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1

Sequence analysis of 16SrRNA genes have recently revealed that the genera Hemobartonella and Eperythrozoon are considered

a. Rickettsia

b. Mycoplasma

c. Helicobacterea

d. Leptospirae "

b

2

T or F Hemobartonella and Eperythrozoon belong to a group related to hemotropic bacteria

T

3

T or F The new name for Eperythrozoon coccoides is Mycoplasma coccoides.

T

4

Mycoplasmae are frequently nonpathogenic and inhabit

a. respiratory tract

b. genital tract

c. intestinal tract

d. both a and b

e. all of the above "

d

5

M. pulmonis is mitogenic for __________ which contributes to the pathology observed in the lungs.

a. T cells

b. NK cells

c. B cells

d. Macrophages "

c

6

Chattering is a characteristic sound for what disease?

a. Sendi

b. Coronavirus

c. Mycoplasma

d. CAR bacillus "

c

7

T or F Mice do not develop the intense peribronchiolar lymphocytic infiltrates and severe bronchiolectasis that are common features of rat mycoplasmosis.

T

8

Characteristic lesion for mycoplasmosis is

a. syncytia in the lower respiratory tract

b. syncytia in the upper respiratory tract

c. development of multimucleated giant cells in the upper respiratory tract

d. development of multimucleated giant cells in the lower respiratory tract

b

9

What are the possible causes of arthritis in mice?

a. Mycoplasmosis

b. Corynebacteriosis

c. Streptobacilliosis

d. All of the above

e. None of the above "

d

10

Mycoplasma coccoides is transmitted by

a. Polyplax spinulosa

b. Polyplax serrata

c. Tenebrio molitor

d. Pulex mitans

b

11

Mycoplasma coccoides is found

a. attached to red blood cells

b. on red blood cells

c. free in plasma of peripheral blood

d. Both a and b

e. Both a and c

f. Both b and c

e

12

Pasturella is not primarily pneumotropic as it also colonizes the _____________ of normal mice

a. enteric

b. genital

c. respiratory

d. all of the above

d

13

Pasturella ureae can also cause abortion, metritis and stillbirths, it can be differentiated from P. pneumotropica by

a. Being indole negative and mannitol positive

b. Being indole positive and mannitol positive

c. Being indole negative and mannitol negative

d. Being indole positive and mannitol negative "

a

14

What is an ubiquitous bacterium in the environment that can be 1) isolated from the upper respiratory tract and feces of normal mice; 2) cause opportunistic infection resulting in disease in immunocompetent and imunocomprimised mice; 3) cause hepatic lesions; 4) cause fibrinous exudate in peritoneal cavity and histo lesions consistent with hematogeous spread.

a. Salmonella spp

b. Escherichia coli

c. Citrobacter rodentium

d. Proteus mirabilis

d

15

What is gram (-) spore forming rod found in moist-warm environments. It does not establish itself as part of the mouse microflora but is frequently isolated from oropharynx and feces

a. Proteus mirabilis

b. Salmonella spp.

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d. Echerichia coli

c

16

Which strains of mice are more susceptible to Pseudomonas aeruginosa

a. B6, BALBc

b. B6, DBA2

c. BALBc, DBA3

d. C3H, BALBc

b

17

Which strain is relatively resistant to Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a. B6

b. DBA2

c. BALBc

d. C3H

c

18

How is pseudomonas controlled in facilities

a. Hyper-chlorination and de-acidification

b. hypo-chlorination and acidification

c. chlorination and acidification

d. chlorination and de-acidification

c

19

T or F Streptobacillus moniliformis may result in high morbidity and mortality when introduced into mouse colonies.

