceptors (most post); bipolar cells (middle); ganglion cells (most anterior)
64
The ____ axons form the optic nerve.
ganglion cell's
65
The ganglion cells' axons form the ____.
optic nerve
66
The ___ is the portion where the optic nerve leaves the eye (no photoreceptors).
blind spot
67
The lateral spinothalamic tract is involved in ___ & ___ perception.
pain & temperature
68
The first order neurons of the lateral spinothalamic tract synapses in ___.
dorsal horn of the spinal cord
69
The second order neurons of the lateral spinothalamic tract synapses in ___
VPL of the thalamus
70
The third order neurons of the lateral spinothalamic tract synapses in ___.
primary sensory area of the parietal lobe
71
The anterior spinothalamic tract is involved in ____ perception.
diffuse touch
72
The visual pathway crosses over at the ___.
optic chiasm
73
the visual pathway area from the retina to the optic chaism is called the ___
optic nerve
74
From the cross over to the thalamus in the visual pathway is called the __.
optic tract
75
The part othe visual pathway from the thalamus to occipital lobe is called the ___.
optic radiation or geniculocalcarine fibers
76
Another name for the optic radiation is ___
geniculocalcarine fibers
77
Where do the neurons of the anterior spinothalamic tract synapse?
same as lateral spinothalamic tract; 1 dorsal horn; 2 thalamus VPL; 3 prim sens area of parietal
78
The ___ is the reverse of the visual field.
retinal field
79
The ___ contains both Right and Left portions in each eye.
visual field
80
What is the reversal of the retinal field from the visual field?
Left becomes Right; top becomes bottom
81
The halves of the eye are called ___ and ___.
temporal and nasal
82
The visual pathways are ___ representation in the occipital lobe.
point-to-point
83
What do the spinocerebellar tracts control?
unconscious proprioception (modify/monitors ongoing movements thru cerebellum)
84
Where are the synapses in the spinocerebellar tracts?
1 synapse in dorsal horn
2 synapse in the ipsalateral cerebellum
(some will crossover in the spinal cord and cross back in the medulla)
85
Information from left eye has ___.
bilateral projections
86
The R/L halves of the ___ converges at the optic chiasm.
optic nerve (CN II)
87
The ___ retinal field fibers cross over.
nasal
88
The ___ retinal field fibers remain ipsilateral.
temporal
89
The information from the left visual field ends synapse in the ___ lateral geniculate body and the ___ occipital lobe.
right; right
90
The visual pathway from the retina is optic ___, optic ___, and optic ____.
nerve, tract (fibers), radiation (or geniculocalcarine fibers)
91
____ occurs because you see things from two separate eyes, but it ends up in the same hemisphere of the occipital lobe.
binocular vision
92
The RVF has a ____ to the LH.
partial crossover (Right visual field; left hemisphere)
93
The image from the retina will be ___ when it reaches the occipital lobe.
inverted
94
What are 3 basic visual field deficits resulting from lesions?
monocular blindness; bi-temporal heteronymous hemianopia; nasal hemianopia
95
___ is damage at the chiasm; (The chiasm is cut) loss of peripheral visual fields. Tunnel vision.
bi-temporal, heteronymous hemianopia
96
___ is loss of vision in one eye, unilaterally resulting from a cut in the lateral edge of the optic chiasm.
nasal hemianopia or hemianopsia
97
___ is lesion to the optic nerve (CNII) cut between retina and the chiasm.
monocular blindness.
98
One cause of tunnel vision is a tumor of the ___.
pituitary gland
99
Nasal hemianopia affects fibrers from the ___ temporal retinal. or ___ nasal visual field.
ipsilateral
100
The most common type of visual field cut is a ____; which is loss of the same visual half (R/L) in each eye.
homonymous hemianopia
101
Homonymous hemianopia results from ___
interruption of optic tract, LGB, or geniculocalcarine fibers; contralateral to the eye affected.
102
____ is the most common kind of visual loss in stroke victims.
homonymous hemianopia
103
___ is vision loss in the superior or inferior quandrant to the lesion.
homonymous R/L qunadrantanopsia
104
Homonymous R/L quandrantanopsia results from a ___
interruption of a portion of the geniculocalcarine fibers
105
A Primary visual cortex lesion is like a homonymous hemianopia, but ____
w/ spared central vision
106
Primary visual cortex lesion is a _____
lesion to visual cortex unilaterally, resulting to blindnees in the opposite field of vision in each eye.
