Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PBR 2 and 3 > Page 6 > Flashcards

Page 6 Flashcards

1
Q

MC cause of osteomalacia

A

renal osteodystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MC disease in which osteosclerosis is seen

A

Renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MC presentation of renal osteodystrophy

A

Osteopenia (10-20% lang ang osteosclerosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Only finding that is pathognomonic for osteomalacia

A

Looser fracture

  • wide, transverse lucencies with sclerotic borders traversing partway through a bone, usually perpendicular to the involved cortex.
  • associated most frequently withosteomalaciaandrickets.
  • Osteomalacia is the strongly favoured diagnosis when: bilaterally symmetric and in a classic location: such as the axillary border of the scapula, rib, or posterior ulna, superior and inferior pubic ramus, and medial side of the femoral neck.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MCC of hyperparathyroidism

A

renal disease / chronic renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MCC of hyperparathyroidism

A

single parathyroid adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pathognomonic for hyperparathyroidism / sine qua non of renal osteodystrophy

A

Subperiosteal bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is subperiosteal bone resorption seen most commonly, most reliably, and earliest?

A

radial aspect of the middle phalanges of the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pathognomonic for pyknodysostosis

A

acro-osteolysis with sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where does Paget disease most commonly occur?

A

pelvis (remember iliopectineal line thickening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Characteristic for fluorosis

A

calcified sacrotuberous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MCC of dwarfism

A

achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MC skeletal dysplasia

A

achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MC location of painful bone marrow syndrome in the knee

A

medial condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MC type of meniscal tear

A

oblique tear extending to the inferior surface of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MC location of meniscocapsular separation

A

site of the MCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most frequently encountered bony abnormality with MRI

A

contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where do most cuff tears begin?

A

anterior most fibers of the supraspinatus (immediately lateral to the bicipital groove)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most commonly seen cuff tear on MRI

A

rim rent (articular side, anteriorly at the insertion of the fibers onto the greater tuberosity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MCC of quadrilateral space syndrome

A

fibrous bands or scar tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Except for the Achilles, the most medial and the largest of the flexor tendons

A

posterior tibial tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MC torn ankle ligament

A

anterior talofibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MC locations of tarsal coalition

A

calcaneonavicular joint and middle facet of the talocalcaneal joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MC soft tissue mass in the hand, wrist, and elbow

A

ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MC MR finding in tendon degeneration

A

focal or diffuse tendon hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MC minor congenital variation in the spine

A

facet tropism; next MC is transitional lumbosacral junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MC intramedullary neoplasms

A

gliomas, principally astrocytomas and ependymomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MC intramedullary tumor in adults

A

ependymomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MC pediatric spinal cord mass

A

astrocytoma (2nd MC: ependymoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most commonly affected location in skeletal TB

A

1st lumbar vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MC benign radiation-induced tumors

A

osteochondromas (exostoses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Area of the bone that is most sensitive to radiation

A

epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MC breast ca appearing as spiculated

A

infiltrating ductal ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Breast abscesses are most commonly seen in a?

A

subareolar location in lactating women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MC well-circumscribed masses seen in women 35-50 yo / MC breast mass

A

cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MC well-defined solid masses seen on mammography / MC solid benign tumor in young women/women younger than 30 yo

A

fibroademonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MC primary ca to produce breast mets

A

melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

MC source of mets to ovaries

A

colon (65%), stomach, breast, lung, pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DCIS/noninvasive breast ca is most often detected mammographically as a result of?

A

branching calcifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Indeterminate calcifications are most often associated with?

A

fibrocystic change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MC indication for breast imaging in men

A

palpable asymmetric thickening or mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MC uterine tumor / MC solid pelvic masses encountered during pregnancy / MC additional uterine pathology in the presence of adenomyosis

A

leiomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MC location of leiomyomas

A

intramural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MC sites of involvement in endometriosis

A

ovaries, cul-de-sac, peritoneal reflections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

MCC of hydrosalpinx

A

pelvic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MC ovarian mass / MCC of ovarian enlargement

A

Functional ovarian cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MC ovarian neoplasm / MC germ cell neoplasm of the ovary / MC ovarian teratomas / MC ovarian masses in children / MC ovarian pathology in young women of reproductive age

A

dermoid cyst / benign cystic teratoma / mature cystic teratoma / ovarian cystic teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MC GCT

A

ovarian teratomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MC monodermal teratoma

A

struma ovarii (mature thyroid tissue) and immature teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MC GCT in pregnant patients

A

dysgerminoma

47
Q

MC gynecologic malignancy

A

cervical carcinoma

48
Q

MC invasive gynecologic malignancy

A

endometrial carcinoma

49
Q

MC site of tubal ectopic pregnancy

A

isthmus

49
Q

ease MC of the gynecologic malignancies

A

endometrial carcinoma

50
Q

MC site of fallopian tube ca

A

ampulla

51
Q

MCC of post-menopausal bleeding

A

Endometrial atrophy

51
Q

MC site of tubal ectopic pregnancy

A

ampulla

52
Q

MC and most benign form of gestrational trophoblastic disease

A

hydatidiform mole

52
Q

MC cystic pelvic masses found in pregnancy

A

corpus luteal cysts

53
Q

Theca lutein cysts are most commonly seen in?

