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Flashcards in PB_137_200 Deck (62)
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1

True or False: MuLVs and MMTVs are always exogeous.

F, both exogenous and endogenous

2

True or False: Provirus is referred to endogenous retroviruses that are intergrated as DNA within the genome.

T

3

True or False: he majority of the proviruses are defective.

T

4

Which of the following viruses IS NOT MuLV?
a. Friend virus
b. Molony virus
c. The Bittner milk agent
d. Rauscher (FMR)

c, it is an MMTV-S virus

5

True or False: A small number of replication-competent endogenous viruses can also be horizontally transmitted to other mice if the mice posses the appropriate susceptibility factors.

T, p.45

6

True or False: Each inbred mice has its own characteristic "fingerprint" of endogenous and retroelements sites of integration in its genome.

T

7

Which of the following dictates MMTV tissue tropism for mammary cells?
a. Env gene
b. Pol gene
c. Gag gene
d. LTR (long terminal repeats)

d

8

Which of the following IS NOT used to classify endogenous MuLV?
a. Ecotropic
b. Xenotropic
c. Polytropic
d. Lymphotropic
e. Amphotropic

d
Ecotropic tropism for mouse cells only, Emv genes
Xenotropic tropism other species except mice, Xmv genes
Polytropic tropism for mouse and other species Pmv genes, Mpmv
Lymphotropic is not used for classification
Amphotropic like polytropic but found in wild species of mice not the laboratory mice

9

True or False: The majority of MMTV proviruses do not produce infectious virus with exception of Mtv-1 which is present in DBA and C3H mice.

T - p 47

10

Which of the following is an example of retrovirus integration that resulted in spontaneous mutation?
a. The hairless mice (hr)
b. Rodless retina (rd1)
c. Dilute mutation (d) DBA mice
d. All are true

d
The hairless mice (hr) hr locus, polytropic
Rodless retina (rd1) in Pde6b locus, xenotropic virus
Dilute mutation (d) DBA mice in Myo5a locus, ecotropic virus
All are true

11

Which of the following mouse phenotypes is due to germline integration of retrovirus elements?
a. Athymia (Foxn1)
b. Stargazer Ccacng2)
c. Obese (lep)
d. Bent tail (Bn)
e. Albino (Tyr)

d, X-linked 170 bp deletion of Zic 3 locus

12

Which of the following is UNTRUE about retrovirus integrations into the mouse genome?
a. It occurs when offending retrovirus is excised by DNA repair
b. They are usually random
c. The integrations are hemizygous
d. The intergrations are homozygous

d, (hemizygous become homozygous with inbreeding)

13

True or False: In general, viruses that are expressed in high titer especially in thymus during the early fetal development can induce immunological tolerance.

T

14

Which of the following is TRUE regarding retrovirus and retroelemenets?
a. They may not be expressed in tissues until later in life
b. They can stimulate host immune responses
c. As mouse ages, they can develop immune complex diseases such as vasculitis and glomerulitis
d. All of the above

d

15

What percentage of the AKR mice will develop thymic lymphoma of T-cell origin within 6-12 months of age due to endogenous MuLV?
a. 25%
b. 100%
c. 50%
d. 12%

b

16

Exogenous MuLV is transmitted MOSTLY by which of the following routes?
a. Semen
b. Saliva
c. Coitus
d. Milk
e. Prenatal infection

d

17

True or False: Most exogenous MuLV infections cause neoplasia.

F, mostly silent, p.48

18

Exogenous MMTV is transmitted MOSTLY by which of the following routes?
a. Milk
b. Semen
c. Saliva
d. Coitus

a

19

All the following mouse strain are susceptible to MMTV induced mammary neoplasia EXCEPT:
a. C3H
b. DBA
c. C57Bl/6
d. SJL
e. GRS

c, development of the lymphoma is suppressed by NK cells

20

Beside mammary tropism, MMTV has a tropism for:
a. Lymphoid tissue
b. Hepatocytes
c. Enterocytes
d. Beta cells of pancreas

a

21

True or False: Diagnosis of MuLV and MMTV is not necessary, since all mice are infected or have provirus sequences within their genome.