T

20

Streptobacillus moniliformis is associated with what disease transmitted by contaminated food and water

a. Rat bite fiver

b. Haverhill fever

c. Korean hemorrhagic fever

b

21

In experimental studies with Streptobacillus monilliformis which strain of mouse is most susceptible

a. CBF1

b. BALBc

c. B6

d. C3HHe

c

22

The causative agent of Rat bite fever a zoonotic disease is

a. Streptobacillus monilliformis

b. Streptobacllius zooepidemicus

c. Staphlococcus aureus

a

23

T or F Clostridial enteropathy occurs often in the mouse due to Clostridium difficile or Clostridium perfringens.

F - sporadically

24

Clostridium porringers is divided into _____ major toxins

a. 3 toxins- A, B, C

b. 4 toxins- A, B, C, D

c. 5 toxins- A, B, C, D, E

b

25

Which of the following toxins of Clostridium perfringens are the most commonly found in the mouse and produce natural disease

a. Type A, type B, type C

b. Non ? type A, type B, type C

c. Non-type A, type B, type D

d. Type A, type B, type C

c

26

In reference to Clostridium perfringens Type ____ is most associated with production of enterotoxin

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

e. E

a

27

Clostridium difficile produces toxins

a. toxin A and toxin B

b. toxin A, toxin B, toxin C

c. toxin A, toxin B, toxin C, toxin D

a

28

T or F Histology of animals infected with Clostridium difficile shows hyperplasia of crypts and marked edema of mucosae and submucosae.

T

29

Pseudotuberculosis in rats and mice is caused by

a. Clostridium difficile

b. Clostridium perfringens

c. Corynebacterium kutcheri

d. Pseudomonas aerugenosa

e. Corynebacterium bovis

c

30

A characteristic of Corynebacterium kutcheri colonies stained with Brenn and Brown or other Gram stains is the _________ visualized within supperative lesions

a. pick-up sticks

b. Chinese letters

c. Tooth picks

b

31

The organism responsible for scaling dermatitis in nude mice is

a. Corynebacterium kutcheri

b. Clostridium difficile

c. Corynebacterium bovis

d. Clostridium piliforme

c

32

When culturing C. bovis the cultures should be held for up to ____ days

a. 3 days

b. 5 days

c. 6 days

d. 7 days

d - is slow growing

33

T or F Necrotizing dermatitis caused by Staph aureus is quite common in young and old B6, BALBc, DBA2 C3HHe mice.

T

34

Amputation of the tail secondary to Staphlococcous aureus related gangreen must be differentiated from what disease

a. mouse hepatitis virus

b. Mouse pox virus

c. Tyzzer's disease

d. Mycobacterium avium

b

35

T or F Pathogenic Streptococcus belong to Lancefield groups A B, C, and D.

F, Lancefield groups A, B, C, and G

36

T or F Lancefield group D is no longer classified in the genus Streptococcus, it is now in the genus Enterococcus.

T

37

T or F C3HHe and DBA2 mice carry a susceptibility (Bcgs) gene that is a determinant of phagocytosis host defense mechanisms that control intracellular pathogen infections.

F B6 and BALBc are susceptible and C3HHe and DBA2 do not carry the gene

38

Differential diagnosis for pulmonary granulomatous lesions in mice are

a. Corynebacterium kutcheri

b. Mycoplasma pulmonis

c. Mycobacterium avium

d. Freund's complete adjuvant

e. All of the above

e

39

T or F Mycobacterium chelonae causes a tail infection in many immunocompromised mice. The lesions consist of focal granulomata and osteomyelitis of the tail resulting in grossly apparent nodular swellings.