107
___ is bilateral damage to primary visual processing ares resulting in visual system sends info back, but you do not have awareness of it, responds to visual things which they say they cannot see. Must have lesions in the same spot of each hemisphere.
cortical blindness
108
A Primary visual cortex lesion is like a homonymous hemianopia, but ____
w/ spared central vision
109
Primary visual cortex lesion is a _____
lesion to visual cortex unilaterally, resulting to blindnees in the opposite field of vision in each eye.
110
___ is bilateral damage to primary visual processing ares resulting in visual system sends info back, but you do not have awareness of it, responds to visual things which they say they cannot see.
cortical blindness
111
The primary visual area is Brodmann's area ___.
17
112
The visual cortex has association areas (___ &___) which connect to ___, ___, & ___
(18 & 19); temporal, parietal, and pulvinar
113
The association areas connect to the angular gyrus and supramarginal gyrus which is important for __, ___, and ___
recognizing objects, forms, faces; linking visual objects to meaning; reading & writing
114
What is the "What" pathway for visual processing?
ventral, to inferior temporal lobe
115
What does damage to the "what" pathway cause?
agnosias (inability to recog objs, words (alexia), faces
116
Where is the "where" pathway?
dorsal; to parietal lobe
117
What does damage to the "where" pathway cause?
inability to localize items; can recog/describe item; cannot ID location (point to it) visual disorientation; topographic abilities inhibited
118
What are 3 visual association cortex lesions related agnosias?
```
1 apperceptive agnosia (difficulty recog an obj due to perceptual deficit)
2 associative agnosia (difficulty recognizing or attaching meaning to an item with preserved perception) - visual agnosia
3 prosopagnosia (inability to recog faces - not a memory problem)
```
119
What is damage to lingual gyrus/fusiform gyrus (inferior temporal lobe) cause in vision?
achromatopsia: used to be able to tell color now cannot
120
What does damage to parieto-temporo-occipital lobes bilaterally cause in vision?
akinetopsia: problem detecting movement; it's like viewing the world in a strobe light, they see bits of the world, and don't see movement
121
What does damage to posterior corpus callosum and occipital cortex cause?
alexia (recognizing words/reading) w/o agraphia (writing): ask them to write a sentence, no problem. ask them to read what they wrote, cannot.
122
The auditory system begins with ___ waves, which create vibration.
sound waves
123
The sound waves are changed into ___ waves by the tympanic membrane.
pressure waves
124
The mechanical energy of the ossicles is converted into ___ energy in the cochlea (and OHC).
hydraulic energy
125
The cochlea captures the hydraulic energy and transforms it into ___ (impulses ...).
nerve impulses
126
The outside of the cochlea is the ___. The inside is the ___.
bony labyrinth; membranous labyrinth
127
The scala ___ is the most superior.
vestibuli
128
The scala vestibuli is divided from the scala media by ___.
Reissner's membrane
129
The scala media is divided from the scala tympani by ___.
Basilar membrane
130
The ___ rests on top of the basilar membrane.
organ of corti; tectorial membrane
131
The ___ is a snail shaped structure, which is coiled around the ___.
cochlea; modiolus
132
There is/are ___ row(s) of IHC.
1
133
There is/are ___ row(s) of OHC.
3
134
The scala vestibuli/tympani is filled with ____. This has a high ___ concentration.
perilymph; Na, similar to CSF
135
The scala media is filled with ____. This has a high ___ concentration.
endolymph; K, similar to extracellular fluid
136
The hair cells have little piece which stick out of their top, called ___.
stereocilia
137
___ are the primary auditory receptors.
hair cells
138
The faster the action potentials from IHC, the more displacement, and the ___ the sound.
louder
139
____ is the highest/biggest stereocilia on a hair cell.
kinocilium
140
As the cilia bend, there is an increased permeability to ___.
K+ ions
141
As K+ moves into hair cells, it opens ___, which ___.
Ca++ channels; triggers the release of neurotransmitters
142
___ is the transmitter released from hair cells, which is a excitatory ntx.
Glutamate
143
Action potentials from the cochlea create the CN ____.