T

22

True or False: MuLVs are known to recombine with HIV in SCID-hu mice, which limit the value of this model.

T

23

Transmissible Murine Colonic hyperplasia (TMCH) is caused by what organism:
a. Clostridium piliforme
b. Clostridium muridarium
c. Citrobacter rodentium
d. Citrobacter muridarium
e. Both c and d

c

24

Citrobacter spp. Pathogenic mouse isolates are:
a. Flagellated
b. Motile
c. Non flagellated
d. Non motile
e. Both a and b
f. Both b and c
g. Both a and d
h. Both c and d

h

25

Which of the following are required for effective immunity against TMCH
a. CD4 T cells
b. CD8 T cells
c. B cells
d. Both a and c
e. Both b and c
f. All of the above

d

26

Infection with TMCH stimulates an acquired immune response with recruitment of _____ T cells into the mucosa, and the evolution of a __________ antibody response.
a. CD8 and IgM
b. CD8 and IgA
c. CD4 and IgA
d. CD4 and IgM
e. CD4 and Th1

e

27

The Rag 1 null mouse is devoid of
a. T cells
b. B cells
c. T and B cells
d. None of the above

c

28

Which of the following innate defenses affect early colonization of TMCH
a. beta defensin
b. IL-12
c. IFN gamma
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

d

29

Which of the following etiologic agent can cause the following histological signs: hyperplasia of crypt epithelium, retention of cells on the surface, leukocytic infiltrate of lamina propria, heavily colonized brush boarder with cocco-bacillary bacteria, involvement of the cecum and descending colon. As hyperplasia regresses globlet cells and crypts become full of mucin and cellular debris.
a. Clostridium piliforme
b. Citrobacter rodentium
c. Clostridium rodentium
d. Escherichia coli

b

30

Citrobacter spp. can be readily isolated on which of the following agars
a. Sheep blood
b. MacConkey
c. Chocolate
d. All of the above

b

31

Citrobacter rodentium is pathogenic in immunocompetent mice and ferments:
a. citrobacter
b. cellulose
c. lactose
d. maltose

c

32

Which of the following etiologic agents is a model for the pathogenesis of EPEC and EHEC
a. Clostridium platform
b. Clostridium rodent
c. Nitrobacteria rodent
d. Helicobacter hepaticas

b

33

N:NIH(S)III mice are:
a. heterozygous for xid, nu and bg
b. heterozygous for did and nu but homozygous for big
c. homozygous for did, nu and big
d. homozygous for big and heterozygous for did and nu

c

34

An unusual feature of the atypical E. coli is that it:
a. lactose fermenting
b. sucrose fermenting
c. non-lactose-fermenting
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

c

35

The causative agent of Tizzy's disease is:
a. Clostridium platform
b. Clostridium rodent
c. Nitrobacteria rodent
d. Nitrobacteria platform

a

36

Outbreaks of Tizzy's disease are characterized by:
a. low mortality high morbidity
b. high mortality low morbidity
c. high morbidity and mortality
d. low morbidity and mortality

b

37

The causative agent of Tizzy's disease is:
a. Clostridium platform
b. Clostridium rodent
c. Nitrobacteria rodent
d. Nitrobacteria platform

d

38

Other organ systems typically affected by dissemination of Clostridium platform include:
a. kidney
b. liver
c. spleen
d. heart
e. both a and b
f. both b and c
g. both b and d
h. both a and d

g

39

What disease is characterized by multimodal coagulation to cassation hepatic necrosis with polymorph nuclear leukocyte infiltration, most degeneration, myocarditis and intracellular bacteria that stain with a silver stain
a. Citrobater rodentium
b. Helicobacter hepaticus
c. Clostridium piliforme
d. Pseudomonas spp.