T

40

T or F The most severe manifestation, favus, associated with mycotic infections is usually associated with Trichophyton mentagrophytes var. mentagrophytes

F. Trichophyton mentagrophytes var. quinckeanum

41

Which of the following yeast inhabits the surface mucosa of the glandular stomach of normal mice and rats.

a. Candida albicans

b. Candida guilliermondii

c. Candida tropicalis

d. Candida pintolopesii

d

42

Favus, the most severe manifestation of dermatophytosis, is associated with which organism?

a. Microsporum canis

b. Trichophyton mentagrophytes var. quinkeanum

c. Trichophyton mentagrophytes var. mentagrophytes

d. Trichosporon beigelii

b

43

Which of the following statements is NOT true of dermatophytosis?

a. The great majority of infections are subclinical

b. It is characterized by yellow, cuplike crusts on the muzzle, head, ears, face, tail and extremities

c. Arthrospores and mycelia are Schiff-negative

d. Trichophyton is non-selective in its? host range and can infect lab animals and humans

c

44

Which of the following organisms is associated with mycotic respiratory infection?

a. Rhizopus

b. Trichosporon beigelii

c. Candida tropicalis

d. Cryptococcus neoformans

a

45

What inhabits the surface mucosa of the glandular stomach of normal rats and mice.

a. Candida albicans

b. Aspergillus fumigatus

c. Zygomycetes

d Candida pintolopesii

d

46

Which of the following statements is F regarding Candida pintolopesii in immunocompromised mice?

a. Necrotic debris forms a pseudomembrane in the cecum

b. There is marked epithelial hyperplasia with hyperkeratosis and leukocytic infiltration

c. Pseudohyphae formation is common and can be seen with PAS or silver stains

d. T-cell deficient mice are primarily at risk

a

47

What cell type is affected in mice with pneumocystosis?

type I pneumocyte

48

Cyst forms of Pneumocystis infected lung tissue is appropriately stained by either ________ or ___________.

PAS, methenamine silver

49

Extrapulmonary infection of other tissues, including bone marrow, heart, liver and spleen may be seen in _______ mice.

SCID

50

Which of these species of fur mite is most clinically significant due to its? association with hypersensitivity of the host?

b

51

Newborn mice less than 1 week of age and nude mice are resistant to experimental infection.

T

52

T or F Mice on a B6 background show no more sensitivity to Myobia infestation than BALBc mice.

F

53

Which of the following statements is F regarding a mixed infection with both Myocoptes and Myobia?

a. Myobia tends to dominate the head and shoulder pelage

b. Myocoptes is found primarily in the inguinal, ventral abdomen and back

c. Patchy hair loss, erythema and mild pruritis are common clinical signs

d. Mixed infections are so common and seldom overlooked as the cause of a problem

d

54

Which of the following is NOT T regarding differentiation of Myobia, Myocoptes and Radfordia?

a. They are similar in morphology

b. Radfordia has a single terminal tarsal claw, whereas Myobia has 2 of unequal length

c. Myocoptes is oval in shape, whereas Myobia and Radfordia have slightly elongated bodies.

d. Myocoptes has suckers on its tarsi

b

55

Psorergates simplex inhabits the ___________.

hair follicles

56

Possible sources of Cryptosporidium infection include ____________

contaminated water

57

Definitive host for Sarcocystis muris is the __________; mice serve as the only intermediate host for this coccidian parasite.

cats

58

Natural hosts for Giardia muris include all of the following EXCEPT

a. Mice

b. Rats

c. Hamsters

d. Dogs

d

59

In Giardia infection, which of the following statements is T

a. Trophozoites proliferate in the stomach

b. Trophozoites proliferate in the small intestine

c. Trophozoites proliferate in the colon

d. Trophozoites proliferate in the cecum

b

60

Pear-shaped trophozoites of Spironucleus muris stain best with

a. Giemsa

b. H & E

c. PAS

d. Methylene blue

c

61

Name the two most common pinworms of mice. Which has the longest life cycle?

Syphacia obvelata; Aspicularis tetraptera - longest life cycle 23-25 days

62

How are tapeworms in mice, rats and hamster transmitted? Which tapeworm also has a direct life cycle (e.g., requires no intermediate host) from which superinfection can occur?

arthropod intermediate hosts (flour beetle, fleas, moths); Rodentolepis nana

63

Name the tapeworm that is often found in the bile or pancreatic ducts.