VIII
144
Action potentials from the cochlea synapse first in the ____, then next in the ___, then ___, then ___, and finally ____ .
cochlear nuclei; superior olivary complex; inferior colliculus; medial geniculate body; Heschel's gyrus
145
Axons from the cochlea enter the brainstem at the ____
ponto-medullary junction
146
about ____ of signals cross over at the cochlear nucleus/superior olivary nucleus.
80%
147
The auditory pathway is a ____ neuron system.
5
148
Some of the crossover in the central auditory pathway occurs in the ____.
trapezoid body
149
__ is the first stop in the auditory pathway that receives signal from both ears. This is good for comparisons of ___ and ___ for localization.
superior olivary nucleus; timing; intensity
150
____ is part of the central auditory pathway and has some synapses in the pons. This is a tract of axons.
Lateral lemniscus
151
___ is part of the central auditory pathway and has some commisural fibers btw R/L halves and plays a role in startle reflexes.
Inferior colliculus
152
The cell bodies of the neurons of CNVIII are found in the ___. These neurons receive input from inner hair cells.
spiral ganglia
153
The higher the frequency the more ___ it is represented in Heschel's gyrus.
posterior
154
____ is where meaning attached to sound.
Secondary auditory area (association area)
155
The secondary auditory area is found in Brodmann Area ___.
42
156
____ is an area that is larger in the LH than RH, and is deep in the sylvian fissure, and has something to do with language processing.
Planum temporale
157
___ is where language is comprehended and interpreted.
Wernicke's area
158
Wernicke's area is found in Brodmann Area ___.
22
159
What do auditory reflexes do?
coordinate head and eye mvt to sound
160
What do descending auditory projections do? 3
1 refine pitch perception
2 lateral inhibition (sharpen reception of spec freq)
3 suppress response to competing bg noise
161
What are the two main categories of auditory pathologies?
conductive and sensorineural HL
162
What are potential causes of SNHL? 5
```
1 noise exposure
2 Meniere's disease
3 Presbycusis
4 Acoustic neuroma
5 Vestibular schwannoma
```
163
____ is a tumor on CN VIII.
acoustic neuroma or vestibular schwannoma
164
What are cortical impairments to the LEFT hemisphere?
unilateral temporal lobe lesions will affect speech only without affecting non-speech sounds
165
If you have ___ you do not recognize sp sounds as sp sounds. This occurs with bilateral temporal lesions.
pure word deafness or Auditory Verbal Agnosia
166
A unilateral RIGHT temporal lobe lesions may have ____.
aprosodia (problem w/ understanding prosody, especially emotional prosody)
167
____ aphasia is marked by sounding like they are talking normally (but with poor semantics).
Fluent
168
_____ is marked by difficulty understanding commands and picking correct words. Syntax and prosody is primarily unaffected.
Wernicke's aphasia
169
In the inner ear next to the cochlea are the ___, which are the main part of the vestibular system.
semicircular ducts/canals
170
Next to the semicircular canals, are two ___, called the ___ and the ___
vestibules: utricle; saccule
171
The vestibular system connects the vestibular nucleus to the brain via the ___ 3
1 medial longitudinal fasciculus
2 brainstem reticular formation
3 reticular activating system
172
At the base of each semicircular canals is a ___ with a ___.
ampulla crista; cupula
173
Inside the utricle and saccule are ___.
otoliths
174
The ampulla crista, utricle and saccule are ___
sensory organs of the vestibular system
175
____ are weights that rest on top of the otolithic membranes. They cause extra shifting.
otoconia
176
When the vestibular hair cells in the utricle or saccule bend towards kinocilium, causing an ____ signal.
excitatory; signal speeds up
177
When the vestibular hair cells in the utricle or saccule bend away from the kinocilium, causing an _____ signal.
inhibitory; signal slows down
178
Vestibular nerve fibers course through the _____, join with ____ and enter ___.
internal auditory meatus; auditory nerve fibers; brainstem
179
What are the projections of the vestibular system? 3
medial longitudinal fasciculus (CN III, IV, and VI); cerebellum (flocculonodular lobe and vermis), and spinal cord
180
What do the projections of the vestibular system accomplish?