c

40

Clostridium piliforme can be isolated using which of the following stains
a. PAS
b. Giemsa
c. Warthen-Starry
d. Steiner
e. All of the above

d

41

Helicobacter spp. colonize what in mice
a. cecum
b. colon
c. small intestine
d. both a and b
e. both a and c
f. all of the above

d

42

Helicobacter sop. are
a. Microanerobic and spiral with variable numbers of flagella
b. Microareobic and spiral with variable numbers of flagella
c. Microanerobic and straight variable numbers of flagella
d. Microaerobic and straight variable numbers of flagella

b

43

Hepatic lesions from Helicobacter hepaticus in A/JCr mice are more pronounced in
a. females less than 6 months
b. females greater than 6 months
c. males less than 6 months
d. males greater than 6 months

d

44

Optimal PCR and culture detection of Helicobacter organisms can be made by sampling
a. fecal pellets
b. stomach mucosa
c. cecal mucosa
d. colon mucosa
e. liver

c

45

Which Helicobacter has been linked to an increase in hepatocellular tumors
a. bilis
b. muridarium
c. hepaticus
d. rodentium
e. typhlocolitis

c

46

Which Helicobacter is a model for human inflammatory bowel disease
a. bilis
b. muridarium
c. hepaticus
d. rodentium
e. typhlocolitis

e

47

The Salmonellae of significance on the mouse are:
a. Typhi and cholerasuis
b. Typhimurium and cholerasuis
c. Typhimurium and enteritidis
d. Typhi and enteritidis
e. Cholerasuis and enteritidis

c

48

Which of the following strains are resistant to experimental infection with Salmonella
a. B6
b. C3H/HeJ
c. C57BL/10ScCr
d. BALB/c
e. 129S6/SvEv

e

49

Culturing for Salmonella requires ___________________ followed by streaking on brilliant green agar
a. Selenite F broth plus cystine
b. Selenite F broth plus lysine
c. Cystine broth plus lysine
d. Cystine broth plus selenite

a

50

Highest rate of detection of Salmonella amongst carriers is detected by culturing
a. pooled feces
b. mesenteric lymph nodes
c. iliac lymph nodes
d. cecal contents

b

51

The MoPn (mouse pneumonitis) agent is associated with what bacteria
a. Chamydia muridarium
b. Citrobacter rodentium
c. Salmonella spp.
d. Clostridium piliforme

a

52

The MoPn agent is dependent upon ___________ for immunity
a. CD 8 T cells
b. CD 4 T cells
c. B cells
d. Both a and b

b

53

There are two widely studies MoPn agents they are
a. Weiss and White strains
b. Weiss and Nigg strains
c. Nigg and Grey strains
d. Nigg and White strains

b

54

Chlamydia is an
a. extracellular organism
b. intracellular organism
c. both a and b

b

55

Chlamydia grows within
a. bronchiolar epithelium, type II alveolar cells, and macrophages
b. bronchiolar endothelium, type II alveolar cell and macrophages
c. bronchiolar epithelium, type I alveolar cells, and macrophages
d. bronchiolar endothelium, type I, alveolar cells, and macrophages

c

56

True or False: Chlamydia are gram-negative but stain with Giemsa and Macchiaello staining methods.

T

57

Cilia-associated respiratory Bacillus is closely related antigentically to
a. Helicobater
b. Flexibacter
c. Flavobacter
d. Both a & b
e. Both b & c
f. Both a & c
g. All of the above

e

58

Which organism has been associated with preputial abcesses, perianal dermatitis, otitis, bacteremic disease
a. Klebsiellae pneumoniae
b. Klebsiellae dermatitis
c. Klebsiellae oxytoca

c

59

Which is the most common Leptospira to infect mice
a. L. icterohaemorrhagiae
b. L. ballum
c. L. copenhageni
d. L. muridarium

b

60

True or False: Leptospira is a zoonotic disease.

T

61

True or False: Weil's disease is the most severe icteric form of Leptospira infections and is characterized by renal and cardiac failure

F. renal and liver failure

62

Mycoplasma organisms
a. lack a cell wall
b. have a cell wall
c. are enclosed by a single limiting membrane
d. both a and c
e. both b and c

d