Rodentolepis microstoma

64

"The most common sites for AA amyloid deposition include all of the following except a. Spleen b. Liver c. Heart d. Kidney "

c

65

"Amyloidosis tends to occur at high prevalence and early onset in which of the following mouse strains a. BALBc b. SJL c. C3H d. B6 "

b

66

"Which of the following mouse strains is prone to AapoAII amyloidosis? a. AJ b. BALBc c. C3H d. DBA "

a

67

"Amyloid stains positively to many different stains. Which of the following shows amyloid with birefringence when subjected to polarized light? a. Oil red O b. Alcian Blue c. Thioflavine T d. Congo Red "

d

68

Epicardial mineralization on the right ventricular free wall is common in what strain of mice?

BALBc

69

What is the appropriate stain to confirm diagnosis of cardiac calcification?

Alizarin red

70

Name the condition in mice associated with lungs that do not collapse and microscopically are overwhelmed with macrophages with abundant cytoplasm packed with rhomboid shaped eosinophilic crystals.

Acidophilic macrophage pneumoniaepithelial hyalinosis

71

"Reye?s like syndrome is associated with natural disease in the ____________. a. BALBcByJ b. C.B-17-scid c. Ferret d. NOD mouse "

a

72

"Which strain is associated with low locomotor activity? a. B6 b. DBA1 c. AKR d. AJ e. Both a and b f. Both b and d "

f

73

" Introducing foreign adult male mice to a room can result in unexplained infertility, can cause early termination of pregnancy and describes a. Bruce effect b. Whitten effect c. Lee-Boot effect d. No effect "

a

74

What is the name of the effect when the presence of males or male urine can synchronize estrus and accelerate the onset of female puberty?

Whitten effect

75

What is the Dalila effect? What strain is especially prone to this disorder?

Impulsivecompetitive behavior manifest as hair plucking or barbering; A2G and B6 strains

76

T or F Hair loss in the muzzle region in mouse is always related with barbering

F

77

"Pathogenesis of ringtail is unknown but it is related with a. low relative humidity and temperature b. high relative humidity and temperature c. low relative humidity and high temperature d. high relative humidity and low temperature "

c

78

"Ring tail means. a. annular discoloration of the tail and occasionally digits in infant mice b. annular constrictions of the tail and occasionally digits in infant mice c. annular hyper pigmentation of the tail and occasionally digits in infant mice d. annular hyperplasia of the tail and occasionally digits in infant mice "

b

79

T or F Hairless strains of mice prone to skin problems as adults, always manifest previously the classical ringtail stage

F

80

T or F Ringtail must be differentiated from behaviour related dermatitis of the tail

T

81

T or F Use of cotton wool as nesting material can cause digit necrosis due to wrapping

T

82

"Etiology of posterior paresis in mice include a. rushed husbandryinattentive technicians b. demyelinitation c. viral encephalomyelitis d. all of above "

d

83

A consistent microscopic finding in dehydrated mice is

Massive thymic apoptosis

84

"Mice hydration can be evaluated at necropsy by a. Skin plasticity b. Stickiness of tissue c. Contracted spleen d. All of above "

d

85

T or F with water bottles full, mice dehydration never can occur

F

86

T or F in young mice, we have to check that water bottle sipper tube is not so high for them

T

87

"Automatic watering devices a. Prevent dehydration in mice b. is safer than water bottles devices c. all mice have to be trained d. some mice have to be trained "

d

88

"Related with mouse body temperature a. mice are efficiently homeothermic b. mice are inefficiently homeothermic c. nude mice are inefficiently homeothermic d. a and c are correct "

b

89

T or F As dehydration, massive lymphocytic apoptosis in the thymus is a hallmark lesion in hypothermia

T

90

"High mortality due to hypothermia can occur in a. shipments b. water devices accidents c. lack of nesting material in cage d. a and b "

d

91

"During shipping, a cause of mortality IS a. extreme temperatures b. dehydration c. fights d. sudden total alopecia "

a

92

T or F nude mice are especially prone to frostbite associated with cold exposure of shipping boxes during air transportation