integrated connections for balance/equilibrium
181
What system combine with the vestibular system for balance/equilibrium? 3
cerebellovestibular (feedback system)
spinocerebellar (sensory info to the cerebellum)
vestibulospinal (descending projections to the spinal cord)
182
____ helps control visceral-autonomic activities with the vestibular nuclei. Motion sickness
Reticular activating system/reticular formation
183
What ascending connections from the vestibular nuclei? 2
```
1 thalmus
2 cortex (unknown exactly: motor system, parietal lobe, temporal lobe, frontal eye fields in the middle frontal gyrus (volitional eye mvts))
```
184
As you rise in the motor system the ___ increases.
level of control
185
____ can only respond in a reflexive manner of motor control.
The spinal cord
186
____ can respond for vegetative functions of motor control.
Brainstem
187
____ can control coordination of motor control.
Cerebellum
188
____ can regulate body functions (inhibition and facilitation of movement).
Basal ganglia
189
_____ are the basal ganglia not control movement.
Tremors
190
___ can initiate and regulation of movement (inhibit and facilitate motor control)
motor cortex
191
The primary motor strip (precentral gyrus/motor homunculus) is Brodmann's area ___.
4
192
The pre-motor strip is Brodmann's area ___.
6
193
The supplementary motor strip is Brodmann's area ___.
8
194
____ controls the intention to move.
Supplementary motor area.
195
```
What are 4 inputs to the motor cortex?
1 intention, motivation, goals
2 current muscle status/position
3 complex spatial aspects
4 excitatory loop; integration w/ basal ganglia
```
1 prefrontal
2 primary sensory
3 sensory association
4 thalamocortical
196
___ are direct connections btw brain and muscles.
pyramidal tracts
197
___ are the pyramidal shaped cells in the motor strip.
Betz cells
198
_____ are connections/networks in brainstem and cerebellum.
Extrapyramidal tracts
199
The pyramidal tracts are divided into __ and __.
upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron
200
_____ have cell bodies in the motor cortex, axons project to the brain stem/spinal cord and are part of the CNS.
upper motor neurons (UMN)
201
Upper motor neurons start where and end where?
motor cortex; brain stem (All in CNS)
202
____ have cell bodies in the brain stem or spinal cord (CNS) and axons project to muscles (PNS).
lower motor neurons (LMN)
203
___ are called the "final common pathway".
lower motor neurons
204
Lower motors neurons start where and end where?
brain stem or spinal cord; muscles
205
____ % of pyramidal tracts are corticobulbar and ___ % of them are corticospinal tracts.
70; 30
206
____ begin in the cortex and end in the brain stem.
Corticobulbar tracts
207
___ begin in the cortex and end in the spinal cord.
Corticospinal tracts
208
LMNs of the corticospinal tracts are ___.
spinal nerves
209
LMNs of the corticobulbar tracts are ____.
cranial nerves
210
___ is composed of corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts. Most fibers crossover in the UMN.
Pyramidal tracts
211
The first region of the motor tract (UMN) is called the ___ which is a broad fanning of fibers from the cortex. This is white matter.
corona radiata
212
___ is where the UMN tracts converge in the white matter and pass between structures of the basal ganglia.
Internal capsule
213
When the axons reach the brainstem in the corticobulbar tract (UMN), what happens?
they cross over in small groups and synapse onto LMN in the brainstem
214
When the axons reach the brainstem in the corticospinal tract (UMN), what happens?
cross over en mass in medulla (pyramidal decussation), travel down the spinal cord (form LMN)
215
In both corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts there is ____, but in CBit happens gradually, but in CS they do it en mass.
crossover/decussation
216
Damage to LMN results in ___ pathology.
ipsilateral
217
Damage to a right cranial nerve will result in weakness on the ___ side.
right
218
What is the cranial nerve mneumonic?
On old Olympus' towering top a Finn and German Viewed Some Hops
219
What are the 12 cranial nerves?
```
Olfactory
Optic
Occulomotor
Trochlear
Trigeminal
Abducens
Facial
Auditory/Vestibular
Glossopharyngeal
Vagus
Spinal accessory
Hypoglossal
```
220
What is the mneumonic for cranial nerve function? What do the letters stand for?
Some, Saps, May Marry, But, Brother, Believes, Bad, Business, Marriage, Makes
S: Sensory
M: Motor (LMN)
B: Both Sensory and Motor
221
____ has it's UMN cell bodies in motor strip and they cross over to respective cranial nerve nucleus and synapse on LMN cell bodies on the brain stem (these are cranial nerves).
