Property Management Flashcards
(70 cards)
What are the principles of the Real Estate Management Professional Statement?
There are 12: -
1 - Do not discriminate
2 - honestly, accuracy & transparency
3 - Avoid/Manage CoI
4 - CHP
5 - PII cover
6 - all inspections undertaken in accordance with client wishes
7 - Realistic values
8 - Honest marketing
9 - Good communication
10 - Due skill, care & diligence
11 - Clear client identity
12 - Client money handling
What does the RICS guidance note ‘Property Managers in England & Wales’ 2011 cover?
Best practice for property managers to ensure they are efficient, effective and accountable. Duty to landlord.
What is the difference between assignment and sub-lettings?
Assignment - T2 has direct relationship with Landlord
Sub-letting - T2 has relationship with T1, then T1 pays Landlord
What are open, qualified and absolute covenants?
Open - alienation permitted
Qualified - permitted with consent
Absolute - not permitted
Why might a party choose to sub-let rather than assign?
- Tenant may wish to re-occupy in the future
- Sub-tenant may be of lesser covenant strength
- Requirements of the lease
- May wish to occupy part of the space
- Market rent may be higher than passing rent (profit rent)
How does the Landlord and Tenant (Covenants) Act 1995 impact assignments?
Abolished privity of contract
Introduced the AGA
Guarantor can pay unpaid rent by tenant if S17 notice served within 6 months of rent becoming due
What does the Code for Leasing Business Premises outline in relation to assignments and sub-lettings?
LL should allow assignments of whole with consent
LL should allow sub-letting of whole (and sometimes part) with consent
What is the purpose of a Licence for Alterations?
To protect parties on rent review and dilapidations
What is the RICS guidance for alterations?
RICS Licence for Alterations Guidance Note 2016
What does the RICS guidance note for alterations cover?
Importance of Landlord providing consent within a reasonable timeframe
For offices and industrial
What does the Landlord and Tenant Act 1927 cover?
Tenant Improvements - if the lease outlines that improvements are prohibited, S19 means that consent cannot be unreasonably witheld.
Landlord may have to provide compensation for improvements
Which legislation outlines the basis of a claim for dilapidations?
S18 of the Law of Property Act
On what basis can the Landlord make a dilapidations claim on?
Cost of the works or diminution of value
What are the 3 types of dilapidations schedule?
Interim - more than 3 years before term expiry
Final - on or after lease end
Terminal - within 3 years of term end
What is the format of a dilapidations schedule?
- Outline repair liability
- State remedy and cost of breach
- Outline fees (surveyors & lawyers)
What does the RICS Guidance Note on Dilapidations aim to achieve?
- Reduce disputes
- Provide info on supersession
- Provide info on diminution valuations
- Encourage both parties to act reasonably
- Encourages a careful estimation of loss
What are the reasons why a settlement may not be agreed?
- Tenant has limited liability due to Schedule of Condition
- Not FRI lease
- If Landlord is doing significant demolition/redevelopment
- If tenant has gone into administration
What is the usual basis of measurement for reinstatement valuations?
GIA
What are the 2 main principles of rent collection?
- Timing
- Accuracy of Information
What are some remedies for rent collection?
- Forfeiture
- CRAR
- Court action
- Stat demand
- Payment plan
- Rent Deposit
How does it work when you start court proceedings?
Court judgement issued, even then landlord needs to enforce judgement
Expensive & time consuming
How does a statutory demand work?
Stat demand issued to start proceedings to wind up the company. Can encourage the tenant to pay if they still wish to operate company. 21 days to pay
How can a landlord pursue payment of rent arrears from a sub-tenant?
Serving a S6 notice under the Law of Distraint Act 1908
What is an effective FRI lease?
When the landlord is responsible for repairs but re-charges the cost via Service Charge