T

93

"Ear gangrene has been observed in a. C57BL and Balbc mice b. DBA2 and SJL mice c. CBA and FVB mice d. albino swiss and C3H mice "

d

94

"Mark what is T about alopecia areata in C3H mice a. hair loss appears after 7 moths of age b. affected both males and females c. present as alopecic areas in ventral trunk d. all of above "

b

95

Name four microscopic characteristics of mouce skin affected by alopecia areata

Packed anagen follicles with dystrophic hair formation, melanin incontinence, interfollicular epidermal thickening, perifollicular mononuclear leukocytes infiltrates

96

"B6 mice are prone to hypersensitive dermatitis due to a. staphylococcus b. streptococcus c. myobia d. sarcoptes "

c

97

T or F alopecia in B6 mice is fundamentally a multifactor syndrome

F

98

"T or F B6 mice alopecia is primarily due to barbering but becomes secondarily inflammatory in character "

T

99

"mice affected by ulcerative dermatitis succumbing prematurely to a. sepsis and renal failure b. seizures and hepatic insufficiency c. systemic amyloidosis and atrial thombosis d. infections and mesenteric disease "

c

100

"Clown mouse syndrome has been associated with a. mouse LDHV b. mouse adenovirus c. mouse parvovirus d. mouse hepatitis virus "

d

101

T or F in clown mouse syndrome, hair regrowth appears first around the head and progresses posteriorly

T

102

"which of the next strains are prone to audiogenic seizures a. DBA2 and SJL b. B6 and C3H c. Balbc and 129Ola d. all of them "

a

103

"In audiogenic seizures a. seizures progress after a short latency period after sound stimulation b. respiratory arrest can occur in tonic phase c. there is an explosive bout of running followed by clonic seizures d. all is T "

d

104

T or F seizures in mice often occur at night, resulting in unexplained deaths

T

105

"After deaths due to seizures, cerebral findings in mice necropsy included a. neuronal necrosis in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus b. neuronal hemorrhage in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus c. neuronal necrosis in the cerebellum and thalamus d. neuronal hemorrhage in the cerebellum and thalamus "

a

106

T or F in seizure-prone male mice, death can be related with obstructive uropathy produced by urethral plug retention

T

107

T or F Forebrain comissure defects are common in Balbc and 129 mice

T

108

"internal hydrocephalus becomes clinically significant in mice a. at birth b. during first week old c. at 15 days old d. at weaning "

d

109

"Hydrocephalus is common in a. swiss mice b. C5BL6 mice c. Balbc mice d. B6D2F1 mice "

b

110

"Related to high levels of Cre recombinase expression in neuronal precursor cells, it has been observed a. microencephaly b. hydrocephalus c. lamination of the cortex d. all of above "

c

111

T or F high levels of cre recombinase in neuronal precursor cells can lead to reduced neuronal proliferation and apoptosis

T

112

What differentiates artifactual vacuoles from antemortem vacuolation in white matter brain mouse

The distinct outlines, lack of cellular debris and lack of gliosis

113

T or F In age-related hearing loss inner hair cells are affected before outer hair cells

F

114

"What number of mapped loci and mitochondrial variant are know to contribute to age-related hearing loss? a. at least 12 b. at least 9 c. at least 8 d. at least 5 "

c

115

In age-related hearing loss, _____ occurs first and choclear hair cell loss progresses from _______ to the _____.

High frequency losses, base, apex

116

"What is T about microftalmia a. affected C57BL mice b. females are more prone c. is frequently asymmetric, most often affecting right eye d. all are T "

d

117

T or F Spontaneouscorneal opacity is due to chronic inflammation of corneal epithelium and posterior corneal stroma

F

118

"Bacterial blepharoconjunctivitis in mice is mainly due to a. Corynebacterium, Streptococcus, E. coli b. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium, Pasteurella pneumotropica "

b

119

T or F C57BL are prone to develop blepharoconjunctivitis in association with microphtalmia

T

120

Retinal degeneration due to homozygosity of third-1 allele is strain characteristic lesion of _____, _____, _____, _____, and _____.

