OS T#1: S3

Question 1

How do you implement Engineering Control Techniques?

Answer 1

By designing or modifying the workstation, work methods/tools to eliminate/ reduce exposure to excessive

Question 2

When the subtalar joint goes into pronation what happens to the rest of the LE?

Answer 2

The LE goes into medial rotation.

Question 3

When the subtalar joint goes into supination what happens to the rest of the LE?

Answer 3

The LE goes into lateral rotation.

Question 4

What effect does flexion have on the spine?

Answer 4

Increases the vertebral foramen spaces and the intervertebral foramen space as well as increases the pressure on the intervertebral discs

Question 5

What effect does extension have on the spine?

Answer 5

Decreases the vertebral foramen spaces as well as the intervertebral foramen space, decreases pressure on the intervertebral discs

Question 6

Which spinal position should be avoided with spinal stenosis?

Answer 6

Extention

Question 7

What is a Meta-analysis?

Answer 7

This is a pooling of data of RCTs to yield a larger sample

Question 8

What is Liposclerosis?

Answer 8

Thickening of the tissue

Question 9

What are the signs of a venous stasis ulcer?

Answer 9

Location:superior to medial malleolus, hemosiderosis, liposclerosis

Question 10

When looking at a venous stasis ulcer what is the first thing you should do?

Answer 10

Find the ABI

Question 11

If the ABI shows decreased arterial perfusion what is contraindicated?

Answer 11

Compression therapies (ABI between 0.5-0.8)

Question 12

What is the difference between the lurch/ gluteus medius gait and the trendelenburgh gait?

Answer 12

During lurch gait patient shifts weight over the involved hit and pain may be associated, in trendelenburgh gait pt allows contralateral hip to drop and does not shift trunk.

Question 13

What are the signs and symptoms of Slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

Answer 13

Vague hip pain, decreased hip flex, abd, and internal rot, with a lurch gait

Question 14

What is the etiology of Bell’s palsy?

Answer 14

LMNL involving the Facial nerve (CN VII), acute inflammatory process results in inflammation cutting off this nerve

Question 15

What are the sings and symptoms of Bell’s Palsy?

Answer 15

Weakness of the muscles of facial expression as well as loss of control of salivation and lacrimation. Inability to close one eye. Pt has normal sensation.

Question 16

What is Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita?

Answer 16

A congenital deformity of the skeleton and soft tissues characterized by limitations in a joint motion and a sausage like appearance of the limbs

Question 17

What is contraindicated with osteogenesis imperfecta?

Answer 17

PROM and traction secondary to increased risk of fractures

Question 18

Therapy goals for Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

Answer 18

Joint protection
Maintain/improve joint mechanics
Aerobic activities (ex: swimming)

Question 19

What are the TUG norms?

Answer 19

Less than or equal to 10 seconds is normal for adults, 11-20 seconds is normal for frail elderly, scores above 30 are indicative of impaired functional mobility and high risk of falls.

Question 20

How do venous insufficiency ulcers present?

Answer 20

minimal pain, pain decreased with leg elevation, hemosiderin staining, liposclereosis, thin shiny and cyanotic skin.

Question 21

Define Cheyne-Strokes respiration?

Answer 21

Progressively deeper and faster breaths which decrease into a period of apnea then cycle restarts.

Question 22

When is the anterior aspect of the glenohumeral joint capsule stressed the most?

Answer 22

during the cocking phase (max ER Ext and abd

Question 23

What is the recommended time for suctioning to be performed?

Answer 23

10-15 seconds

Question 24

When to use transparent films?

Answer 24

Stage 1 or 2 ulcers
Autolytic debridement
Skin donor sites
As a cover for hydrophilic powders and hydrogels

Question 25

Advantages of Transparent Films?

Answer 25

``` You can see the wound Doesn't let fluids / bacteria in Comfortable Allows for autolytic debridement Minimizes friction ```

Question 26

When to use Hydrocolloids?

Answer 26

Protection of partial thickness wounds Autolytic debridement of necrosis or slough Wounds with mild exudate

Question 27

What are Hydrocolloids?

Answer 27

Adhesive wafers that form a gel like mass over the wound

Question 28

Advantages of Hydrocolloids?

Answer 28

Non adhesive to healing tissues Supports autolytic debridement Maintains a moist environment Min- mod absorption

Question 29

What are Hydrogels?

Answer 29

Water or glycerine based gels

Question 30

When to use Hydrogels

Answer 30

Partial or full thickness wounds Wounds with necrosis/ slough Burns and wounds damaged by radiation

Question 31

Advantages of Hydrogels?

Answer 31

``` Soothing and cooling Rehydrate wound beds Promote autolytic debridement Conform to wound bed Amorphous form can be used with an infection present ```

Question 32

What are Foam Dressings?

Answer 32

Soft absorbent non woven dressing made from seaweed. Reacts with wound exudate to form a hydrophilic gel (comes in ropes and pads)

Question 33

What are advantages of Foam dressings?

Answer 33

Insulate wounds Provide padding Manage minimal to heavy exudate Most are non-adherent

Question 34

When to use Foam Dressings?

Answer 34

Partial and full thickness wounds Secondary dressing for wounds with packing to add absorption To provide protection/ insulation

Question 35

What are Alginates?

Answer 35

Soft absorbent non woven dressings derived from seaweed that have fluffy cotton like apperance

Question 36

When to use Alginates?

Answer 36

Wounds with moderate to large amounts of exudate Wounds with exudate and necrosis Wounds that require packing Infected and non infected exudate wounds

Question 37

Advantages of using Alginates?

Answer 37

Absorb up to 20 times their weight in drainage Fill dead space Support debridement in the presence of exudate

Question 38

When to use wet to dry Gauze dressing?

Answer 38

Mechanical debridement of wound

Question 39

When to use continuously dry Gauze dressing?

Answer 39

Heavily exudating wounds

Question 40

When to use continuously moist Gauze dressing?

Answer 40

Protection of clean wounds Autolytic debridement Delivery of topical needs

Question 41

With Internal rotation and Extension of the knee which meniscus has tensile and which has compressive forces acting on it?

Answer 41

Medial: Tensile Lateral: Compressive

Question 42

With Internal rotation and Flexion of the knee which meniscus has tensile and which has compressive forces acting on it?

Answer 42

Medial: Compressive Lateral: Tensile

Question 43

What are the primary functions of the meniscus?

Answer 43

to relive compressive force of the knee and stabilize the joint during motion.

Question 44

How does UE ergometery compare to LE ergometery?

Answer 44

UE uses lower VO2max and stroke volume but higher HR and BP

Question 45

Post MI at what RPE level should u exercise?

Answer 45

less than 13

Question 46

What is the first intervention to be performed with a Pt who has shoulder impingement syndrome?

Answer 46

Instruct the patient in proper postural alignment

Question 47

When using biofeed back when do you put the electrodes close together?

Answer 47

When targeting a specific muscle

Question 48

When using biofeedback when do you place the electrodes far apart?

Answer 48

When trying to achieve a general motion.

Question 49

how do you test motor function of CN IX and CN X

Answer 49

Elicit agag reflex glossophyrngeal vagus