Corticobulbar tract
222
The top bone of the skull is the ___.
ethmoid
223
The ethmoid is the location where CN ___ enters. This is called ___
I; olfactory
224
Olfactory nerve is CN ___ and its function is ___.
I; sensory only
225
Sensory cells in ____ in the roof of the nasal cavity.
epithelium
226
The receptor neurons of the olfactory nerve are replaced every ___.
30-60 days (only mammalian olfactory nerves are like this)
227
The termination/synapse of cells in CN I is in ___. (They integrate with the opposite side via ____).
olfactory bulb; anterior commissure
228
Sensory cells in the nose are found in epithelium in roof of nasal cavity and travel through what bone?
cribiform plate of ethmoid bone
229
What does the olfactory bulb have projections to? 5
1 anterior commissure (cross over)
2 subcallosal area (limbic system)
3 medial temporal lobe (amygdala, hippocampus)
4 connections to orbitofrontal cortex, insula (discrimination of odor)
5 connections to hypothalamus (feeding beh)
230
What are pathologies related to olfactory? 2
anosmia (loss of sense of smell; could be TBI)
| reduced acuity in smell with aging (reported often as a reduction of taste)
231
CN II is the ____. It carries ___.
optic nerve, sensory info only
232
The optic nerve has fibers from the retina to the ___. After it reaches that, it is called ____ until ___, after which it is called ___.
optic chiasm; optic tract; thalamus (LGB); optic radiation
233
CN III is the ____. It carries ____.
oculomotor nerve; motor only
234
Oculomotor nerve innervates ___ of the ___ muscles for the eye movement.
4/6
235
What are the 4 muscles that the oculomotor nerve innervates?
1 medial rectus
2 superior rectus
3 inferior rectus
4 inferior oblique
236
The oculomotor nerve moves the eye and aids in ___. It also integrates with ____ system and ____ movements.
eyelid elevation; vestibular system; neck movements
237
The ____ nucleus is involved in the parasympathetic system where it plays a role in the constrictor muscles of iris (plays a role in the pupillary light reflex).
Edinger-Westphal
238
Damage to the CN III can result in ____, (deviation of ipsilateral eye to lateral position; double vision); ____ (drooping eyelid); and/or ___ (permanent dilation of the pupil).
lateral strabismus; diplopia; ptosis; mydriasis
239
CN IV is the ___ and it's function is ___.
trochlear, motor only
240
Trochlear innervates __ of ___ eye muscles (____ muscle); exists midbrain on the ___ surface. It integrates with ___ system and ___ movements.
1/6 (superior oblique); dorsal surface; vestibular system; neck movement
241
The trochlear nerve controls ___ (eye muscle). Damage to it will result in difficulty looking ____, and ____ when 1 eye moves in that direction.
superior oblique; down/outward; diplopia
242
CN VI is the ___ and its function is ___.
abducens; motor only
243
Abducens innervates __ of the ___ eye muscles (___ muscle); integrates with the ___ system and __ movement. It exits from the ___.
1/6 (lateral rectus); vestibular system; neck movements; midbrain
244
____ is weakness/drooping of the eyelid.
Ptosis
245
___is permanent dilation of pupil.
Mydriasis
246
CN V is the ___ and its function is ___.
trigeminal; both motor and sensory
247
The Trigimenal nerve is CN ___, its function is in ___ muscles, and the _____ muscle (in the ____).
V; mastication, tensor veli palatini (in the soft palate, opens eustachian tube)
248
Trigimenal is CN ___ and it carries basic sensory from ___, ___, ___, ____.
V; face, death, dura mater, muscous membranes of mouth and nose
249
The muscles of mastication that are innervated by the trigeminal are 6
```
1 masseter
2 pterygoids
3 temporalis
4 digastric
5 tensor veli palatini
6 tensor tympani
```
250
What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve? Which one(s) have motor and sensory?