C3H He, CBA, FVB, SJL, SWR

121

"Retinal degeneration is due to apoptosis of photoreceptors which begans at a. 3 weeks of life b. 4 month of life c. 2 month of life d. 8 week of life "

a

122

T or F Malocclusion in mice has a hereditary basis and is relatively common in B6 mice

T

123

"In A strain mice, cleft lip and cleft palate can be accompanied by a. microphtalmia b. malocclusion c. premature eyelid opening d. internal hydrocephalus "

c

124

" In immunnodeficient mouse has been observed a. gastric mucosal hyperplasia b. megaesophagus c. cleft palate d. malocclusion "

a

125

"What is T about ileus in lactating mice? a. affected female mice in second week of first lactation b. colon and rectum are full of fecal pellets c. stomach and small proximal intestine is usually empty d. all of above "

a

126

"With age, in mice hepatocytes it can be observed a. polyploidy nuclei b. basophilic inclusions in cytoplasm c. double nuclei d. eosinophylic inclusions in nuclei "

a

127

"The liver is paller in than other strains due to hepatocellular fatty change a. swiss b. C57 c. BALBc d. C3H "

c

128

"Proliferation of Kupffer cells should signal the presence of a. entamoeba b. Helicobacter c. E. coli d. Salmonella "

b

129

"Mesenteric disease (mesenteric lymph nodes enlarged and filled with blood) is a. pathogenic for salmonellosis b. sign of chronic helicobacter c. an incidental finding d. a sign of murine parvovirus "

c

130

"Polyarteritis in mice cause inflammatory lesions of a. small and large arteries b. medium and small arteries c. medium and large arteries d. all arteries "

b

131

T or F In polyarteritis, the most often arteries involved are pulmonary, muscular, adrenal, cerebral, renal and intestinal

F

132

"The most significant clinical manifestation of polyarteritis is a. tissue necrosis b. convulsions c. sudden death d. vestibular syndrome "

d

133

T or F In vestibular syndrome due to polyarteritis, the internal and middle ear structures are normal

T

134

T or F In atrial thrombosis, right auricle is most frequently affected

F

135

"Atrial thrombosis can extend to a. ventricle b. cardiac vessels c. pulmonary veins d. all are possible "

d

136

T or F Atrial thrombosis is precipitated by systemic amyloidosis, but is common in Balb c mice, which are not prone to amyloidosis

T

137

T or F Right heart failure due to atrial thrombosis is the most common cause of non-infectious dyspnea in mice.

F

138

T or F because mice are obligate nasal breathers, aspiration pneumonia is very uncommon

F

139

T or F Alveolar hemorrhage is a common agonal finding in mice

T

140

what is alveolar proteinosis?

A condition with progressive intra-alveolar accumulation of granular pale eosinophilic phospholipids, with hypertrophy and vacuolation of type II pneumocytes and mobilization of scattered macrophages with vacuolated cytoplasm

141

"Murine urologic syndrome is associated with a. bacterial infection of lower urinary tract b. retention of ejaculated coagulum in the urethra c. urolithiasis d. all of above "

b

142

"Murine urologic syndrome is common in older male of a. AKR and 129sv ter b. BALBc and C3H c. C57BL and swiss d. B6C3F1 and ICR "

d

143

Differential diagnoses of murine urologic syndrome include

Bacterial cystitis, pyelonephritis, agonal release of coagulum, trauma of the external genitalia

144

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is common in older mice of certain strains such ______, ______, ______, ______, and ______.

