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PBR 2 and 3 > Page 18 > Flashcards

Page 18 Flashcards

1
Q

Most specific finding in pulmonary artery sling?

A

abnormal architecture of the central airways (low carina and inverted T shape of the central airways)

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2
Q

Most important complication of Kawasaki?

A

coronary artery aneurysms

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3
Q

Enlargement of the main and left PAs w/o increaed pulmonary vasclarity should represent what condition?

A

pulmonary valve stenosis

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3
Q

Posterior indentation on an esophagram is associated with what condition?

A

double aortic arch, retroesophageal subclavian artery, or circumflex aorta (pag anterior indentation, pulmonary artery sling)

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3
Q

Pleuropulmonary blastoma often arises from ?

A

congenital lung cyst

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4
Q

What lung is hypoplastic in TOF

A

left

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4
Q

How do you differentiate Swyer-James lung from a congenitally hypoplastic lung?

A

air trapping is present in Swyer-James (changes very little in size between inspiration and expiration)

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4
Q

Which side of pulmonary agenesis has an increased association with other congenital malformations?

A

right pulmonary agenesis

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4
Q

What is the only exception to the rule that “the lung that changes the least in volume between inspiration and expiration is the abnormal lung”?

A

mild congenital pulmonary hypoplasia

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5
Q

2 phases of BPD:

A
  1. edematous phase - hazy pattern is the mc pattern; no dysplasia in this phase, so it has been suggested to use the term leaky lung syndrome is suggested
  2. bubbly phase - overdistension of some alveoli while some remain atelectatic; CT findings: atelectasis, mosaic, air trapping
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5
Q

What does VACTERL stand for?

A

Vertebral defects, Anal atresia, Cardiac defects, Tracheo-esophageal fistula, Renal anomalies, and Limb abnormalities

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5
Q

What is usually the earliest manifestation of cystic fibrosis?

A

meconium ileus

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6
Q

In which conditions do coronary artery aneurysm occur in children?

A

periarteritis nodosa or mucocutaneous LN syndrome

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6
Q

What are the types of esophageal atresia?

A

with a fistula extending obliquely from the trachea just above the carina to the DISTAL esophageal pouch (Type 1; mc)
isolated esophageal atresia (type 2) with a tracheoesophageal fistula but without esophageal atresia (type 3) with a fistula from the PROXIMAL esophageal pouch to the trachea (type 4) with fistulae arising from both the proximal and distal pouches (type 5) - Caffey’s

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6
Q

How is gastric volvulus classified

A

organoaxial - stomach rotated along its longitudinal axis mesoaxial - rotates about a line perpendicular to the cardiopyloric line

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6
Q

Measurement of pyloric muscle in pylorospasm vs hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

<3 mm in pylorospasm and 3mm or > in HPS

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6
Q

Classic clinical triad of choledochal cyst?

A

jaundice, pain, RUQ mass

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6
Q

Where does the Meckel diverticulum arise?

A

ileum (80 cm from the ileocecal valve)

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6
Q

Modality of choice / Gold standard in the diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

US

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6
Q

High-flow vascular anomalies of the liver and other organs?

A

infantile hemangioendothelioma (hemangioma) and AVM

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6
Q

Most helpful discriminant in the diagnosis of HPS?

A

muscle thickness

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6
Q

Imaging hallmark of microgastria?

A

small midline stomach with significant reflux into a megaesophagus

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7
Q

Where is the gastrinoma triangle located?

A

right of SMA, bounded superiorly by the confluence of the cystic and common bile ducts, inferiorly by the junction of the second and third portions of the duodenum, and medially by the junction of the head and body of the pancreas

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8
Q

Single most important US sign of an inflamed appendix?

A

noncompressible, blind-ending tubular structure with a transverse diameter measuring >6 mm

8
Q

Best indicator of pancreatic injury at CT

A

unexplained peripancreatic fluid

9
Q

Most specific radiographic sign of appendicitis?