1 ophthalmic
2 maxillary
3 mandibular (motor and sensory)
251
What is carried in the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve? 3 examples
sense info from forehead, anterior scalp, eyball, upper eyelid, cornea, lateral nose, sinuses, tentorium cerebelli
252
What is carried in the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve? 3 examples
temples, post nose, upper cheeks/lips, upper gums/teeth, palates, medial dura mater
253
What is carried in the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve? 3 examples
side of scalp, lower lips/gums, mouth, anterior/middle meninges, external auditory meatus, anterior 2/3 tongue (touch/pain/temp)
254
____ is excruciating chronic pain affecting upper and lower face (caused by little or no stimuli).
Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)
255
____ is unilateral LMN damage with slight deviation of the jaw and minimal weakness. Little impact on function.
Flaccid paresis
256
___ is bilateral UMN damage which results in paralysis of masticator muscles and the mandible hangs open. Rare
Masticator palsy
257
CN VII is the ___. Its function is ___.
facial; both motor and sensory
258
Facial nerve is CN ___, its functions are ____ and ____.
VII; muscles of facial expression; taste anterior 2/3rds of tongue
259
What are the 4 different branches of the Facial nerve? Which have dual function?
```
1 Branchial motor
2 visceral motor
3 special sensory (tongue)
4 general sensory
(none)
```
260
The corticobulbar tracts for the lower half of the face have _____ innervation.
contralateral
261
The corticobulbar tracts for the upper half of the face (forehead) have _____ innervation.
bilateral
262
If a pt has unilateral cortical/UMN damage will have ___ facial drooping. This is on ____ (upper, lower, both) face.
contralateral, lower
263
If a pt has unilateral nerve/LMN damage will have ___ facial drooping. This is on ____ (upper, lower, both) face.
ipsilateral; both (entire face)
264
___ will have facial paralysis on one side.
Bell's palsy
265
CN VIII is the ____ and its function is ___.
auditory-vestibular; both motor and sensory
266
Auditory-vestibular is CN ___ it's function is __ and ___.
VIII, hearing and balance
267
CN IX is the ___ and its function is ___.
glossopharyngeal; both motor and sensory
268
Glossopharyngeal is CN ___ and functions to innervate ___ muscle(s), and sensory info from ___, ___, ___, & ___ (also ___ here).
IX; stylopharyngeus; mucosa of harynx, tonsils, Eustacian tube, tongue (also taste from post 1/3 here)
269
____ stimulates the salivary glands.
Glossopharyngeal nerve
270
CN X is the ___ and its function is ___.
vagus; both motor and sensory
271
Vagus nerve is CN ___ and its function to innervate ___ and __ muscles; and provide sense info from ____, ___, ___, ____, and ___.
X; laryngeal; pharyngeal; muscles of pharynx, epiglottis; trachea/bronchi; esophagus/stomach; taste from pharynx
272
What are the 3 branches of the Vagus nerve?
1 pharyngeal branch (motor only)
2 Superior larygneal branch (both sense and motor)
3 Recurrent laryngeal branch (both sense and motor)
273
What is innervated by the pharyngeal branch? What does damage to this cause?
velum; pharynx;
| hypernasality; dysphagia (nasal regurgitation)
274
What are the sub-branches of the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus? What is innervated by the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus?
```
internal laryngeal (sense only)- epiglottis, larynx above folds
external laryngeal nerve (motor only) cricothyroid
```
275
What does damage to the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus caused?
reduced pitch control; risk of aspiration due to reduced sensation
276
What is innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve? What does damage to it cause?
intrinsic laryngeal muscles (motor); vocal folds and below (sense); vocal fold paralysis (breathy/hoarse voice, diplophonia-due to atrophy)(risk of aspiration)
277
CN XI is the ___ and its function is ____
Spinal Accessory; motor only.
278
Spinal Accessory is CN ___ and it functions to innervate ___, ___, and ___ muscles. And randomly, innervate ___ and ___.
XI; velum; uvula; intrinsic laryngeal muscles; Trapezius and sternocleidomastoid
279
CN XII is the ___ and its function is ___.
Hypoglossal; motor only
280
Hypoglossal nerve is CN ___ and it innervates ____ and __.
XII; all intrinsic and most extrinsic tongue muscles
281
What does damage to CN XII cause?
weakness of tongue muscles
282
Is CN XII ipsilateral, contralateral or both?
contralateral only
283
The ____ represents only 10% of the corticospinal tract which remains ipsilateral down the spinal cord. It crosses over prior to synapsing.
Anterior Corticospinal Tract
284
The ____ represent 90% of the corticospinal tract which decussates at the pyramidal decussation; travels down contralateral spinal cord.
Lateral Corticospinal Tract