AKR, Balbc, B6, CBA, 129sv ter

145

"Glomerular hyalinosis in older mice is a. antigen antibody complexes deposition in glomeruli epithelium b. the result of a bacterial infection c. non-specific basement membrane thickening d. the result of LCMV virus infection "

c

146

T or F in mice with advanced glomeruilonephritis, there may be marked pitting of the cortical surfaces and small cysts on the cut surface

T

147

Chronic progressive nephropathy in mice features Name 6

Glomerular hyalinosis, glomeruloesclerosis, tubular degeneration. Regeneration, interstitial inflammation, dilated tubules with protein-rich fluid in lumen

148

T or F Castration of males eliminate their susceptibility to chloroform nephrotoxicity

T

149

Differential diagnosis of mucometra include ______, ______, and ______.

Pyometra, retained fetuses, neoplasia

150

T or F females with imperforate vagina frequently present bilobed distention in the perineal region, misleading them as males

T

151

T or F Adenomyosis is a rare incidental finding in female mice, hich present glandular invasion of the myometrium, often extending to the serosa.

T

152

"FVB mice a. females can develop mammary gland hyperplasia before breeding b. are prone to pituitary adenomas c. are prone to mammary tumors d. all of above "

d

153

T or F Impaired reproductive performance has been associated with cystic bulbourethral glands

T

154

Bacteria isolated from suppurative lesions of cystic glands included ___________ _________ and ______________ _____________.

Staphylococcus aureus, Pasteurella pneumotropica

155

T or F Aged B6 male mice may develop atrophy of one and dilatation of the other seminal vesicle.

T

156

"What is T about fibro-osseus lesions? a. arise most frequently in females b. are age-related c. are more common at 12 months of age d. all of above "

d

157

Fibro-osseus lesions can be differentiated from histiocytic sarcomas with intramedullary involvement because

Fibro-osseuslesions can affect periosteal region but with no evidence of malignant transformation whereas histiocitic sarcomas are anaplastic cells and also involves one or more soft tissues

158

"What type of tumor are propensy to develop the next mice strains C3H, 129sv, BALBc, AKR, DBA "

C3HHemammary tumors, 129sv testicular teratomas, Balbc multicentric lymphomas, AKr thymic lymphomas, DBA hepatocellular neoplasia

159

Neoplasia is a common cause of morbidity in many mice strains due to Give 2 reasons

Genetic homozygosity and presence of retroviral elements

160

T or F mouse tumors tend to growth by blunt expansion rather than invasive infiltration

F

161

T or F mouse tumors tend to growth by blunt expansion rather than invasive infiltration

d

162

T or F In lung T metastasis must be differentiated from tumor embolization and pulmonary adenomas

T

163

Histopatologically, what is the difference between T metastasis and tumor embolization in mouse lung?

The emboli presents endothelial cells surrounding the mass within the lumina of blood cells

164

T or F Mouse epithelium is prone to herniation, which can be interpreted as malignant behaviour

T

165

Causes of herniation of nonneoplastic hyperplastic epithelium in the colon include ___________ ___________, _______________ _____ and __________ _________.

Citrobacter rodentium, helicobacter spp, rectal prolapse

166

Colitis cystica is related with the presence in the colon herniated epithelium of mucinous differentiation including

Mucin-filled cysts, erosion of linning epithelium, crypt suppuration, crypt effacement, inflammation, fibrosis

167

GEM neoplasms that mimic human tumor morphology and biology have been generated and studied

T

168

"The signature phenotype in GEMs a. means that GEM tumors closely mimic spontaneous mouse tumors b. cluster with genes that share common signal transduction pathways c. is affected by age, sex ans background of strain d. all of above "

b

169

"The major cause of morbidity and mortality among laboratory mice are a. endocrine neoplasia b. hepatocellular tumors c. pulmonary tumors d. lymphopid and nonlymphoid hematopoietic neoplasias "

d

170

"By 12 months of age, virtually 100% AKR mouse may present a. plasmacytoma b. thymic lymphoma c. splenic marginal zone lymphoma d. small B cell lymphoma "

b

171

T or F the mouse is relatively unique due to persistence and proliferative nature of the thymus in adults

T

172

"The major hematopoetic organ through life in mouse is a. bone marrow b. spleen c. liver d. a and b "

b

173

T or F The most likely lymphoid neoplasms to be encountered in laboratory mice are small B cell lymphoma, extraosseus plasmacytoma, b-natual killer cell lymphoma and t natural killer cell lymphoma

F

174

T or F small B cell lymphoma in mice aride multisystemically and often have a leukemic phase

T

175

"Splenic marginal zone lymphomas a. are common in C57BL mice b. extend quickly to other tissues c. arise in the marginal zones of splenic white pulp d. all of above "

c

176

T or F Follicular B cell lymphomas are the most common spontaneous lymphoma in inbred mice and involve the spleen, peyer?s patches and mesenteric lymph nodes

T

177

"Follicular B cell lymphoma arise a. in red pulp with nodular appearance b. in white pulp with diffuse appearance c. in red pulp with diffuse appearance d. in white pulp with nodular appearance "

d

178

"To differentiate cells follicular B lymphoma and diffuse large B cell lymphomas it can be observed a. size cell b. cells nuclei c. mitotic activity d. intracytoplasmatic inclusions "

b

179

It is easier to differentiate histiocyte associated diffuse large B cell lymphoma from histiocytic sarcoma because the last one always involves more than one organ

F

180

"What type of tumor can be induced with pristane in Balbc mice? a. plasmacytomas b. burkitt-like lymphoma c. histiocytic sarcoma d. mast cell sarcoma "

a

181

T or F precursor t cell lymphoma arise frequently in C57Bl mice and are commonly induced by irradiation and chemicals

F

182

T or F Small T cell lymphoma cause splenopmegaly and lymphadenomegaly but not thymic involvement

T

183

T or F The most significant spontaneous nonlymphoid hematopoiŠtic neoplasm among common inbred mice is granulocytic sarcoma

F

184

"What is T about histiocytic sarcoma a. is common in aged B6 and SJL b. have been produced experimentally using retroviruses c. may vary from elongated fibrillar cells to rounded cells d. all of above "

d

185

"Mammary tumors in mouse are influenced by a. endogenous viruses b. hormones c. chemical carcinogens d. all of above "

d

186

T or FOnly endogenous MMTVs are encounteredin laboratory mice

T

187

Two types of lesion arise in MMTV-infected mice. Name them

Hyperplastic alveolar nodules and plaques

188

The three most common types of spontaneous mammary tumor in mice are

Dunn's A (Acinar) uniform and microacinar pattern, Dunn's B lack of significant acinar formation, cystic structures and squamous differentiation, Dunn's C uniform pattern of numerous small cyst

189

"The mouse strain more susceptible to primary pulmonary adenocarcinomas is a. FVB strain b. C57 strain c. A strain d. AKR strain "

c

190

"Spontaneous pulmonary tumors originate from a. type II pneumocytes b. common precursor cell for type II pneumocytes c. clara cells d. all of above "

d

191

T or FThe most common hepatocellular tumors are adenomas and carcinomas and arise more frequently in aged males

T

192

Hepatocellular tumors are composed of two major histological types __________ and __________

Trabecular or solid

193

T or Fthe liver is frequently involved in multisystemic lymphoreticular neoplasms

T

194

T or FThe incidence of harderian gland tumor is increased by irradiation but not by chemical carcinogens

F

195

T or FRhabdomyosarcomas of skeletal muscle and myoepitheliomas in submaxilary gland arise more frequently in C57BL compared to other strains

F

196

T or FIn myoepitheliomas there is a concomitant myeloid hyperplasia of bone marrow and spleen

T

197

"Pituitary gland adenomas a. are common in B6, swiss and FVBN mice b. arise more frequently in females c. both are T d. neither are T "

c