A

appendicolith

9
Q

Most frequent CT finding associated with bowel rupture and mesenteric injury

A

unexplained peritoneal fluid

9
Q

see VUR grading in GU notes

A
10
Q

More common laterality of cryptochordism

A

right

10
Q

Bladder dysfunction

A

detrussor hyperreflexia - above the level of the pons (Dunnick: above the sacral segments but below the pons ang detrussor hyperreflexia. Pag above the pons or usually cortex, uninhibited bladder/nonneurogenic neurogenic bladder/Hinmann syndrome) detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia detrusor areflexia - sacral spinal cord or peripheral nerves

10
Q

Syndromes associated with multiple bladder diverticula

A

Ehlers-Danlos, Williams’, Menkes’, and prune belly

10
Q

PUV types

A

Type I - sail-like flaps of tissue arising at the base of the prostatic urethra below the verumontanum (Dunnick: MC type)
Type II - “valve”; actually non-obstructive mucosal folds (Dunnick: proximal leaflets, probably acquired)
Type III - membrane caused by incomplete canalization in the region of the urogenital diaphragm (Dunnick: iris diaphragm across distal prostatic urethra)

10
Q

2 syndromes in which megacystis is a prominent feature

A

prune belly and megacystic-microcolon-hypoperistalsis syndrome

10
Q

Nonshadowing cerebral and hepatic calcifications are the most typical US findings?

A

congenital toxoplasmosis

10
Q

In what malignant renal tumor is bone mets common?

A

clear-cell sarcoma

10
Q

Mildest form of holoprosencephaly??

A

septo-optic dysplasia

10
Q

What malignant renal tumor is associates with brain mets and second intracranial primaries?

A

rhabdoid tumor

11
Q

On which side is neuroblastoma more frequent?

A

right

11
Q

3 main types of tracheal agenesis

A

Type 1 - absent upper trachea and connection of the lower trachea to the esophagus
Type 2 (mc) - common bronchus connecting the bilateral main bronchi to the esophagus
Type 3 - independent bilateral main bronchi arising from the esophagus

11
Q

3 main types of pulmonary underdevelopment

A
  1. lung agenesis - absence of bronchus, PA, and lung 2. lung aplasia - (+) rudimentary bronchus; lack PA and lung 3. lung hypoplasia - hypoplastic bronchial tree and PA with variable amount of lung
11
Q

3 categories of pulmonary TB?

A

primary, miliary, reactive/postprimary

11
Q

Proximal interruption of the PA is seen more commonly on which side?

A

right (interrupted prox PA is characteristically located on the contralateral side of the aortic arch)

11
Q

Lung agenesis is more common on which side?

A

left

11
Q

Most sensitive & reliable sign in the diff. of hydrocephalus from atrophy?

A

temporal horns have enlarged commensurately with the bodies of the lateral ventricles

11
Q

Most reliable sign of hydrocephalus?

A

enlargement of the anterior and posterior recesses of the 3rd ventricle

11
Q

Most leukodystrophies involve the central WM in a symmetric fashion. What disease is the exception?

A

Canavan disease

11
Q

Best known variant in the foot?

A

accessory navicular

11
Q

Overall shortening of the extremities?

A

micromelia

11
Q

Relative shortening of the radii, ulnae, tibiae, and fibulae?

A

mesomelia

11
Q

Relative shortening of the femurs and humeri?

A

rhizomelia

11
Q

Relative shortening of the bones of hands and feet?

A

acromelia

12
Q

What conditions that cause skeletal dysplasias present with abnormally dense bones?

A

pyknodysostosis and osteopetrosis

12
Q

What conditions that cause skeletal dysplasias present with osteopenia?

A

rickets, hypophosphatasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta

12
Q

Initial radiographic finding in rickets

A

loss of mineralization of the zone of provisional calcification

12
Q

Most vulneralble site for early radiographic changes in JIA?

A

wrist

12
Q

Squaring of the femoral condyles, multiple erosions, widened intercondylar notch, and squaring of the patella?

A

hemarthrosis

13
Q

Cardinal feature of OI?

A

increased bone fragility

14
Q

Brant: Hallmark of OI?

A

osteoporosis

15
Q

Of the different types of vascular rings, which produce the most severe symptoms?

A

double aortic arch

PBR 2 and 3 (41 decks)

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