OS T#1: S1 Flashcards

1
Q

At what angle of the knee is the MCL most responsible for knee stability?

A

20-30 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At what angle do you hold the patients knee for Lachmans test?

A

between full ext and 30 degrees and slight lateral rotation on the tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a mandated reporter?

A

mandated reporters are people who have regular contact with vulnerable people and are therefore legally required to ensure a report is made when abuse is observed or suspected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define: Anesthesia

A

general or local insensibility, as to pain and other sensation, induced by certain interventions or drugs to permit the performance of surgery or other painful procedures.

insensitivity to touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define: Abarognosia

A

Loss of the ability to sense weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define: Analgesia

A

the inability to feel pain (while conscious)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define:Allodynia

A

Pain that results from a non-injurious stimulus to the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define:Causalgia

A

constant relentless burning hyperesthesia and hyperalgesia that develops after a peripheral nerve injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define:Dysesthesia

A

Disorientation of any of the senses (especially touch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define:Hyperesthesia

A

heightened sense of touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define:Hyperpathia

A

heightened sense of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define:Neuralgia

A

severe and multiple shock like pains that radiate from a specific nerve distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define:Pallanesthesia

A

loss of vibratory sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define:Paresthesia

A

abnormal sensations such as tingling, pins and needles, burning or numbness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define:Asthenia

A

Generalized weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define:Athetosis

A

A condition with involuntary movements combined with postural instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define:Fasciculation

A

A muscular twitch that is caused by random discharge of LMN, it suggests LMNL although it can be benign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define:Fibrilation

A

a muscular twitch involving muscle fibrils that is not visible suggests UMNL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the common symptoms of Lymphedema?

A

Swelling, decreased ROM, achy heaviness, a feeling of fullness, brawny, fibrous non pitting edema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What may be observed with cancer patients during ther ex

A

increased fatigue: elevated HR and BP, dyspnea, pallor, sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What hematological issues are possible with cancer treatment?

A

Leukopenia, Thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets), anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an open skill?

A

An open skill is a skill where the environment is constantly changing and so movements have to be continually adapted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a closed skill?

A

These skills take place in a stable, predictable environment and the performer knows exactly what to do and when.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is an internally paced skill?

A

This is a skill in which the performer controls the rate at which the skill is executed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is an externally paced skill?
This is a skill in which the environment, which may include opponents, controls the rate of performing the skill.
26
What is a discrete skill?
Brief, well-defined actions that have a clear beginning and end.
27
What is a serial skill?
A group of discrete skills strung together to make a new and complex movement.
28
What is a continuous skill?
A skill that has no obvious beginning or end. The end of one cycle of movements is the beginning of the next, and the skill is repeated like a cycle.
29
What foot position correlates with a rigid lever arm?
Supination
30
What position is the foot in during initial contact (heel strike)?
Supination
31
What position is the foot in during foot flat (loading response)?
Pronation
32
What position is the foot in during midstance?
Neutral
33
What position is the foot in during heel off?
Supination
34
What position is the foot in during toe off?
Supination
35
In what position should joint play be performed?
Open packed position
36
What three motions make up supination?
Inversion, Adduction, and Plantarflexion
37
What three motions make up pronation?
Eversion,Abduction and Dorsiflexion
38
Define Neurapraxia
Injury to a nerve that creases transient loss of function. (ex: conduction is blocked due to ischemia) nerve dysfunction is rapidly reversed (weeks)
39
Define Axonotmesis
Injury to to the nerve interrupting the axon and casing a loss of function and Wallerian degeneration. There is no disruption to the endoneurium and regeneration is possible.
40
Define Neurotmesis
A cutting of the nerve with severance of all structures and complete loss of function. Regeneration generally fails without surgical intervention.
41
Signs and symptoms of LMNL
``` Weakness/paresis Hypotonia,absent reflexes, or flaccidity neurogenic atrophy Sensory loss Autonomic disfunction Fasciculations ```
42
How to diagnose LMNL's
Nerve conduction velocity tests (slower or complete block) | EMG for nerve fuction check for fibrilations
43
What is evidence of reinnervation as seen on an EMG?
Low amplitude, short duration, polyphasic motor unit potentials
44
How do you propel a hemi-wheelchair?
With one arm and the ipsilateral leg.
45
What is a contraindication to a one arm drive wheelchair?
Perceptual deficits
46
What influences a persons ability to perform normal vital capacity, Forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV) and total lung capacity?
muscular strength
47
What is Functional residual capacity limited by
resting end expiratory pressure
48
what is Resting end expiratory pressure (REEP)
REEP is Resting end expiratory pressure, The equilibrium point where forces of inspiration and expiration are balanced. Occurs at the end of tidal respiration.
49
What is considered a hypomobile patella?
When performing lateral glide and patella moves less than 1 quadrant
50
What is considered a hypermobile patella?
When the patella moves more than 2 quadrants with a lateral glide
51
At what angle is the ACL least stressed?
30-60 degrees
52
Medial rotation of the knee causes which structures to become taut and which to become slack?
ACL and PCL taut and collaterals slack
53
Lateral rotation of the knee causes which structures to become taut and which to become slack?
ACL and PCL slack and collaterals taut
54
At what angle is the majority of the PCL taut?
30 degrees of flexion
55
Which 3 nerves come from the anterior portion of the brachial plexus?
Musculocutaneus, median and ulnar
56
Which two nerves come from the posterior division of the brachial plexus?
Axillary nerve and the Radial nerve
57
What is class III heart diseased marked by?
Limitation of physical activity, less than ordinary physical activity causes fatigue, palpitations, dyspnea, angina pains
58
What are the adverse reactions of Digoxin
fatigue, headache, muscle weakness, bradycardia,ventricular fibrillation, and super ventricular arrhythmias
59
Normal reactions to Digoxin are:
Confusion/ memory loss, tachycardia, and involuntary movements/ shaking.
60
What polarity is lidocaine and Xylocaine?
Positive
61
What polarity is Salicylate?
Negative
62
What polarity is Acetate
Negative
63
What polarity is Zinc
Positive
64
What polarity is Copper (for fungal infections)
positive
65
What polarity is Copper and magnesium? (muscle spasms)
positive
66
What polarity is Dexamethasone?
Negative
67
What are the side effects of long term corticosteroid use?
osteoporosis, weakened supportive joint structures, muscle wasting.
68
After how many weeks does muscle hypertrophy begin?
6-8 weeks
69
Characteristics of Venous ulcer
irregular boarders, dark pigmentation, shallow, near medial malleolus is most common.
70
Characteristics of Arterial ulcer
irregular edges, painful (especially when legs are elevated)
71
Characteristics of Diabetic ulcer
Associated with arterial disease. not painful