A

molar pregnancy in the 2nd tri

54
Q

MC adnexal mass in pregnancy

A

functional cysts (follicular, corpus luteum, and theca-lutein)

55
Q

Single MCC of a poor neonatal outcome

A

preterm delivery

56
Q

MC tumor of the placenta / MC nontrophoblastic placental tumor / MC benign neoplasm of the placenta

A

chorioangioma

57
Q

MC tumors of the umbilical cord

A

hemangiomas (baka same lang sa chorioangioma?)

58
Q

2nd MC chromosome anomaly / 2nd MC autosomal trisomy

A

Trisomy 18

59
Q

MC structural abnormality identified by US in trisomy 18

A

IUGR

60
Q

MC causes of ventriculomegaly

A

Chiari II and aqueductal stenosis

61
Q

MC neural tube defect

A

anencephaly

62
Q

MC cleft anomaly

A

lateral cleft (both lip and palate)

63
Q

MC type of cleft anomaly associated with aneuploidies

A

median cleft lip and palate

64
Q

Aneuploidy most commonly associated with cystic hygromas in the 2nd tri

A

Turner syndrome

64
Q

MC karyotype abnormality associated with cystic hygroma

A

Down

65
Q

MCC of minimal dilatation of the renal pelvis

A

physiologic VUR

66
Q

MC lethal skeletal dysplasia

A

thanatophoric dwarfism

67
Q

MC fetal lie

A

longitudinal

68
Q

MC breech presentation

A

frank

69
Q

MC clinically significant type of human chromosomal abnormality

A

aneuploidy

70
Q

MC inherited form of mental retardation

A

fragile X syndrome

70
Q

(MC [severe] AR condition in the white population)

A

cystic fibrosis

71
Q

Single, mc genetic cause of mental retardation

A

trisomy 21

72
Q

(MC abnornalities in infants of diabetic mothers)

A

CHDs and NTD

73
Q

MC cardiac defect of infants with Down syndrome

A

VSD

74
Q

Most characteristic abnormality in Down syndrome

A

ASD with a common AV junction, aka common AV canal, AVSD, or endocardial cushion defect

75
Q

MC associated cardiac anomaly in trisomy 21

A

endocardial cushion defect

76
Q

MC cardiac anomalies in Turner syndrome

A

COA and bicuspid aortic valve

77
Q

Leading cause of intestinal obstruction among newborns

A

duodenal atresia

78
Q

ventriculomegaly

A

Down

79
Q

alobar or semilobar holoprosencephaly

A

trisomy 13

80
Q

(microcalcification of the papillary muscle)

A

trisomy 13

81
Q

omphalocele

A

trisomy 18 and 13

82
Q

urethrovesical obstruction (bladder outlet obstruction)

A

trisomy 18 or 13

83
Q

diaphragmatic hernia

A

trisomy 18

84
Q

cerebellar abnormalities, vermian agenesis, enlarged cisterna magna

A

trisomy 18

85
Q

single umbilical artery

A

trisomy 18

86
Q

Most commonly used method for determining short long bone length is to compare the actual with the expected measurement based on?

A

BPD

87
Q

MC site of echogenic intracardiac focus

A

LV

88
Q

MC and characteristic finding on prenatal sonography in meconium peritonitis

A

peritoneal calci

89
Q

MC pathologic condition of the umbilicus in humans / MC abnormality of the umbilical cord

A

cord
single umbilical artery / 2-vessel cord

90
Q

(MC heart defect reported in the CHARGE association)

A

TOF

91
Q

(MC form of mental retardation in the US)

A

fetal alcohol syndrome

92
Q

MC endocrine problem in septo-optic dysplasia

A

GH deficiency

93
Q

MC organ system involved in VACTERL association

A

urinary tract anomaly

94
Q

MC type of placentation in a monozygotic twin gestation

A

monochorionic-diamniotic

95
Q

MCC of non-immune hydrops fetalis

A

fetal cardiovascular disease (2nd MC: chromosomal abnormalities)

96
Q

MC site of placental separation

A

edge of the placenta (marginal abruption/hematoma)

97
Q

MCC of bleeding in the 3rd tri

A

placental previa

98
Q

MC predisposing conditions for placenta accreta

A

previous CS, placenta previa

99
Q

MC complication of monochorionic twinning

A

twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

100
Q

Now perhaps the MCC of polyhydramnios

A

GIT abnormalities (duodenal atresia / esophageal atresia)

101
Q

MC location of ectopic hydatidiform mole

A

fallopian tubes

101
Q

MC causative organisms in PID

A

Chlamydia trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae

102
Q

Probably the MC benign gynecologic disease

A

endometriosis

103
Q

MC mullerian duct anomaly

A

septated uterus

104
Q

MC uterine anomaly of patients exposed to DES in utero

A

hypoplastic T-shaped uterus

105
Q

MC adnexal lesions that contain blood

A

hemorrhagic cysts and endometriomas

106
Q

MC sex cord tumors

A

fibromas

107
Q

ase (MC primary ovarian tumors / MC malignant appearing cystic adnexal masses)

A

epithelial tumors

108
Q

Calcifications in malignancy are most commonly seen in

A

IDCA and DCIS

109
Q

MC round breast ca

A

IDCA

110
Q

MC appearance of lymphoma involving the breast

A

lymphadenopathy

111
Q

MC breast implants

A

single-lumen filled with either silicone or saline

112
Q

MC complication associated with silicone gel-filled breast implants

A

capsular contracture / contracture of the fibrous capsule

113
Q

(MC form of autologous tissue reconstruction)

A

transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap

114
Q

MCC of mastitis

A

S. aureus

PBR 2 and 3 (41 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions